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# ‼️ 💯 ‼️ # > MUST KNOWS/ HIGH YIELD CONCEPTS > Flashcards

MUST KNOWS/ HIGH YIELD CONCEPTS Flashcards

1
Q

What does the ectoderm give rise to?

A

Epidermis, melanocytes, nervous system

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2
Q

What structures are derived from the mesoderm?

A

Fibroblast, blood vessels, muscle, bone, dermis

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3
Q

How do merocrine glands release their contents?

A

Via exocytosis

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4
Q

What type of glands are eccrine and apocrine glands?

A

Merocrine glands

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5
Q

What characterizes holocrine glands?

A

Secretory cells burst

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6
Q

Which type of gland is sebaceous?

A

Holocrine gland

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7
Q

What type of gland releases contents directly on the skin surface?

A

Exocrine gland

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8
Q

What is unique about the distribution of sebaceous glands?

A

Only palms and soles are totally deprived of sebaceous glands

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9
Q

Where are the largest sebaceous glands found?

A

Nose

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10
Q

What is thalidomide used to treat?

A

Recurrent or persistent cases of erythema multiforme

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11
Q

What serum bicarbonate level indicates a poor prognosis in epidermal necrolysis?

A

Below 20 mM

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12
Q

What blood glucose level may indicate severity in epidermal necrolysis?

A

Above 14 mM

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13
Q

What is the most common complication during the acute phase of epidermal necrolysis?

A

Sepsis

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14
Q

What is the hallmark of ichthyosis?

A

Scale

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15
Q

What is ulerythema ophryogenes associated with?

A

Scarring alopecia on eyebrows; normal scalp and eyelash hair

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16
Q

What condition is characterized by worm-eaten and honeycomb appearance?

A

Atrophoderma vermiculatum

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17
Q

What are angiokeratomas a cutaneous hallmark of?

A

Fabry Disease

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18
Q

In what context does pustular PG occur?

A

Exacerbation of acute IBD (usually UC)

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19
Q

What differentiates vegetative PG from other variants?

A

Not usually associated with systemic disease

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20
Q

What virus is associated with trichodysplasia spinulosa?

A

Polyomavirus

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21
Q

What is the most common type of porokeratosis?

A

Disseminated superficial actinic porokeratosis

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22
Q

What is the primary lesion of pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Flaccid blister

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23
Q

Which mucous membranes are most affected by pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Oropharyngeal cavity and nasal mucosa

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24
Q

What is a common presenting sign of pemphigus vulgaris?

A

Painful mucous membrane erosions

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25
Q

What malignancies are most commonly associated with paraneoplastic pemphigus?

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, chronic lymphocytic leukemia, Castleman disease

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26
Q

What characterizes the classic form of bullous pemphigoid?

A

Large, tense blisters on normal skin or erythematous base

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27
Q

Major MMP and bullous pemphigoid autoantigen

A

BP 180

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28
Q

What is EBA?

A

Classical presentation of epidermolysis bullosa acquisita

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29
Q

What is the most severe phenotype of junctional epidermolysis bullosa?

A

Severe generalized JEB

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30
Q

What is the most common subtype of recessive dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa?

A

Severe subtype

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31
Q

What may low-dose methotrexate precipitate in rheumatoid arthritis patients?

A

Erythema and enlargement of preexisting rheumatoid nodules

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32
Q

What is the characteristic eruption of Adult-Onset Still Disease?

A

Salmon-colored, macular or slightly papular eruption concurrent with fever spikes

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33
Q

What is scleredema?

A

Rare condition affecting men and women equally

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34
Q

What is the most specific clinical finding in acanthosis nigricans?

A

Central keratotic core

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35
Q

Which subtype of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is most clinically significant?

A

Vascular subtype

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36
Q

What is Fabry disease?

A

Inherited X-linked lysosomal storage disorder caused by deficient α-galactosidase A activity

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37
Q

What defines abnormal hair loss?

A

Daily telogen hair loss more than 100

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38
Q

What types of eruptions are associated with phototoxicity?

A

Vesicular and bullous eruptions

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39
Q

What is a characteristic finding of hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome in infancy?

A

Papulopustular dermatitis of the face and scalp

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40
Q

What indicates a poor prognosis in peripheral artery disease?

A

Decreased or absent pulses distal to the stenotic arterial segment

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41
Q

What is the most sensitive indicator of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

Elevation in serum bile acids

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42
Q

What is a cardinal feature of pustular psoriasis?

A

Rapid resolution of symptoms after delivery

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43
Q

What are first-line therapies for pustular psoriasis of pregnancy?

A

Cyclosporine and infliximab

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44
Q

When does PEP typically occur?

A

In primigravidas during the last trimester of pregnancy

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45
Q

What is the high-risk area for psoriatic arthritis?

A

Scalp and intergluteal psoriasis

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46
Q

What is the most pronounced histologic change in aged skin?

A

Flattening of the dermal–epidermal junction and loss of rete ridges

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47
Q

What syndrome involves nevus comedonicus with noncutaneous findings?

A

Nevus comedonicus syndrome

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48
Q

What are the most common extracutaneous features of epidermal nevus syndrome?

A

Ocular, neurologic, and skeletal systems

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49
Q

What characterizes steatocystoma?

A

Sebaceous duct cyst with a waxy, eosinophilic cuticle lining

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50
Q

Where do trichilemmal cysts arise from?

A

Outer root sheath of the hair follicle

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51
Q

What is the most important etiologic factor for actinic keratoses?

A

Long-term and cumulative ultraviolet (UV) radiation exposure

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52
Q

What is epidermodysplasia verruciformis (EV)?

A

Inherited skin condition with high susceptibility to HPV infection

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53
Q

What types of HPV are associated with anal intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

Types 16, 18, 31, and 33

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54
Q

What is the strongest risk factor for leukoplakia?

A

Tobacco

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55
Q

What is erythroplakia known for?

A

Greatest potential to harbor or become oral squamous cell carcinoma

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56
Q

What pathway is activated in all basal cell carcinomas?

A

Hedgehog signaling pathway

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57
Q

What drug was approved for locally advanced or metastatic basal cell carcinoma?

A

Vismodegib

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58
Q

What is sonidegib used for?

A

Locally advanced basal cell carcinomas

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59
Q

What is the most important environmental risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Ultraviolet radiation (UVR)

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60
Q

What clinical features correlate with histologically proven dysplastic nevi?

A

Nevus size and irregular borders

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61
Q

What is the most concerning complication associated with dysplastic nevi?

A

Melanoma

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62
Q

What is acral lentiginous melanoma (ALM) not associated with?

A

Sun exposure

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63
Q

Where does subungual melanoma generally arise from?

A

Nail matrix

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64
Q

What is the most frequent targetable mutation in acral melanoma?

A

BRAF mutation (21%)

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65
Q

What is associated with higher local recurrence in desmoplastic melanoma?

A

Higher local recurrence but lower nodal metastatic rates

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66
Q

What is uveal melanoma?

A

Most common primary intraocular malignancy

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67
Q

What type of sun exposure is most important in melanoma causation?

A

Periodic, intense sun exposure during childhood and adolescence

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68
Q

What type of sun exposure is associated with lentigo maligna?

A

Cumulative sun exposure

69
Q

What are the two most common early characteristics of melanoma noticed by patients?

A

Change in color and increase in size (or a new lesion)

70
Q

What mutation is most common in melanomas of sun-exposed skin?

A

BRAF V600 mutation

71
Q

What is the most frequent mechanism of acquired therapeutic resistance in melanoma?

A

Reactivation of the MAPK pathway

72
Q

What defines Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)?

A

Rare, heterogeneous neoplasm of dendritic cells

73
Q

What mutation is found in 60% of LCH biopsy specimens?

A

V600E mutation in BRAF

74
Q

What organ systems are most commonly affected by LCH?

A

Bone, skin, lymph nodes, lungs, CNS

75
Q

What are at-risk organs for LCH?

A

Hematopoietic system, liver, spleen

76
Q

What might purpura with nail involvement indicate in LCH?

A

Poor prognostic sign

77
Q

What is the most sensitive marker for LCH?

A

Immunohistochemical staining with CD207

78
Q

What is a typical finding in LCH cells?

A

Presence of Birbeck granules in the cytoplasm

79
Q

What defines a cure in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL)?

A

Freedom from disease for 8 years off all therapy

80
Q

What is brentuximab vedotin?

A

Anti-CD30 monoclonal antibody

81
Q

What is mogamulizumab?

A

Defucosylated anti-CCR4 monoclonal antibody

82
Q

What is plexiform neurofibroma associated with?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1)

83
Q

What is lipomatosis of nerve characterized by?

A

Proliferation of adipose and fibrous tissue within the epineurium and perineurium

84
Q

What does hibernoma represent?

A

Benign neoplasm of brown fat

85
Q

What laboratory findings indicate essential fatty acid deficiency?

A

Decreased linoleic and arachidonic acids, elevated 5,8,11-eicosatrienoic acid

86
Q

What are the four Ds of pellagra?

A

Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, death

87
Q

What is referred to as ‘Casal’s necklace’?

A

Dermatitis affecting the upper central portion of the chest and neck

88
Q

What is acrodermatitis enteropathica?

A

Inherited defect in the intestinal zinc transporter ZIP4

89
Q

How can zinc status be measured?

A

Serum zinc or alkaline phosphatase levels

90
Q

What is Menkes disease?

A

X-linked disorder of intestinal copper transport

91
Q

What is a characteristic appearance of Menkes disease?

A

Cherubic appearance with depressed nasal bridge, ptosis, reduced facial movements

92
Q

What type of infection is noma?

A

Polymicrobial infection

93
Q

What is the first-line testing for porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)?

A

Measurement of total plasma or urine porphyrins

94
Q

What treatments are effective for PCT?

A

Phlebotomy or low-dose hydroxychloroquine

95
Q

What is erythropoietic protoporphyria?

A

Third most common porphyria and most common in children

96
Q

What mutation causes X-linked protoporphyria?

A

Gain-of-function mutation of ALAS2

97
Q

What are the four acute porphyrias characterized by?

A

Neurologic symptoms occurring as intermittent acute exacerbations

98
Q

What is the most common acute hepatic porphyria worldwide?

A

Acute intermittent porphyria

99
Q

What are tuberoeruptive xanthomas associated with?

A

Type III disorders

100
Q

What is the first-line pharmacotherapy for lowering LDL-C?

A

Statins

101
Q

What is the ocular finding most commonly associated with Fabry disease?

A

Cornea verticillata

102
Q

What is a classical feature of Fabry disease?

A

Reduced sweating

103
Q

What is the most common type of calcinosis cutis?

A

Dystrophic calcification

104
Q

What are the most commonly affected sites of gout?

A

First metatarsophalangeal joint and ankle

105
Q

What are the most common features of dyskeratosis congenita?

A

Triad of reticulated hyperpigmentation, dystrophic nails, mucosal leukoplakia

106
Q

What are the features of ectodermal dysplasia?

A

Hypotrichosis, hypohidrosis, hypodontia

107
Q

What is the most common manifestation of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?

A

Bleeding diathesis

108
Q

What heart manifestation is most common in systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

Pericarditis

109
Q

What is the most common intrathoracic manifestation of sarcoidosis?

A

Bilateral hilar adenopathy

110
Q

What is the most common pulmonary manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Interstitial lung disease (ILD)

111
Q

What bilirubin level indicates jaundice?

A

Above 3

112
Q

What are Kayser-Fleischer rings associated with?

A

Wilson disease

113
Q

What is necrolytic migratory erythema a hallmark of?

A

Glucagonoma

114
Q

What contributes to thrombus formation?

A

Virchow triad: abnormal blood flow, vessel wall injury, blood hypercoagulability

115
Q

What agents are associated with squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?

A

Azathioprine, coal tar, cyclosporine, mineral oil, soots

116
Q

What factors are linked to both SCC and basal cell carcinoma (BCC)?

A

Arsenic

117
Q

What is the most important risk factor for SCC?

A

Solar radiation

118
Q

What is the main Streptococcus strain in Behçet disease?

A

Streptococcus sanguinis

119
Q

What is the major microscopic finding in Behçet disease?

A

Immune-mediated occlusive vasculitis

120
Q

What role does IL-8 play in Behçet disease?

A

Important in inflammatory response and sensitive marker of disease activity

121
Q

What are the recurrent symptoms of Behçet disease?

A

Recurrent oral aphthous and genital ulcers

122
Q

What is the dominant flora of the oral mucosa in patients with Behçet disease?

A

Streptococcus sanguinis

This strain appears to be a provoking factor for the initiation of Behçet disease.

123
Q

What is the major microscopic finding in active Behçet disease?

A

Immune-mediated occlusive vasculitis

124
Q

Which interleukin plays an important role in Behçet disease?

A

IL-8

IL-8 can be released by endothelial cells and is a sensitive marker of disease activity.

125
Q

What are the most frequently observed mucosal manifestations in Behçet disease?

A

Recurrent oral aphthous and genital ulcers

126
Q

What percentage of Behçet disease cases present with oral aphthous ulcers?

A

More than 80%

127
Q

What is the major cause of morbidity in patients with Adamantiades–Behçet disease?

A

Ocular involvement

128
Q

What is the most diagnostically relevant lesion in Behçet disease?

A

Posterior uveitis (retinal vasculitis)

129
Q

What type of arthritis is characteristic of Behçet disease?

A

Nonerosive, asymmetric, sterile, seronegative oligoarthritis

130
Q

What are the characteristic histopathologic features of Adamantiades–Behçet disease?

A

Vasculitis and thrombosis

131
Q

Which blood vessels are primarily damaged in Kawasaki disease (KD)?

A

Medium-sized muscular arteries, especially coronary arteries

132
Q

What treatment reduces coronary artery abnormalities in Kawasaki disease when given in the first 10 days of fever?

A

Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) and aspirin

133
Q

What is the prevalence reduction of coronary artery abnormalities with IVIG plus aspirin compared to aspirin alone?

A

From 25% to 5%

134
Q

What is a common association with granulomatous pigmented purpura?

A

Hyperlipidemia

135
Q

What is the histopathologic hallmark of mixed cryoglobulinemia?

A

Leukocytoclastic vasculitis

136
Q

What is the most common cause of death in HCV patients with mixed cryoglobulinemia?

A

Infection

137
Q

For which tumors is Mohs surgery most effective compared to standard excision?

A

Aggressive histologic features, Diameter > 2cm, Tumors on H zone

138
Q

What are the four factors most strongly associated with adverse outcomes in squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)?

A
  • Diameter > 2 cm
  • Depth of invasion below SQ
  • Perineural invasion
  • Poor histologic differentiation
139
Q

What are the Mohs high-risk areas for squamous cell carcinoma?

A
  • H zone of the face
  • Genitalia
  • Hands
  • Feet
  • Ankles
  • Nipple
  • Areola region
140
Q

What is the primary treatment for venous malformations (VM)?

A

Percutaneous intralesional sclerotherapy

141
Q

What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis (IE) related to oral cavity procedures in low-income countries?

A

Rheumatic heart disease

142
Q

What are the classic presentations of acute limb ischemia secondary to vessel thrombosis or embolism?

A
  • Severe pain at rest
  • Pallor
  • Pulselessness
  • Paresthesias
  • Paralysis
143
Q

In native valve infective endocarditis, which patient population is most affected?

A

IV drug users

144
Q

What is the common early (<2 months) pathogen in prosthetic valve infective endocarditis?

A

Streptococcus and Staphylococcus aureus

145
Q

What is the 5-year mortality rate for infective endocarditis?

A

~40%

146
Q

What is the prognosis for right-sided infective endocarditis in IV drug users?

A

Better prognosis (5-9% mortality)

147
Q

What is a key short-term prognostic factor in infective endocarditis?

A

Neurologic failure

148
Q

Sepsis with erythroderma suggests which type of toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?

A

Staphylococcal or streptococcal TSS

149
Q

What are the key skin findings in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

A

Diffuse noninflammatory retiform purpura

150
Q

What is the extreme form of DIC seen in meningococcal sepsis?

A

Waterhouse-Friedrichsen Syndrome

151
Q

What organism requires cysteine-supplemented blood agar for culture?

A

Francisella tularensis

152
Q

What is the hallmark of Yersinia pestis infection?

A

Exquisitely tender regional lymphadenopathy (buboes)

153
Q

What are the primary risk factors for peripheral artery occlusive disease (PAOD)?

A

Diabetes mellitus and smoking

154
Q

What is the recommended diagnostic test to assess for peripheral artery disease (PAD)?

A

Ankle-brachial index (ABI)

155
Q

What is considered an abnormal ABI value?

A

Less than or equal to 0.90

156
Q

What is the major risk factor for atheromatous embolism?

A

Atherosclerotic disease of the thoracic or abdominal aorta

157
Q

What typically occurs 1 to 3 weeks following group A streptococcal pharyngitis?

A

Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

158
Q

What organism mimics ulceroglandular tularemia but causes necrotizing cellulitis?

A

Pasteurella multocida

159
Q

What are common initial complaints in peripheral artery disease?

A
  • Claudication of the foot or lower calf
  • Digital cyanosis or gangrene
  • Rest pain
160
Q

What is the first-line treatment for rat-bite fever caused by Streptobacillus moniliformis?

A

Amoxicillin-clavulanate

161
Q

What is the characteristic agar for culturing diphtheria?

A

Löffler or tellurite agar

162
Q

What is the triad of symptoms diagnostic of clostridial myonecrosis?

A
  • Soft-tissue crepitus
  • Severe pain
  • Tachycardia disproportionate to fever
163
Q

Who is more commonly affected by lupus vulgaris?

A

Females

164
Q

What test may be negative in early active tuberculosis or indeterminate in immunocompromised and children?

A

Quantiferon TB Gold test

165
Q

What is the single greatest risk factor for disseminated meningococcal disease?

A

Lack of bactericidal antibodies

166
Q

What is the initial presentation of ecthyma gangrenosum?

A

Painless, infarcted gunmetal gray macule or papule with surrounding erythema

167
Q

how many classifications are there in Hamilton-Norwood Classification of male pattern baldness?

A

VII

168
Q

How many grades are there in Ludwig’s pattern of hair loss in females?

A

III

169
Q
A

# ‼️ 💯 ‼️ # (11 decks)

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