Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MICROBIO > MUST TO KNOW IN BACTERIOLOGY > Flashcards

MUST TO KNOW IN BACTERIOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q

Germicidal

A

Soap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Catalase (+)

A

L. monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 C’s: Chicken, Coleslaw, Cheese

A

L. monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chlamydia

When delayed:
Freezing:

A

4’C

-20’C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Phenotypic

A

BAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Gram (+) colonies: Dry, white, sometimes gray
Gram (-) colonies: Gray and moist

A

BAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Destroyed by chlorine

A

M. gordonae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Utilizes 1N HCl

A

DNase test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For Gram (+)
For nonfermentative
For Enterobacteriaceae

A

LOA test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inactivates HBV (10mins) and HIV (2mins)

A

Na hypochlorite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inoculating needles:
(?) = F(+) on oxidase test
Not longer than (?)

A

Nichrome

5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Wire loop:
(?) diameter
(?) urine

A

2mm

0.001mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Significant for UTI

A

50k CFU/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pregnant

A

↑ C. albicans
↑ Lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Carrier state
Lawn a culture
Toxic to Neisseria
Good for virus

A

Cotton swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Removes the toxin inoculated by cotton

A

Charcoal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Basis of identifying organisms
Gram stain and colonies

A

Phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Not Gram stained

A

Stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Most definitive method of identification

A

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Basis of serotyping

A

Somatic antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Father of microbiology
Microscopist
1st to describe bacteria

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Germ theory: relationship of organisms to human disease

A

Robert Koch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Father of Modern Microbiology

A

Louis Pasteur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1st to use dyes for stain

A

Ehrlich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Bacteria Ave. size:
Reproduction:

A

0.4-2μm Binary fission (two-fold increase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Cell wall:
(murein)
: wall less G(+)
: wall less G(-)

A

Peptidoglycan

Protoplast

Spheroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Thick peptidoglycan

A

Gram (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Teichoic acid

A

Gram (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Thin peptidoglycan

A

Gram (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

LPS (Lipid A – exotoxin)jsjsb

A

Gram (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Somatic antigen

A

Gram (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Site for energy synthesis (ATP)

A

Plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Osmotic/permeability barrier

A

Plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Nucleoid
Chromosome:
Plasmid:

A

dsDNA

Extrachromosomal DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Carries the antibiotic-resistance gene

A

Plasmid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Drug-resistance

A

Chromosome and plasmid-mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Food reserves

A

Metachromatic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ribosomes
Prokaryotic:
Eukaryotic:

A

70S

80S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Bacterial adherence
Gene transfer

A

Common pili

Sex pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

By Gram (-) bacteria

A

ESBL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Endospores

A

Calcium dipicolinate
Bacillus, Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Flagella
: one only
: one at both ends
: tuft at one end
: all around bacteria (most common)

A

Monotrichous

Amphitrichous

Lophotrichous

Peritrichous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Aerotolerant anaerobes

A

Lactobacillus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Inorganic compound as source of carbon (CO2)

A

Autotrophs/Lithotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Organic compound as source of carbone (Glucose)
Pathogenic bacteria

A

Heterotrophs/
Organotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Temperature requirements
Psychrophilic:
Mesophilic:
Thermophilic:

A

0-20’C (ref)

20-40’C (pathogenic)

40-60’C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

pH requirement
Acidophilic:
Neutrophilic:
Basophilic:

A

Lactobacillus acidophilus (Doderlein bacillus)

pH 7.2-7.6 (optimal) – pathogenic

Vibrio (Halophilic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Moisture:
Salt concentration:

A

Humidophilic

Halophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Halophilic:

A

Enterococcus and V. parahaemolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Respiration (Aerobic)

A

Glucose → CO2 + H2O
Kreb’s cycle
Electron transport chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Oxidation (Aerobic)

A

Glucose → Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Fermentation (Anaerobic)

A

Glucose → Acid/Alcohol
Embden-Meyerhoff pathway (glycolysis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Adjustment

A

Lag phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

↑ in growth rate (cell division)

A

Log/Exponential phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Susceptible to antimicrobial agents

A

Log/Exponential phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

No net growth
Death = Live cells
Depletion of nutrients
Accumulation of toxic wastes
Sporulation

A

Stationary/plateau phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

↑ Death rate

A

Death/Decline phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bacteria stain more by

A

basic stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Capsule stain

A

India ink
Borris method
Nigrosin method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Not Gram stained

A

Chlamydia and Rickettsia = intracellular
Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma = no cell wall
Spirochetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Gram Stain (Hucker’s
modification
Crystal violet =
Gram’s iodine =
Acetone-alcohol or 95% ethanol =
Safranin O =

A

1min

1min

30secs-1min

30 secs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Over-decolorization
Old dying
Acidic iodine
Penicillin: omits iodine

A

Gram (+) becomes (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Under-decolorization
Thick smear

A

Gram (-) becomes (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Acid Fast staining methods

A

Smear = 2 x 3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pappenheim’s

A

M. smegmatis vs. M. tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Baumgarten’s

A

M. leprae vs. M. tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Fite Faraco

A

M. leprae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Fite Faraco
Counterstain:

A

Hematoxylin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Acid fast organisms

A

Mycobacterium
Nocardia = Mod. AFS (1% H2SO4 as decolorizer)
Cryptosporidium
Legionella micdadei
Rhodococcus equi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Best AFS
C-A-M

A

Ziehl-Neelsen (Hot method)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

= 1’ stain
-Start timing: Vapor (10mins)
-Heat = Mordant

A
  1. Carbolfuchsin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

= Decolorizer
-HCl + 95% etOH
-Until no more stain (Max: 3mins)

A
  1. 3% Acid alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

= counterstain
-30secs to 1min

A
  1. Methylene blue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen (Hot method) Results:

A

AFO = Red
NAFO = Blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Not used

A

Kinyoun (Cold method)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Kinyoun (Cold method) Results:

A

AFO = Red
NAFO = Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Kinyoun (Cold method)

= 1’ stain
-Phenol, Tergitol = Mordant
= Decolorizer
= Counterstain

A
  1. Carbolfuchsin
  2. 3% Acid alcohol
  3. Malachite Green
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Most sensitive

A

Auramine-Rhodamine (Fluorochrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Auramine-Rhodamine (Fluorochrome)

= 1’stain
= Decolorizer
= Counterstain

A
  1. Auramine-rhodamine
  2. 0.5% Acid alcohol
  3. 0.5% KMnO4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Auramine-Rhodamine (Fluorochrome) Results:

A

AFO = Yellow fluorescence
NAFO = No fluorescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Read 300 fields

A

AFB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Special stains
Capsule =
Spore =

A

Negative stain

Dorner, Wirtz, Conklin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Metachromatic granules

A
  • Albert’s
    -Loeffler’s Alkaline Methylene Blue (LAMB)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Flagella =
Nucleic acid =
Polar bodies (ex: Y. pestis) =
Rickettsia =
Spirochetes =

A

Leifson

Feulgen

Wayson

Gimenez

Levaditi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

For study of living unstained organisms

A

Phase contrast microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

For viruses

A

Electron microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Light source: Electrons
100,000x magnification

A

Electron microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Electron microscope Stains:

A

-Negative stain
-PTA
-Heavy metals (Gold, Silver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

DNA, RNA, chromosomes

A

Transmission EM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Surface structures (cell wall, capsule)

A

Scanning EM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

For tissue culture

A

Inverted Microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Dual light source

A

Interference microscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Non staining method

A

String’s test (3% KOH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Pure culture:
Streak plate =
Pour plate =
[?] medium
Animal inoculation =

A

overlap method

Water and milk bacteriology

Selective

for virus, Chlamydia, Rickettsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

2 or more organisms

A

Mixed culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Stored at refrigeratior or freezer (long term)

A

Stock culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Liquid:
Semi-solid:
Solid:
Biphasic:

A

Broth

0.5-1% agar

2-3% agar

Both liquid and solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Biphasic:
Ex.

A

Castañeda = Brucella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Nonfastidious organisms

A

General purpose media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

General purpose media:

A
  1. Sheep BAP = Hemolysis
  2. Horse BAP = Haemophilus
    -Heat-stable, provides X-factor
  3. Nutrient agar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Fastidous organisms

A

Enriched media Solid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

= Heat-labile, provides X & V factor

A
  1. CAP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Enrichment media Liquid:

A
  1. Selenite F
  2. Alkaline peptone water
  3. Thioglycollate broth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Differential media

A
  1. BAP = hemolysis
  2. MAC
  3. EMB
  4. XLD
  5. HEA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Selective media

A
  1. TCBS
  2. SSA
  3. TMA
  4. CBAP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Inhibitory media

A

Selective media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Inhibitory agents

A

Antibiotics
Dyes, bile salts = inhibit Gram (+)
Alcohol (PEA) = inhibit Gram (-)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Gram (+) bacteria
Gram (+) bacteria
Gram (-) cocci

A

PEA

Columbia CNA

Gonococci Agar (GCA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Gentamicin BAP

A

S. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Bacitracin CAP

A

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Cystine Tellurite Blood Agar

A

C. diphtheriae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Cystine Blood Glucose Agar

A

F. tularensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Cystine Trypticase Agar Confirm:

A

Neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Charcoal Cephalexin Blood agar

A

B. pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Bordet-Gengou Agar (Potato Blood Glycerol Agar)

A

B. pertussis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

L. pneumophila

A

BCYE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Cl. trachomatis

A

McCoy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Brucella

A

TSB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Sterile specimen
Nonsterile specimen

A

(-) normal flora

(+) normal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Toxic to virus
Good for Neisseria

A

Calcium alginate swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Anaerobic and aerobic cultures

A

Needle aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Needle and syringe for collection

A

Catheterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Intubation

A

Gastritis
Vomitus
Gastric washing (aerobic culture only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Delay in processing
Refrigerate except:

A
  1. CSF = Room temp. or 35’C
  2. Blood
  3. Swab of N. gonorrhoeae (sensitive to cold)
  4. Urine = Boric acid
  5. Rectal swab = Cary-Blair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Transport medium

A
  1. Cary Blair = for stool pathogen
  2. Stuart’s
  3. Amies = Respiratory specimen
  4. Transgrow = Neisseria
  5. JEMBEC = Neisseria
  6. Todd-Hewitt = Vaginal carriage (S. agalactiae)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

HEPA filter: filters air
Negative pressure

A

Biologic safety cabinet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Environment and MT protected

A

BSC Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Air velocity = 75 linear ft/min

A

BSC Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Exhaust air thru HEPA filter

A

BSC Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Product contaminant

A

BSC Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Vertical laminar airflow

A

BSC Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

MT, environment and product are protected

A

BSC Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Air velocity = 75-100 linear ft/min

A

BSC Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Recommended for hospitals

A

BSC Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Supply and exhaust air thru HEPA filter

A

BSC Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Maximum protection

A

BSC Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Contains HEPA filter

A

N95 Mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

For Mycobacterium

A

N95 Mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

No direct exam in Microbiology

A

Stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Resistant gene
Mobile or jumping

A

Transposons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

F. nucleatum
Capnocytophaga

A

Fusiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

No risk
Moderate risk
High risk

A

BSL I

BSL II

BSL III , BSL IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Treatment available

A

BSL III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

BSL III Inhalation of aerosols, Ex. Mycobacteria (BSC Class II)

No treatment available

A

BSL IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Inhalation of aerosols, Ex. Small pox

A

BSL IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

BHIB + 0.25% SPS

A

Blood culture bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Dilution = 1:10 (1mL blood, 9mL broth)

A

Blood culture bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Anti-complementary, anticoagulant, antiphagocytic

A

Blood culture bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Neutralizes aminoglycosides

A

Blood culture bottle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Disadvantages of SPS Inhibits:

A

-Neisseria
-G. vaginalis
-S. moniliformis
-P. anaerobius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Counteract SPS to allow the growth of organisms

A

1% gelatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Indications of growth (Blood culture)

A

Hemolysis
Turbidity
Pellicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Subculture (Blood culture)

A

BAP
MAC = no CO2
CAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

If blood culture = negative
= Bacteremia (Typhoid)
= Brucellosis, SBE

A

7 days

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Urine culture
Specimen:
Quantitative:
= significant for UTI
= not significant (contaminants)

A

Catheterized, Midstream, Suprapubic

BAP, MAC

->100,000 CFU/mL (or >50,000 CFU/mL)

-<10,000 CFU/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

CSF culture
DO NOT refrigerate
Agents:
Media:
C. neoformans:

A

Neisseria, Haemophilus (Meningitis)

BAP, MAC, CAP, BHI

-India ink method
-Latex agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Wound specimen
Gram stain
Media:

A

BAP, MAC, Thioglycollate broth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Stool specimen
Media:
Oxidase test
Biochemical tests
Serologic typing

A

MAC, BAP+Ampicillin, CBAP, SSA, Selenite F, TCBS, APW, HEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Respiratory specimen
Sputum, NPS
TB = 3 sputum specimen
Media:

A

BAP, MAC, GBAP, BCAP, Amies, Gram stain and Acid fast stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Throat swab
Sore throat
2 specimen
Media:

A

BAP, MTM, Thioglycollate broth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Vaginal, Urethral swab
Media:
Gram stain

A

CAP, MTM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

TB culture
= Gold standard
= digestion, lyse the mucus
= decontamination
= Pseudomonas
Centrifuge (4’C) for [?]
Media:
Incubate at [?] —-(NG)—-> Report as (-)
If (+), after [?]: growth is seen

A

NALC-NaOH

-NALC

-NaOH

6% Oxalic acid

15 mins at 3000g

LJ, Middlebrook 7H11, 7H10 (AST)

37’C for 8 weeks

2-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Genetic Pro
DNA test
Result → 2 hrs

A

GenPro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Moist heat sterilization

A
  1. Autoclave (sporicidal)
  2. Inspissation (sporicidal)
  3. Tyndallization (sporicidal)
  4. Boiling (Nonsporicidal, disinfectant)
  5. Pasteurization (Nonsporicidal, disinfectant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Dy heat sterilization

A
  1. Hot air oven (Sporicidal)
  2. Incineration (Sporicidal)
  3. Cremation (Sporicidal)
  4. Flaming (Sporicidal)
  5. Gas: Ethylene oxide (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

-121’C at 15 lbs/psi for 15 mins

A
  1. Autoclave (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

-Culture media, bandages, gauze

A
  1. Autoclave (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

-QC: B. stearothermophilus

A
  1. Autoclave (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

-75-80’C for 2 hrs on 3 days

A
  1. Inspissation (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

-Disinfect and solidify protein containing medium (LJ, Loeffler’s)

A
  1. Inspissation (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

-Water is heated from below and slanting surface gets heated

A
  1. Inspissation (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

-100’C for 30mins on 3 days

A
  1. Tyndallization (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

-100’C for 30mins

A
  1. Boiling (Nonsporicidal, disinfectant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

-Kills vegetative cells only

A
  1. Boiling (Nonsporicidal, disinfectant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

-Milk
-63’C for 30mins
-72’C for 15secs
-Phosphatase: to determine if successful. (+): Not pasteurized

A
  1. Pasteurization (Nonsporicidal, disinfectant)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

-170-180’C for 2 hrs

A
  1. Hot air oven (Sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

-Glasswares, cottonswabs, metallic instruments, oils, powders

A
  1. Hot air oven (Sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

-QC: B. subtilis

A
  1. Hot air oven (Sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

-Waste disposal

A
  1. Incineration (Sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

-Not recommended

A
  1. Incineration (Sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

-Prevents communicable disease

A
  1. Cremation (Sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

-Needles

A
  1. Flaming (Sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

-Heat-labile machine instruments

A
  1. Gas: Ethylene oxide (sporicidal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

-Preservation

A
  1. Cold temperature/Freezing (Bacteriostatic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

-Freeze drying

A
  1. Lyophilization (Powderized)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

-Best to preserve culture

A
  1. Lyophilization (Powderized)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

-Preservation

A
  1. Osmotic pressure (Bacteriostatic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

= removal of water

A
  1. Dessication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

= produce pyrimidine dimer to DNA → mutation

A
  1. UV light
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

-Reduces airborne infection

A
  1. UV light
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

-For disposable materials (gloves, syringe)

A
  1. Ionizing radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

-Air: HEPA filter

A
  1. Filtration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

-H2O: cellulose membrane/ membrane filter

A
  1. Filtration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Filter heat-labile filter

A

Seitz filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Made up of cellulose nitrate, cellulose diacetate, polycarbonate or polyester

A

Membrane filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

New: cellulose diacetate w/ a pore diameter of 0.015 to 12 microns

A

Membrane filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Best filter used

A

Membrane filter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Spillage disinfectant

A

Sodium hypochlorite (Clorox)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Sporicidal

A

Iodine/Iodophor

Formaldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Iodine + Detergent =
Iodine alone =

A

Betadine (Best antiseptic)

toxic to skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Nonsporicidal

A

70% ethyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Cleansing of wound

A

H2O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Crede’s prophylaxis (New: Erythromycin eye droplets)

A

1% AgNO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Prevents ophthalmia neonatorum

A

1% AgNO3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

Sterilant

A

Glutaraldehyde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Standard disinfectant

A

Phenol (Carbolic acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Multipurpose

A

Lysol (Cresol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Inhibit Gram (+)

A

Dyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

For decontaminating sputum

A

Zephiran (Benzalkonium chloride)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Instrument caused

A

Iatrogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Antagonistic
Synergistic

A

1 antibiotic > 2 antibiotics

2 antibiotics > 1 antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Extensively Drug Resistant Tuberculosis
Quinolone resistant
No treatment at all

A

XDR-TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

QC for beta-lactamase

A

H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Extended spectrum beta-lactamase
Produced by Gram (-) = E. coli, Klebsiella
Plasmid mediated
Test: Beta-lactamase = Keyhole effect (overlapping zones)
-Clavulanic acid and cephalosporin

A

ESBL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Chromosome mediated
Produced by Gram (+) and (-) bacteria
Test: Beta-lactamase = D zone
-(+) to MRSA
-Imipenem and cefotixin

A

Amp C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

Cell wall inhibitors

Broad spectrum:

A

Penicillin
Cephalosporin
Vancomycin = Tx: MRSA

Bacitracin
Cycloserine
Carbapenems/Imipenem
Penicilinase-resistant: Methicillin, Cloxacillin, Nafcillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Cell membrane inhibitors

A

Colistin = against Gram (-)
Polymixin = against Gram (-)
Amphotericin B = drug of choice for systemic fungi
Nystatin = antifungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Ribosome (Protein) inhibitors

A

Aminoglycosides (30S)
Tetracycline (30S)
Chloramphenicol (50S)
Erythromycin/Macrolide (50S)
Clindamycin (50S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

-False-resistant = P. aeruginosa (Mg2+ and Ca2+)

-Discovered by Bernardo Aguilar
-For penicillin allergic patients

A

Aminoglycosides (30S)

Erythromycin/Macrolide (50S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Nucleic acid (DNA) inhibitors

A

Mitomycin
Quinolones
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (SXT/Bactrim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

= inh. folate synth., synergistic

A

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (SXT/Bactrim)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Anti-TB

A

Pyrazinamide
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Streptomycin
Ethambutol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Reference method (AST)
Det. MIC/MBC

A

Micro/Macrobroth dilution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Many organisms vs. single drug
Pure culture vs. many drugs

A

Agar dilution

Disk diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Agar gradient diffusion
Antibiotic strip diffusion MIC test
MIC = Ellipse zone at intersection

A

E test (Epsilometer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Kirby-Bauer Disk Diffusion
Std. Inoculum:
Medium:
pH:
Depth:
Condition:
Temp:
Incub. time:
Std:
Antibiotic disc:

A

1.5 x 10^8

MHA

7.2-7.4

4mm

Aerobic, No CO2

35-37’C (MRSA: 35’C)

16-18 hrs

0.5 McFarland (1% H2SO4 + 1.175% BaCl2)

6mm (refrigerated/frozen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

For bacterial count

A

Petroff-Hausser counting chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Distance of antibiotic disc to each other
Time for the medium to absorb the bacteria after inoculation
Inoculation of discs → Incubation

A

15mm

15mins

w/in 15mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

False resistant

A

Heavy inoculums
Thick medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Delay in disc application

A

↑ Ca2+ and Mg2+ = Aminoglycoside (vs. P. aeruginosa)
↑ Thymine-Thymidine = SXT (vs. Enterococcus)
↑ pH = tetracycline
↓ pH = aminoglycoside, erythromycin
Expired discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

False sensitive

A

Light inoculums
Thin medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

If double zone of inhibition
If there are colonies inside the zone of inhibition

A

Measure the outer zone
Ignore swarming

Gram stain the colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

AST media
1. MHA =
2. MHA + 2% NaCl =
3. MHA + 5% Sheep blood =
4. Haemophilus test medium:
5. GC agar =
6. Middlebrook 7H10 =

A

std. media

MRSA

S. pneumoniae (w/ CO2)

MHA + Yeast extract + Hemin + NAD + CO2

Neisseria (w/ CO2)

Mycobacteria (w/ CO2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
234
Q

Specific
Regular basis
Checking media and reagents w/ specific organisms to check expected results
Set by CLSI (formerly NCCLS)

A

QC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
235
Q

General
Snap shot
Total process whereby the quality of lab. reports can be guaranteed

A

QA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
236
Q

Daily QC

A

Oxidase
Catalase
Incubator
Gram stain
Refrigerator/Freezer
Water bath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
237
Q

Each use (QC)

A

GasPak Jar
ONPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
238
Q

Weekly QC

A

Antibiotic (Newly opened: 30 days QC  weekly)
Autoclave
Biochemical tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
239
Q

Semi-annually

A

Safety hood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
240
Q

ATCC (American Type Culture Collection)
For AST
Stock culture:
Working culture:

A

-20 or -70’C

2-8’C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
241
Q

ATCC-1234
Beta-lactamase producers:

A

-S. aureus
-N. gonorrhoeae
-H. influenzae
-Enterococcus
-E. coli
-P. aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
242
Q

Catalase test
Rgt:
(+):
F (+):

A

3% H2O2

Gas bubbles

BAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
243
Q

Coagulase test
Rgt:
(+) Clot formation after
F (+):
F (-):
= detects clumping factor/bound coagulase
= detects free/unbound coagulase

A

Rabbit EDTA plasma

4hrs

Citrate

Reading result after 6 hrs (Staphylokinase)

  1. Slide test (Screening)
  2. Tube test (Confirmatory)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
244
Q

Mannitol fermentation
Medium:
Indicator:
(+):
(-):

A

MSA (7.5% NaCl)

Phenol Red

Yellow

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
245
Q

DNase test
1. [?] (pink zone)/ [?] (clear zone)
2. [?]: no pptn. after adding 1N HCl when DNase (+) = pink

A

Toluidine blue / Methyl green

HCl precipitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
246
Q

Novobiocin test
Amt.:
(R):
(S):

A

5μg

<16mm

> 16mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
247
Q

Modified oxidase test
Rgt:
(+):

A

tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride in dimethylsulfoxide

Purple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
248
Q

Pinhead colonies

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
249
Q

Mod. oxidase (-)

A

Staphylococcus

Stomatococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
250
Q

Lysostaphin and Furazolidone (S)

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
251
Q

Ferments sugar

A

Staphylococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
252
Q

Mod. oxidase (+)

A

Micrococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
253
Q

Lysostaphin and Furazolidone (R)

A

Micrococcus

Stomatococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
254
Q

Oxidizes sugar

A

Micrococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
255
Q

S. aureus

Virulence factors:

Identification:

Infections:

A

-Protein A (cell wall)
-Leukocidin (Panton-Valentine)
-Exfoliatin (SSS/Ritter’s disease)
-TSST-1 (Tampons)

-Staphyloxanthin (Lipochrome): Yellow-orange colony
-(+) Phosphatase, ONPG, Arginine, NO3, VP, Gelatin
-(-) PYR

-Carbuncles, furuncles, folliculitis, cellulitis, impetigo, bacteremia, endocarditis, osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
256
Q

Slide coagulase (+)
PYR (+)

Slide coagulase (+)
VP (-)

A

S. lugdunensis

S. intermedius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
257
Q

Staphylococcus
: carrier of S. aureus
Culture:

A

Nasal swab

-Vogel-Johnson: Black colonies
-Chapman: Black colonies
-Tellurite Glycine: Black colonies
-P agar
-PEA: selective
-Columbia CNA: selective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
258
Q

1 skin flora

Blood culture contaminant

A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
259
Q

Biofilm/slime production: Prosthetic heart valve → Endocarditis, bacteremia
UTI: catheterized

A

S. epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
260
Q

UTI: sexually active women

A

S. saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
261
Q

Pinpoint colonies
Capnophilic: 5-10% CO2

A

Streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
262
Q

Streptococcus
Culture:

A

SBA: Medium of choice
PEA: Selective medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
263
Q

Smith and Brown’s classification
Hemolysis:
1. Alpha =
2. Beta =
3. Gamma =
4. Alpha prime =

A

incomplete (green)

complete (clear)

no zone

alpha (around colonies) + beta (around alpha)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
264
Q

Universally susceptible to antibiotics

A

S. pyogenes
(Group A)
(Beta-hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
265
Q

S. pyogenes
(Group A)
(Beta-hemolytic)

Virulence factors:

Diseases:

A

-SLO = O2-labile, subsurface hemolysis, immunogenic
-SLS = O2-stable, surface hemolysis, non-immunogenic
-Erythrogenic toxin (Scarlet fever)

-Pharyngitis, AGN, RHF, erysipelas, impetigo
-Scarlet fever:
a. Dick’s test (red): Skin test
b. Schultz-Charlton (rash fade/blanching): Immunity test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
266
Q

Vaginal and URT flora
#1 neonatal meningitis

A

S. agalactiae
(Group B)
(Beta-hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
267
Q

Group C
(Beta-hemolytic)

A

S. equisimilis
S. equi
S. zoopedemicus
S. dysagalactiae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
268
Q

Group F
(Beta-hemolytic)

A

S. anginosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
269
Q

Group D Enterococcus
(Alpha, beta or gamma- hemolytic)

A

E. faecalis
E. faecium
E. durans
E. avium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
270
Q

Cause UTI

A

Group D Enterococcus
(Alpha, beta or gamma- hemolytic)

Group D non-Enterococcus
(Alpha, beta or gamma-
hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
271
Q

Drug-resistant: VRE

A

Group D Enterococcus
(Alpha, beta or gamma- hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
272
Q

Group D non-Enterococcus
(Alpha, beta or gamma-hemolytic)

A

S. bovis
S. equinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
273
Q

Lancet-shaped, diplococci

A

S. pneumoniae
(Alpha-hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
274
Q

Colonies: Mexican hat/ Dome-shaped

A

S. pneumoniae
(Alpha-hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
275
Q

Encapsulated

A

S. pneumoniae
(Alpha-hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
276
Q

1 Adult bacterial meningitis

A

S. pneumoniae
(Alpha-hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
277
Q

Most common cause of Otitis media

A

S. pneumoniae
(Alpha-hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
278
Q

Lobar pneumonia: Rusty sputum

A

S. pneumoniae
(Alpha-hemolytic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
279
Q

S. pneumoniae
(Alpha-hemolytic)
Lab. Diagnosis:

A
  1. Neufeld Quellung (pptn. test, capsular swelling)
  2. Bile solubility
    -BAP: 10% Na desoxycholate
    -Tube: 2% Na desoxycholate
  3. Francis test: skin test
  4. Mouse virulence test: (+) death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
280
Q

Viridans Streptococci

A

S. mitis (mitior)
S. salivarius
S. uberis
S. constellatus
S. intermedius
S. mutans = dental plaques/caries
S. sanguis = SBE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
281
Q

Nutritionally Variant

A

Abiotrophia
Granulicatella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
282
Q

Require Vit. B6 (pyridoxine)
(+) Staph. Streak test

A

Nutritionally Variant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
283
Q

Vancomycin Resistant

A

Leuconostoc = LAP (-)
Pediococcus = LAP (+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
284
Q

Aerobic
Gram (-) diplococci
Oxidase (Taxo N): Presumptive test (+)
CTA: Confirmatory test
Capnophilic: 5-10% CO2

A

Neisseria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
285
Q

Pili: Adherence

A

N. gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
286
Q

N. gonorrhoeae
Diseases:

Lab. Diagnosis:
-Culture:

A

-Gonorrhea (“Clap”)
-Ophthalmia neonatorum (Tx: Erythromycin eye drops)
-Salphingitis
-Epididymitis

a. Sterile:
= CAP: (+) Growth
= BAP: (-) Growth (Fastidious)
b. Nonsterile:
= GC agar: AST media
= TMA (Vancomycin-Colistin-Nystatin)
= MTM (V-C-N-Trimethoprim lactate)
= MLA (V-C-Anisomycin-T)
= NYCA (V-C-Amphotericin B-T)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
287
Q

Carrier: Nasopharynx

A

N. meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
288
Q

N. meningitidis

Virulence factors:

Diseases:

Lab. Diagnosis:
-Culture:

A

-Capsule
-Endotoxin
-Pili
-IgA protease

-Meningitis
-Meningococcemia
-Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (Adrenal gland hemorrhage)
-DIC

a. BAP = (+) Growth
b. CAP = (+) Growth
-Serotypes: A, B, C, Y, W135 (Capsular Antigens)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
289
Q

Commensal of URT

A

M. catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
290
Q

(+) NO3 → NO2
(+) Butyrate disk
(+) Tributyrin hydrolysis
(G) Nutrient Agar

A

M. catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
291
Q

Colony: Hockey Puck

A

M. catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
292
Q

3rd cause of Otitis media

A

M. catarrhalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
293
Q

Breadcrumb/wrinkled colony

A

N. sicca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
294
Q

(+) ONPG

A

N. lactamica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
295
Q

Superoxol catalase test:

A

30% H2O2
(+) N. gonorrhoeae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
296
Q

Beta-lactamase test
1. Chromogenic cephalosporin test or Nitrocefin/Cefinase disk test
-(+):
2. Acidimetric
-Phenol red → (+):
3. Acidimetric
-I2 → (+):

A

Pink/red color

Colorless

Yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
297
Q

AFB (Mycolic acid)
Much granules = metachromatic
Aerobic nonsporeformer

A

Mycobacteria

298
Q

Mycobacteria 3 Groups:
1. M. tuberculosis complex = cause TB
a. M. tuberculosis =
b. M. bovis =
c. M. africanum =
2. MOTT (New: NTM)
3. M. leprae

A

pulmonary TB

intestinal TB, bovine TB (BCG)

pulmonary TB in Africa

299
Q

“Koch bacillus”
Capnophilic
Virulence: Cord Factor and Sulfatides

A

M. tuberculosis

300
Q

M. tuberculosis Lab Dx:
1. GS = qualify specimen
> 10 epithelial cells = [?]
< 10 epithelial cells (>25 pus cells) = [?]
2. Decontamination-Digestion = Best
-[?]: remove metallic compound
3. AFS
4. Culture

A

saliva

sputum

Na citrate

301
Q

Bone TB

A

Pott’s disease

302
Q

Agar based media

A

Duboi’s oleic acid albumin medium
Mitchison’s medium
Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11 (AST)

303
Q

Egg based media (Sterilization: Inspissation)

A

Petragnani medium
Löwenstein Jensen (Slant) medium
American Thoracic Society medium
Dorset egg medium

304
Q

Liquid media

A

BACTEC 12B
Septi-Chek
Middlebrook 7H9

305
Q

Heat stable catalase test
Temp:
Medium:
Rgt:

(+)
(-)

A

68’C

Tween 80

30% H2O2

M. kansasii

M. tuberculosis

306
Q

Tween 80 hydrolysis test
Tween 80:

(+) [?] and
Differentiates [?] (+) from (-) [?]

A

Polyoxyethylene sorbitan mono-oleate

M. kansasii

M. gordonae

M. scrofulaceum

307
Q

Arylsulfatase test
For:

(+)

A

rapid growers

M. fortuitum-chelonae

308
Q

TCH Susceptibility test
TCH:
(S):
(R):

A

Thiopene-2-carboxylic acid hydrazide

M. bovis

M. tuberculosis

309
Q

Old Skin Test (TB)
= intracutaneous (most sensitive)
= scratch on skin
= piece of cloth w/ PPD  skin
4. Moro percutaneous test
= multiple puncture technique

A
  1. Mantoux
  2. Von Pirquet
  3. Vollmer’s patch test
  4. Tuberculin time test
310
Q

PPD
0.1 mL (5 TU)
(+):
Doubtful:

A

Induration (≥10mm)

5-<10mm/(-): <5mm

311
Q

Photochromogens
(Group I)

A
  1. M. marinum (“Of the sea”)
  2. M. asiaticum
  3. M. simiae
  4. M. kansasii (“Yellow bacillus”)
312
Q

-(+) pyrazinamidase
-(+) urease

A
  1. M. marinum (“Of the sea”)
313
Q

-1st: Macaca rhesus monkey

A
  1. M. simiae
314
Q

-(+) Heat-stable catalase
-(+) Tween 80 hydrolysis
-(+) NO3 reduction
-Pulmonary infection
-#2 isolate

A
  1. M. kansasii (“Yellow bacillus”)
315
Q

Scotochromogens
(Group II)

A
  1. M. scrofulaceum
  2. M. szulgai
  3. M. gordonae (“Tap water bacillus”)
  4. M. flavescens
  5. M. xenopi
  6. M. thermoresistible
316
Q

-(+) Urease
-Scrofula: cervical lymphadenitis

A
  1. M. scrofulaceum
317
Q

-Photochromogen at 25’C
-Scotochromogen at 35-37’C

A
  1. M. szulgai
318
Q

-Hot and cold H2O taps
-Cornmeal agar: “Bird’s nest”
-Optimal growth at 42’C
-(G) 37’C
-(NG) 25’C
-(-) Tellurite reduction
-(-) Catalase

A
  1. M. xenopi
319
Q

-(G) 52’C

A
  1. M. thermoresistible
320
Q

Colony: Cream/buff

A

Non-photochromogens
(Group III)

321
Q

Non-photochromogens
(Group III)

A
  1. M. terrae-triviale
  2. M. avium-intracellulare (“Battey bacillus”)
  3. M. gastri
  4. M. haemophilum = require hemin (CAP)
  5. M. ulcerans (Buruli)
  6. M. malmoense
  7. M. tuberculosis
322
Q

-(+) Catalase

-(NG) NaCl

-(G) NaCl

A
  1. M. terrae-triviale

a. M. terrae (“Raddish bacillus”)

b. M. triviale

323
Q

-(+) Tellurite reduction

-(+) Urease

A
  1. M. avium-intracellulare (“Battey bacillus”)
  2. M. gastri
324
Q

Rapid Growers
(Group IV)

A
  1. M. fortuitum-chelonae
  2. M. smegmatis
  3. M. phlei (“Hay bacillus”)
325
Q

-(+) Arylsulfatase
-(G) MAC

A
  1. M. fortuitum-chelonae
326
Q

-(+) NO3 reduction
-(+) 5% NaCl
-(+) Iron uptake

A

a. M. fortuitum

327
Q

-(-) NO3 reduction
-(-) 5% NaCl
-(-) Iron uptake

A

b. M. chelonei

328
Q

Growth: 10-21 days
Growth: 3-7 days

A

Groups I, II, III (Runyon’s Classification)

Group IV (Rapid growers)

329
Q

Principle: RIA
14C Palmitic acid + organisms ———-> 14CO2
(+): >10 growth index

A

BACTEC 460 Middlebrook 7H12

330
Q

Fluorometric based
↑ O2 consumption = ↑ Fluorescence

A

Mycobacteria Growth Indicator test (MGIT)

331
Q

Rgt: p-nitroacetylamino-beta-hydroxypropiophenone (NAP)
(NG) = (+) M. tuberculosis

A

BACTEC 12B + NAP (Growth inhibition test)

332
Q

Cigarette-packet/picket-fence

A

M. leprae

333
Q

Not cultivable in agar

A

M. leprae

334
Q

Can hydrolyze DOPA

A

M. leprae

335
Q

Tropism to peripheral nerves

A

M. leprae

336
Q

M. leprae Tx:

A

Dapsone

337
Q

(-) Lepromine
↑ ↑ ↑ AFB

(+) Lepromine
↓ ↓ ↓ AFB

A

Lepromatous

Tuberculoid

338
Q

Lab. Diagnosis (Leprosy)
Specimen:
Culture:
Stain:

A

Ear lobe, nasal scraping

Foot pads of Armadillo

Fite Faraco

339
Q

Disseminated infection in AIDS
BACTEC (+)

A

M. genavensi

340
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

M. paratuberculosis

341
Q

Pleomorphic (rod-cocci)

A

Rhodococcus equi

342
Q

(+) pink colonies

A

Rhodococcus equi

343
Q

Partially acid fast (Mod. AFS: H2SO4)

A

Nocardia

344
Q

(+) Urease

A

Nocardia

345
Q

Cause pneumonia

A

Nocardia

346
Q

= casein hydrolysis (-)
= casein hydrolysis (+)

A

N. asteroides

N. brasiliensis

347
Q

Pleomorphic

A

Corynebacteria

348
Q

Club shape: X, Y, V, L (Chinese characters)

A

Corynebacteria

349
Q

Palisade appearance: diphtheroids

A

Corynebacteria

350
Q

Nonmotile, nonsporeforming, nonencapsulated

A

Corynebacteria

351
Q

(+) catalase and oxidase

A

Corynebacteria

352
Q

“Klebs-Loeffler” bacillus

A

C. diphtheriae

353
Q

C. diphtheriae
Virulence:
Diphtheria:
Lab. Diagnosis:

A

Exotoxin (A and B) – heat labile

pseudomembrane of the pharynx

-Elek test: definitive
-Roemer test: incubates the bacteria in pig
-Schick’s test: skin test (Ab’s)
-(+) DNase
-(-) Urease
-Ferments dextrose

354
Q

Biotypes of C. diphtheriae
= gray, large, beta-hemolytic, starch/glycogen fermentation (+)
= black, medium-size, beta-hemolytic, starch/glycogen fermentation (-)
= black, small, nonhemolytic

A
  1. Gravis
  2. Mitis
  3. Intermedius
355
Q

“Hoffman’s bacillus”

A

C. pseudodiphtheriticum

356
Q

Ferments glucose, maltose and sucrose

A

C. xerosis

357
Q

Agent of erythrasma

A

C. minutissimum

358
Q

Coral red fluorescence on Wood’s lamp (porphyrin)

A

C. minutissimum

359
Q

Lysogeny (no lysis)

A

Transduction

360
Q

Aerobic, catalase (+)
Zoonotic

A

B. anthracis

361
Q

B. anthracis

Virulence:

Diseases:

Lab. Diagnosis:

A

-Exotoxin: edema and lethal
-Capsule: D-glutamate

-Malignant pustule (Black eschar)
-Woolsorter’s disease (Respiratory)
-Gastroenteritis (Bloody diarrhea)

-PLET: sensitive medium
-Colony: medusa-head, inverted pine tree growth
-(+) catalase
-String of pearls on BAP + 0.05 U of penicillin
-Gamma phage susceptible
-Ascoli test

362
Q

“Fried rice bacillus”

(-) capsule

A

B. cereus

363
Q

B. cereus
Exotoxin (cholera-like):

A

↑ cAMP = ↑ H2O, Na+, K+ = dehydration

364
Q

Common lab. contaminant

A

B. subtilis

365
Q

Causes eye infection in heroin addicts

A

B. subtilis

366
Q

Anaerobic, catalase (-)

A

Clostridium

367
Q

Clostridium Saccharolytic except:

A

C. tetani, C. septicum

368
Q
  1. Neurotoxic:
  2. Histotoxic:
  3. Enteric:
A

C. tetani (spastic paralysis), C. botulinum (flaccid paralysis)

C. perfringens, C. septicum

C. difficile

369
Q

(Old: C. welchii)
Encapsulated, nonmotile

A

C. perfringens

370
Q

Double zone of hemolysis:
-Inner (complete): due to theta toxin
-Outer (incomplete hemolysis): due to alpha toxin

A

C. perfringens

371
Q

C. perfringens

Lab. Diagnosis:
-Chopped meat:
-Nagler test:
= Medium:
= (+) Opalescence on agar w/o antitoxin
= (-) No opalescence on agar w/ antitoxin

A

growth + gas (anaerobic growth)

lecithinase test (alpha toxin)

McClung or Neomycin egg yolk ;

372
Q

“Canned-good bacillus”

A

C. botulinum

373
Q

C. botulinum

Virulence:

Diseases:

A

-Heat labile toxin
-Botulinum toxin
-Not cultured

-Wound botulism
-Infant botulism

374
Q

“Tack head bacillus”

A

C. tetani

375
Q

Tennis head, drumstick

A

C. tetani

376
Q

Oval, terminal spore

A

C. tetani

377
Q

Swarms on BAP

A

C. tetani

378
Q

-Not cultured

A

C. tetani

379
Q

: block release of acetylcholine (muscle) → flaccid paralysis
: Most potent toxin

: grow in gut and honeybee (SIDS)

A

-Heat labile toxin

-Botulinum toxin

Infant botulism

380
Q

C. tetani

Virulence:
Disease:

A

Exotoxin
-Tetanolysin
-Tetanospasmin

-Lockjaw
-Risus sardonicus: Sardonic smile
-Opisthotonus

381
Q

: binds to ganglioside receptors and inhibit neurons in CNS → spastic paralysis

: Sardonic smile

A

-Tetanospasmin

-Risus sardonicus

382
Q

Normal flora of the colon

A

C. difficile

383
Q

Clindamycin-associated pseudomembranous colitis

A

C. difficile

384
Q

C. difficile Lab. Diagnosis:

A

-Cytotoxin assay
-Culture: CCFA (Yellow colonies w/ horse manure odor)

385
Q

Anaerobic bacteriology
Collection:
Reduced media:

A

Needle aspiration

-Anaerobic BAP
-Schaedler medium
-Bacteroides bile medium
-Laked Kanamycin-Vancomycin BAP
-Anaerobic PEA
-Egg yolk agar
-Chopped meat
-Peptone yeast extract glucose
-Thioglycollate broth
-Lombard Dowell Agar

386
Q

Methods to promote anaerobiosis

A
  1. GasPak Jar or Mcintosh Fildesh, Brewer, Torbal or any anaerobic jar
  2. PRAS
387
Q
  1. GasPak Jar or Mcintosh Fildesh, Brewer, Torbal or any anaerobic jar
A

-CO2, N2, no O2
-H + O2 = H2O
-Candle jar = not to be used

388
Q
  1. PRAS = roll tube of Hungate
    Anaerobic indicators:
A

a. Resazurin = pink
b. Methylene blue = colorless

389
Q

Brick red fluorescence

A

Prevotella
Porphyromonas

390
Q

Red fluorescence

A

Veillonella

391
Q

Pitting of agar

A

B. ureolyticus

392
Q

Swarming

A

C. tetani
C. septicum

393
Q

Molar tooth colony, sulfur granules

A

A. israelii

394
Q

Breadcrumb colony

A

Fusobacterium

395
Q

Gram (+) Anaerobic Bacilli

A

Actinomyces
Bifidobacterium
Eubacterium
Propionebacterium
Lactobacillus
Mobiluncus

396
Q

Gram (-) Anaerobic Bacilli

A

Bacteroides
Porphyromonas
Prevotella
Fusobacterium

397
Q

Gram (+) Anaerobic Cocci

A

Peptostreptococcus
Peptococcus

398
Q

Gram (-) Anaerobic Cocci

A

Veillonella
Megasphera
Acidaaminococcus

399
Q

Lumpy jaw

A

A. bovis

400
Q

Acne vulgaris

A

P. acnes

401
Q

(+) Catalase, Indole

A

P. acnes

402
Q

Tomato juice agar

A

L. acidophilus

403
Q

(-) Catalase

A

L. acidophilus

Mobiluncus

P. asaccharolyticus

404
Q

Vaginitis (G. vaginalis)

A

Mobiluncus

405
Q

Foul odor

A

Anaerobic infections

406
Q

Needs 20% bile

A

B. fragilis

407
Q

Vincent’s angina (B. vincenti)

A

F. necrophorum (F. moriferum)

408
Q

SPS sensitive (Neut: 1% gelatin)

A

P. anaerobius

409
Q

(-) Indole, Catalase

A

P. anaerobius

410
Q

Staphylococcus-like
Black

A

P. niger

411
Q

H2S indicators
TSI =
LIA =
SIM =

A

Ferrous sulfate

Ferric ammonium citrate

Lead acetate

412
Q

Phenol red
Acid =
Alkaline =

A

Yellow

Red

413
Q

Methyl red
Acid =
Alkaline =

A

Red

Yellow

414
Q

Neutral red
Acid =
Alkaline/neutral =

A

Pink/red

Colorless

415
Q

Bromthymol blue
Acid =
Neutral =
Alkaline =

A

Yellow

Green

Blue

416
Q

All ferment glucose
All are catalase (+)
All reduce NO3 → NO2

A

Enterobacteriaceae

417
Q

Enterobacteriaceae

All are motile except:

All are oxidase (-) except:

A

-Shigella
-Klebsiella
-Y. pestis
-S. gallinarum
-S. pullorum

P. shigelloides (+)

418
Q

Enterobacteriaceae Antigens:

A

-K = Capsular (for serotyping)
-O = Somatic (cell wall, heat-stable)
-H = Flagellar (heat-labile)

419
Q

VP (+) “KESH”

A

Klebsiella
Enterobacter
Serratia
Hafnia

420
Q

H2S (+) “SPACEd”

A

Salmonella
Proteus
Arizona
Citrobacter
Edwardsiella

421
Q

Lactose Fermenters “ACH” (Slow) “EKE” (Rapid)

A

Arizona
Citrobacter
Hafnia
E. coli
Klebsiella
Enterobacter
—————————————————–
Y. enterocolitica = (+) ONPG, TSI: A/A

422
Q

Deaminase (+) “PMP”

A

Proteus
Morganella
Providencia

423
Q

Urease (+)
“PMP” (except P. alcalifaciens)
“K.pn/ox”
“E”
“Y.ps/en”

A

Proteus
Morganella
Providencia
K. pneumoniae
K. oxytoca
E. gergoviae
Y. pseudotuberculosis
Y. enterocolitica

424
Q

Aerogenic

A

Klebsiella
E. coli
Salmonella (except S. typhi, S. gallinarum)
Proteus
Arizona
Citrobacter
Enterobacter

425
Q

“Colon Bacillus”

A

E. coli

426
Q

1 UTI

#2 Neonatal meningitis (K1 Ag)

A

E. coli

427
Q

MUG (+) except:
MUG (+):

A

E. coli O157:H7
Electric blue fluorescence

428
Q

Traveler’s diarrhea; Turista

A

ETEC

429
Q

Montezuma revenge

A

ETEC

430
Q

Belly Delhi

A

ETEC

431
Q

Cholera like, watery diarrhea (SL, LT)

A

ETEC

432
Q

Infantile diarrhea

A

EPEC

433
Q

Pili: pathogenicity island

A

EPEC

434
Q

Dysentery (Shigella)-like diarrhea

A

EIEC

435
Q

Invasin: Pathogenicity

A

EIEC

436
Q

Stool: bloody w/ mucus

A

EIEC

437
Q

Sereny test

A

EIEC

438
Q

HUS

A

EHEC/VTEC

439
Q

Hemorrhagic colitis

A

EHEC/VTEC

440
Q

Verotoxin: Shigella-like toxin

A

EHEC/VTEC

441
Q

EHEC/VTEC
Sorbitol MAC (-)

A

E. coli O157:H7

442
Q

Acute and chronic diarrhea

A

EAEC

443
Q

Aggregative adhesion fimbriae

A

EAEC

444
Q

Other Escherichia spp
= yellow colonies
= yellow colonies
-Nonmotile, (-) H2S, NLF, PG (-), Vi (-)

A

E. hermanni

E. vulneris

Alkalescens dispar (Anaerogenic E. coli/E. coli inactive)

445
Q

UTI, wound, septicemia

= yellow pigment
= yellow pigment

A

Enterobacter

E. sakazakii

E. (Pantoea) agglomerans

446
Q

“Friedlander’s bacillus”
(+)Capsule, ESBL

A

K. pneumoniae

447
Q

K. pneumoniae Diseases:

A

-Pneumonia: “Currant jelly-like sputum”
-Wound infections
-Meningitis
-UTI

448
Q

Biochemically inert

A

K. rhinoscleromatis

449
Q

PMP Group (Proteeae) All are indole (+) except

A

P. mirabilis (-)

450
Q

Swarm on BAP but not on MAC

A

Proteus

451
Q

2 UTI

A

Proteus

452
Q

Renal stone association

A

Proteus

453
Q

Odor: Burnt gun powder/Burnt chocolate

A

Proteus

454
Q

: Rapid urease producer

A

P. mirabilis

455
Q

Indole (-)

A

Salmonella

456
Q

BSA & SSA: Black colonies

A

Salmonella

457
Q

Gold standard: Culture

A

Salmonella

458
Q

Kaufmann White schema
-Vi Ag = heat-labile, masks the O Ag
-O Ag
-H ag

A

Salmonella

459
Q

Salmonella Tx:

A

Chloramphenicol

460
Q

S. typhi
Diseases:
Complication:
Lab Diagnosis:

A

Typhoid fever
Meningitis
Osteomyelitis

Psychosis

-1st week: Blood
-2nd week: Urine and stool (carrier)

461
Q

Septicemia

A

S. paratyphi C (S. choleraesuis)

462
Q

“Gardner’s Bacillus”

A

S. enteritidis

463
Q

Biochemically inert

A

Shigella

464
Q

SSA: colorless

A

Shigella

465
Q

Shigella Related to E. coli:
-E. coli:
-Shigella:

A

Acetate (+)

Acetate (-)

466
Q

Intestinal pathogen: Dysentery

A

Shigella

467
Q

Shigella Lab. Diagnosis:

A

-BEST: Culture of fresh stool w/ mucous flecks
-Rectal swab of ulcer

468
Q

Shigella Subgroups (O Ag)
A =
B =
C =
D =

A

S. dysenteriae (“Shiga Bacillus”)

S. flexneri (“Strong Bacillus”)

S. boydii

S. sonnei (Cross reacts w Plesiomonas)

469
Q

Red pigment (Prodigiosin)
Red milk

A

Serratia marcescens

470
Q

(+) DNase, Gelatinase, LPS

A

Serratia marcescens

471
Q

Resistant to many antibiotics

A

Serratia marcescens

472
Q

Rancid, potato-like odor

A

Serratia odorifera

473
Q

“Plague Bacillus”

A

Y. pestis

474
Q

(+) Stalactite on broth medium

A

Y. pestis

475
Q

V and W antigens

A

Y. pestis

476
Q

MOT: Rat flea bite

A

Y. pestis

477
Q

Y. pestis Infections:

A

-Bubonic plague: buboes, lymphadenopathy
-Pneumonic plague
-Septicemic plague
-Black death

478
Q

Motile at RT’

A

Y. enterocolitica

479
Q

Appendicitis-like infection

A

Y. enterocolitica

480
Q

(+) ONPG

A

Y. enterocolitica

481
Q

Motile at RT’

A

Y. pseudotuberculosis

482
Q

Mesenteric lymphadenitis, septicemia

A

Y. pseudotuberculosis

483
Q

“Comma Bacillus”
Comma-shaped

A

Vibrio

484
Q

Darting motility

A

Vibrio

485
Q

Vibrio Oxidase (+) except

A

V. mitschnikovii (-)

486
Q

Vibrio Halophilic except:

A

-V. cholerae
-V. mimicus

487
Q

(+) Indole

A

V. parahaemolyticus

488
Q

Cholera: Ricewater stool

A

V. cholerae

489
Q

“Fish in the stream” appearance

A

V. cholerae

490
Q

V. cholerae Lab. Diagnosis

Culture:
-: Sucrose fermenter
-: Tellurite Taurocholate Gelatin Agar
-: 6-8 hrs → Subculture (TCBS)
-: Transport medium (stool)
-: Carrier

= (S)

A

TCBS

TTGA

APW

Cary Blair

Rectal swab

O129 Susceptibility test

491
Q

Halophilic (8% NaCl)

A

V. parahaemolyticus

492
Q

(+) String test (0.5% Na desoxycholate)

A

V. cholerae

493
Q

1 Gastroenteritis in Japan (seafood)

A

V. parahaemolyticus

494
Q

Nonsucrose fermenter (TCBS)

A

V. parahaemolyticus

V. vulnificus

495
Q

Kanagawa (+) = Beta hemolysis on Wagatsuma agar

A

V. parahaemolyticus

496
Q

Stool pathogen

A

V. vulnificus

497
Q

(+) Blood culture

A

V. vulnificus

498
Q

(+) Lactose fermentation, ONPG

A

V. vulnificus

499
Q

Sucrose fermenter (TCBS)

A

V. alginolyticus

500
Q

Sucrose fermenter (TCBS)

A

V. alginolyticus

501
Q

Motile (monotrichous)

A

Aeromonas

502
Q

(+) Oxidase

A

Aeromonas

Plesiomonas

Campylobacter

H. pylori

P. aeruginosa

B. cepacia

503
Q

Beta-hemolytic

A

Aeromonas

504
Q

(R) O129

A

Aeromonas

505
Q

(+) DNase

A

Aeromonas

506
Q

(+) Bile esculin hydrolysis

A

Aeromonas

507
Q

Non-hemolytic

A

Plesiomonas

508
Q

(V) O129

A

Plesiomonas

509
Q

(-) DNase

A

Plesiomonas

510
Q

(-) Bile esculin hydrolysis

A

Plesiomonas

511
Q

(G) 42’C

A

Campylobacter

512
Q

Curved, S-shaped (Wings of Seagull)

A

Campylobacter

513
Q

(+) Catalase

A

Campylobacter

H. pylori

514
Q

Darting motility

A

Campylobacter

515
Q

(+) Hippurate

A

C. jejuni

516
Q

(+) Urease

A

H. pylori

517
Q

H. pylori Test:

A

Urease breath test

518
Q

OF test
Fermentative (close) =
Oxidative (open) =
Nonutilizer =
Medium:
Indicator:

A

O/F = +/+ = Y/Y

O/F = +/- = Y/G

O/F = -/- = G/G

Hugh and Leifson (1% glucose, 1% agar)

Bromthymol blue

519
Q

P. aeruginosa Old:

A

P. pyocyanea

520
Q

Pyocyanus: Blue pus agent

A

P. aeruginosa

521
Q

Motile (monotrichous)

A

P. aeruginosa

522
Q

Capsule: Slimy layer

A

P. aeruginosa

523
Q

Grapelike odor (aminoacetaphenone)

A

P. aeruginosa

524
Q

(G) 42’C

A

P. aeruginosa

B. pseudomallei

525
Q

Cetrimide medium: selective

A

P. aeruginosa

526
Q

P. aeruginosa Pigments:

A

-Pyocyanin: Best
-Pyoverdin/Fluorescein: (+) P. putida/P. fluorescens

527
Q

P. aeruginosa Infections:

A

-#2 Burns (#1: S. aureus)
-Wound: Ecthyma gangrenosum
-Swimmer’s ear (Otitis externa)
-Dermatitis: whirlpool baths
-Contact lens infection
-#1 Cystic fibrosis

528
Q

Motile (lophotrichous)

A

B. cepacia

B. pseudomallei

529
Q

2 Cystic fibrosis

A

B. cepacia

530
Q

(+) Lactose, ONPG

A

B. cepacia

531
Q

“Whitmore’s Bacillus”

A

B. pseudomallei

532
Q

Vietnamese timebomb

A

B. pseudomallei

533
Q

Melioidosis/Glanders-like disease

A

B. pseudomallei

534
Q

Ashdown medium: Wrinkled colony

A

B. pseudomallei

535
Q

(+) Lactose

A

B. pseudomallei

536
Q

Long incubation period: 10-20 years

A

B. pseudomallei

537
Q

Nonmotile

A

B. mallei

538
Q

Glander’s disease (Horses)

A

B. mallei

539
Q

Brown (buff colored) wrinkled colony

A

P. stutzeri

540
Q

(+) 6.5% NaCl

A

P. stutzeri

541
Q

(+) NO2 → N2

A

P. stutzeri

542
Q

(-) Lactose

A

P. stutzeri

543
Q

Found in stagnant water

A

P. stutzeri

544
Q

(-) Oxidase
(+) DNase
(+) Maltose and Glucose
Motile (lophotrichous)

A

S. maltophilia

545
Q

Colony: Lavender green

A

S. maltophilia

546
Q

Common w/ the use of catheter

A

S. maltophilia

547
Q

Blue milk

A

P. syncyanea

548
Q

TSI: K/K + H2S
(+) Oxidase

A

Shewanella putrefaciens

549
Q

(-) Oxidase
(+) Catalase
Nonmotile

Causes UTI

A

Acinetobacter

550
Q

MAC: purple colonies

A

Acinetobacter

551
Q

Mistaken as Neisseria – (+) oxidase

A

Acinetobacter

552
Q

Oxidizer

A

A. anitratus (A. baumanii)

553
Q

Herella vaginocola

A

A. anitratus (A. baumanii)

554
Q

Nonoxidizer

A

A. lwoffi

555
Q

Mima polymorpha

A

A. lwoffi

556
Q

(+) Oxidase
(+) Catalase

A

Alcaligenes faecalis

557
Q

Motile (peritrichous)

A

Alcaligenes faecalis

558
Q

Asaccharolytic

A

Alcaligenes faecalis

M. lacunata

559
Q

“Fruity” odor

A

Alcaligenes faecalis

560
Q

(+) Pitting of agar
(+) Oxidase
(+) Catalase

A

M. lacunata

561
Q

(NG) MAC

A

M. lacunata

562
Q

Infection: Blepharoconjunctivitis

A

M. lacunata

563
Q

Mistaken as Neisseria

A

M. lacunata

564
Q

Flavin = Yellow pigment

A

Flavobacterium (Chryseobacterium) meningosepticum

565
Q

(+) Oxidase
(+) DNase
(+) Indole
(+) Gelatin hydrolysis
Nonmotile

A

Flavobacterium (Chryseobacterium) meningosepticum

566
Q

Causes neonatal meningitis

A

Flavobacterium (Chryseobacterium) meningosepticum

567
Q

Twitching motility

A

E. corrodens

568
Q

MOT: Human bite

A

E. corrodens

569
Q

“Clenched fist”

A

E. corrodens

570
Q

Corrodes agar

A

E. corrodens

571
Q

Odor: Bleach-like

A

E. corrodens

572
Q

(-) Catalase
(+) Oxidase

A

E. corrodens

573
Q

Cause SBE (HACEK)

A

Kingella spp

574
Q

Pits agar

A

Kingella spp

575
Q

Require X factor (hemin) and V factor (NAD)

A

Haemophilus

576
Q

(+) Satellitism
(+) Oxidase

A

Haemophilus

577
Q

HCAP: medium of choice (5% CO2)

A

Haemophilus

578
Q

X factor
D-ALA → (+) Protoporphyrin (Red)

A

Porphyrin test

579
Q

“Pfeiffer’s Bacillus”

A

H. influenzae

580
Q

H. influenzae Serotype polysaccharide:

A

-Hib = Haemophilus type B: capsular antigen type B (polyribose ribitol PO4)

581
Q

H. influenzae

Infections:

Lab. Diagnosis:

A

-Epiglotitis (Major)
-#3 Meningitis (#1: S. pneumoniae/#2: N. meningitidis)
-Otitis media, CF, conjunctivitis, pneumonia, URTI, sepsis

-Culture: Grayish, dew drop colony w/ Mousy odor
a. CAP
b. Levinthal
c. Fildes

582
Q

“Chancroid Bacillus”

A

H. ducreyi

583
Q

(G) CAP + Vancomycin (33’C)

A

H. ducreyi

584
Q

Soft chancre (painful)

A

H. ducreyi

585
Q

School of red fish

A

H. ducreyi

586
Q

“Koch Week’s Bacillus”

A

H. aegyptius

587
Q

Pink eye conjunctivitis

A

H. aegyptius

588
Q

Brazilian purpuric fever

A

H. aegyptius

589
Q

“Whooping cough Bacillus”

A

B. pertussis

590
Q

Strictly aerobic

A

B. pertussis

591
Q

Encapsulated, nonmotile

A

B. pertussis

592
Q

Require cysteine and methionine for growth

A

B. pertussis

593
Q

Toluidine blue: Bipolar granules

A

B. pertussis

594
Q

B. pertussis Stages: Whooping cough
: mild
: successive cough
: recovery

A
  1. Catarrhal
  2. Paroxysmal
  3. Convalescence
595
Q

B. pertussis Lab. Diagnosis:
-NPS: Carrier
-Culture media:

A

a. BG (PBGA) = mercury droplet colonies (pearl-like)
b. RL (Charcoal horse blood)
c. Jones Kendrich (Charcoal, yeast extract)
d. CCBA
e. Stainer and Scholte
f. Casamino broth

596
Q

“Kennel cough Bacillus”

A

B. bronchiseptica

597
Q

(-) Capsule

A

Brucella

598
Q

Obligate aerobe
Nonmotile
Facultatively intracellular (phagocytes)

A

Brucella

599
Q

Erythritol: enhances growth

A

Brucella

600
Q

Zoonotic: found in animal placenta

A

Brucella

601
Q

Brucella

Infections:

Lab. Diagnosis:

A
  • Undulant fever
    -Malta fever
    -Aboriton in cattle
    -Endocarditis

-Castañeda broth: Best medium
-TSB: Best medium
-W (Wisconsin) medium: selective
-(+) Rose Bengal & 2-ME agglutination

602
Q

“Bang’s Bacillus”

A

B. abortus

603
Q

(+) Capsule

A

F. tularensis

604
Q

Nonmotile
Facultatively intracellular
Obligate aerobe

A

F. tularensis

605
Q

Lab. acquired infection (BSL II)

A

F. tularensis

606
Q

Tularemia:

A

-Lymphadenopathy
-Deerfly, lemming, rabbit, water rat trapper’s disease

607
Q

F. tularensis Lab. Diagnosis:
1. GCBA:
2. PCA:
3. CHA:
4. Biochem:

A

Glucose cysteine blood agar

Peptone cysteine agar

Cysteine heart agar

-(+) Catalase
-(-) Oxidase
-(-) Urease
-(-) MAC

608
Q

Multocida: Multiple killing

A

P. multocida

609
Q

(+) Capsule
Nonmotile
(+) Oxidase
(+) Catalase
(+) Glucose
(+) Ornithine
(+) Indole
(+) Urease
(G) BAP
(NG) MAC

A

P. multocida

610
Q

P. multocida Infections:

A

-Animal (cat) bite wound infection
-Shipping fever

611
Q

(-) Catalase
Dx: Serology

A

Treponema

612
Q

(+) Catalase
Dx: Culture

A

Leptospira

613
Q

(-) Catalase
Dx: Giemsa (blood smear), Serology

A

Borrelia

614
Q

Noncultivable on agar

A

T. pallidum

615
Q

Obligate intracellular (Rabbit’s testicle)

A

T. pallidum

616
Q

Syphilis
1’ =
2’ =
Latent:
3’:
Congenital syphilis:

A

Hard chancre (Painless)

Condylomata lata (HPV: Condylomata acuminata)

Asymptomatic, Dx: Serology

Gummas, neurosyphilis

Hutchinsonian triad, abortion, still birth

617
Q

Neurosyphilis

A

Tabes dorsalis

618
Q

Treatment for syphilis (Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction)

A

Penicillin

619
Q

Yaws, Framboesia
Pinta
Bejel
Rabbit syphilis

A

T. pertenue

T. carateum

T. endemicum

T. cuniculi

620
Q

Lab. Diagnosis (Treponemes)
1. Darkfield microscopy:

  1. Stain:
  2. Serology:
A

-Corkscrew motility
-1’ and 2’ syphilis

Levaditi silver impregnation

-Latent, 3’ syphilis
-Reagin test (VDRL, RPR, TRUST)
-Trep. Antibody test (FTA-ABS [confirm], MHA-TP, HATTS)

621
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

L. interrogans icterohemorrhagiae

622
Q

Spiral w/ hooked ends

A

L. interrogans icterohemorrhagiae

623
Q

L. interrogans icterohemorrhagiae Weil’s disease (Zoonotic):
-1st week:
-2nd week:

A

blood, CSF

urine (chronic)

624
Q

L. interrogans icterohemorrhagiae Animal serum:

A

30’C for 6 weeks

625
Q

L. interrogans icterohemorrhagiae Culture media:

A

-Fletcher’s
-Noguchi
-EMJH

626
Q

Blood spirochete

A

Borrelia

627
Q

Borrelia
1. Relapsing fever:

Diagnosis:
2. Lyme disease:
-MOT:
a. 1’ stage:
b. 2’ stage:
c. 3’ stage:
Diagnosis:
-Culture on Barber Stoenner Kelly medium =

A

a. B. recurrentis: louse-borne
b. B. anserine: tick-borne
c. B. turicatae: tick-borne
d. B. parkeri: tick-borne

Wright’s/Giemsa (blood/BM)

B. burgdorferi

Tick bite (I. dammini)

Erythema chronicum migrans (Bull’s eye rash)

neurological (meningitis), cardiac

Arthritis (joint fluid)

Culture and Serology

33’C for 6 weeks

628
Q

Star-like colony

A

A. actinomycetemcomitans

629
Q

Dots and dashes of Morse code

A

A. actinomycetemcomitans

630
Q

(+) Indole

A

C. hominis

631
Q

Teardrop shape

A

C. hominis

632
Q

Rosette formation

A

C. hominis

633
Q

Asaccharolytic

A

E. corrodens

634
Q

Obligate intracellular

A

Chlamydia (Old: Bedsonia)

635
Q

Energy (ATP) parasites

A

Chlamydia (Old: Bedsonia)

636
Q

Chlamydia (Old: Bedsonia) Inclusion body: diagnostic (stained by Giemsa), not Gram stained
= infectious
= reproductive

A

a. Elementary body

b. Reticulate body

637
Q

Chlamydia (Old: Bedsonia) Immunofluorescence:

A

det. Chlamydia antigen (N. gonorrhoeae)

638
Q

Contains glycogen —(I2)—> Brown

A

C. trachomatis

639
Q

TRIC agent: Trachoma Inclusion Conjunctivitis

A

C. trachomatis

640
Q

C. trachomatis Diseases:

A

-LGV (Frei’s test)
-PID (pelvic inflammatory disease)
-#1 STD in US
-#1 NGU
(S) Sulfonamide

641
Q

C. trachomatis Lab. Diagnosis:
1. Inclusion body (Halberstadter Prowazeik)
-Stain (Glycogen):
-Elementary body:
2. Fitz-Hugh Curtis
3. McCoy (shell vial) =
4. Direct IF =
5. DNA amplification =
6. Transport =

A

Iodine (brown)/Giemsa (purple)

Round-shaped

Best medium (cell culture)

Ag

most sensitive

4’C/-70’C (long term)

642
Q

Parrot fever/Psittacosis/Ornithosis

A

C. psittaci

643
Q

Parrot fever/Psittacosis/Ornithosis

A

C. psittaci

644
Q

Man: Pneumonia

A

C. psittaci

645
Q

Inclusion body (Levinthal Cole Lillie)
Elementary body: Round-shaped

A

C. psittaci

646
Q

(-) glycogen
(R) Sulfonamide

A

C. psittaci

647
Q

TWAR agent

A

C. pneumoniae

648
Q

Pneumonia: Human-to-human

A

C. pneumoniae

649
Q

Growth on:
-Human lines
-Hep-2 cell

A

C. pneumoniae

650
Q

Guillain-Barré syndrome: ascending paralysis

A

C. pneumoniae

651
Q

Obligate intracellular (endothelial cells) except Coxiella (extracellular)

A

Rickettsia

652
Q

Arthropod borne except Coxiella (inhalation)

A

Rickettsia

653
Q

Arthropod borne except Coxiella (inhalation)

A

Rickettsia

654
Q

Rickettsia Lab. Diagnosis:
: cross react w/ Proteus (det. Rickettsial Ab)
: Gimenez, Macchiavelo
: Embryonated egg, cell culture

A
  1. Weil-Felix test
  2. Special stain
  3. Culture
655
Q

Intracellular (WBCs)

A
656
Q

Intracellular (WBCs)

A

Ehrlichia

657
Q

Morulae: diagnostic form

A

Ehrlichia

658
Q

Tick-transmitted

A

Ehrlichia

659
Q

Cause sennetsu fever

A

Ehrlichia

660
Q

No cell wall (pleomorphic)

A

Mycoplasma

661
Q

Fried egg/mulberry

A

Mycoplasma

662
Q

Cell membrane: Sterol (bilipid layer)

A

Mycoplasma

663
Q

Require sterol for growth

A

Mycoplasma

664
Q

(R) Penicillin

A

Mycoplasma

665
Q

Diene’s stain: stain for Mycoplasma colonies (blue)

A

Mycoplasma

666
Q

Eaton agent

A

M. pneumoniae

667
Q

PPLO: Pleuropneumonia-like organism

A

M. pneumoniae

668
Q

PAP: Primary atypical pneumonia

A

M. pneumoniae

669
Q

Walking pneumonia

A

M. pneumoniae

670
Q

M. pneumoniae Lab. Diagnosis:
1. Media:
2. Confirm:
3. Screening:
4. Confirmatory:

A

PPLO agar

Hemadsorption test (not a serological test), RBCs → Colonies

Cold agglutination

IF

671
Q

M. pneumoniae Tx:

A

Tetracyclin/Erythromycin

672
Q

Large fried egg colony

A

M. hominis

673
Q

Infections: Post abortal, post partum fever, PID

A

M. hominis

674
Q

Media:
-A7/A8: selective
-NYCA
-SP4: arginine

A

M. hominis

675
Q

T strain = tiny fried egg

A

U. urealyticum

676
Q

(+) Urease = brown

A

U. urealyticum

677
Q

Cause NGU

A

U. urealyticum

678
Q

Media:
-A7/A8
-SP4: urea
-NYCA

A

U. urealyticum

679
Q

Old: Haemophilus v., Corynebacterium v.

A

G. vaginalis

680
Q

(-) Catalase
(-) Oxidase

A

G. vaginalis

681
Q

(S) SPS (Counteracted by 1% gelatin)

A

G. vaginalis

682
Q

Whiff’s test: 3% KOH  Fishy amine-like odor

A

G. vaginalis

683
Q

Media: HBTA (selective), V (vaginalis) agar, Columbia CNA

A

G. vaginalis

684
Q

Gram (V)

A

G. vaginalis

685
Q

(+) Capsule

A

C. granulomatis

686
Q

Safety pin

A

C. granulomatis

687
Q

MOT: Sexual contact

A

C. granulomatis

688
Q

Causes granuloma inguinale (Donovanosis)

A

C. granulomatis

689
Q

Giemsa stain: Donovan bodies (macrophage w/ Gram [-] bacilli)

A

C. granulomatis

690
Q

Not cultured

A

C. granulomatis

691
Q

String of beads

A

S. moniliformis

692
Q

Broth: fluff balls

A

S. moniliformis

693
Q

HI: fried egg

A

S. moniliformis

694
Q

(w/ cell wall) —(Penicillin)—> L forms (no cell wall)

A

S. moniliformis

695
Q

(S) SPS

A

S. moniliformis

696
Q

S. moniliformis Infections:

A

-Rat bite fever
-Haverhill disease

697
Q

Spiral organism

A

S. minus (S. minor)

698
Q

Causes rat bite fever

A

S. minus (S. minor)

699
Q

Cannot be cultivated

A

S. minus (S. minor)

700
Q

Old: Achromobacterium

A

C. violaceum

701
Q

Violacein: violet colored

A

C. violaceum

702
Q

MAC: NLF

A

C. violaceum

703
Q

NH4 cyanide

A

C. violaceum

704
Q

Fusiform

A

Capnocytophaga

705
Q

Gliding motility

A

Capnocytophaga

706
Q

Periodontal disease (oral flora) = periodontitis

A

Capnocytophaga

707
Q

Large spreading colonies

A

Capnocytophaga

708
Q

(-) Oxidase
(-) Catalase
(-) Indole
(+) Esculin hydrolysis, NO3 reduction

A

Capnocytophaga

709
Q

Infections:
Cat scratch disease
Bacillary angiomatosis
Peliosis
Hepatitis

A

B. henselae

710
Q

(NG) MAC

A

B. henselae

711
Q

Vector: Sandfly

A

B. bacilli formis

712
Q

Infections:
-Carrion’s disease
-Verruga peruana: skin eruptions
-Oroya fever: anemia

A

B. bacilli formis

713
Q

Aerobic
Facultatively intracellular

A

L. pneumophila

714
Q

Require cysteine and iron for growth

A

L. pneumophila

715
Q

(NG) MAC = no cysteine

A

L. pneumophila

716
Q

Isolated from airconditioners and water-cooling towers

A

L. pneumophila

717
Q

Infections:
-Broadstreet pneumonia
-Pontiac fever

A

L. pneumophila

718
Q

(+) Catalase
(+) Oxidase
(+) DNase
(+) Beta-lactamase

A

L. pneumophila

719
Q

L. pneumophila Lab. Diagnosis:
: Ag (IF: Ab)
: Blue green cut glass colony
: 10 mins
: 4’C or frozen

A
  1. DF Ab test
  2. BCYE
  3. Safranin
  4. Transport
720
Q

Tumbling motility: head over heels/end-to-end motility

A

L. monocytogenes

721
Q

Listeriolysin O

A

L. monocytogenes

722
Q

Infections:
-Granulomatosis infantiseptica
-Meningitis

A

L. monocytogenes

723
Q

Lab. Diagnosis: Anton’s test (Skin test)

A

L. monocytogenes

724
Q

Growth: Test tube brush

A

E. rhusiopathiae

725
Q

Erysipeloid: Butcher’s cut

A

E. rhusiopathiae

726
Q

E. coli: Index of fecal contamination

A

Water Bacteriology

727
Q

Det. coliforms

A

Water Bacteriology

728
Q

Neutralizes chlorine

A

Sodium thiosulfate

729
Q

Lactose broth/ + H2O ———-(35’C for 24 hrs)—-> (+) Gas
Lauryl tryptose broth (-) No gas after 48 hrs

A
  1. Presumptive test
730
Q

EMB/Endo agar + Inoculum —–(24 hrs)———–> (+) Colony

A
  1. Confirmatory test
731
Q

Lactose broth fermentation tube —(35’C for 24-48 hrs)—> (+) Acid + Gas

A
  1. Completed test
732
Q

Most common method for H2 analysis
Estimation of coliform group density
# of positive coliforms from multiple decimal dilution

A

MPN (Most Probable Number)

733
Q

Reference laboratories (Water Bacteriology)

A

EAMC
FDA

734
Q

Acid forming, causes normal souring of milk

A

Streptococcus lactis

735
Q

Gas-forming, hydrolyze the milk protein casein

A

Coliform bacteria

736
Q

Hay bacteria, proteolytic action on coagulated milk

A

Bacillus subtilis

737
Q

Stormy fermentation of milk

A

Clostridium butyricum
Clostridium perfringens

738
Q

Blue milk

A

Pseudomonas syncyanea

739
Q

Red milk

A

Serratia marcescens

740
Q

Blue green milk

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

741
Q

Yellow milk

A

Flavobacterium synxanthum

742
Q

Slimy or ropy milk (capsule formation)

A

Alcaligenes viscosus

MICROBIO (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions