Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

______ is the surgical removal of a body part, partial or full extremity, due to disease, trauma or injury

A

Amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

______ extremity amputations are more common than ______ extremities

A

Lower, upper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the primary etiology for lower extremity amputations?

A

Peripheral vascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A commonly encountered client with limb loss is an _____ adult who underwent lower-limb amputation due to vascular disease

A

Older

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What UE amputation takes away the UE including shoulder girdle?

A

Forequarter (scapulothoracic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are other non-vascular causes of amputations?

A
  • trauma
  • cancer-related
  • congenital conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What amputation involves UE through shoulder?

A

Shoulder disarticulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What UE amputation involves UE proximal to elbow joint?

A

Transhumeral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What UE amputation involves lower arm and hand through elbow joint?

A

Elbow disarticulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What UE amputation is distal to elbow joint?

A

Transradial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_______ attempt to replace the missing body part to allow a patient improved function and cosmesis.

A

Prosthetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Forequarter amputations include the __________

A

Scapulothoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What UE amputation involves the hand through wrist joint?

A

Wrist disarticulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What UE amputation involves portion of the hand or digits @ trans carpal, trans metacarpal, or transpharangeal?

A

Partial hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What UE amputation involves removal of digit @ MCP, PIP, or DIP level?

A

Digital amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What SOCKETS are used for Transradial prosthesis?

A

Standard socket or Supracondylar socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What LE amputation involves pelvis and both LE?

A

Hemicorporectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Standard socket covers:

A

2/3 of forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What LE amputation involves 1/2 of pelvis and LE?

A

Hemipelvectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why may the standard socket be shortened?

A

To allow for increased pronation/supination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What LE amputation is removal of LE from the pelvis?

A

Hip disarticulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F: Supracondylar sockets are self suspending?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What LE amputation involves removal of LE above knee joint?

A

Transfemoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: Supracondylar sockets require additional harness apparatus

A

False; NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What LE amputation involves the LE through the knee joint?

A

Knee disarticulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What LE amputation is the removal of LE below the knee joint?

A

Transtibial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of SUSPENSIONS are used for Transradial prosthesis?

A

Triceps cuff
Harness
Cable system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

LE amputation of foot @ ankle joint with malleoli?

A

Syme’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ELBOW UNIT of Transradial prosthesis attaches where?

A

Either triceps cuff or upper arm pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

LE amputation through talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints?

A

Transverse Tarsal (Chopart’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the ELBOW UNIT of Transradial prosthesis

A

Flexible or rigid hinge; Connects socket to proximal component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In a transverse tarsal (chopart’s) amputation, which muscle group is kept and which is lost?

A

PF’s kept
DF’s lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the usual result of Chopart’s amputation due to losing DF’s?

A

Equinus contracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe the WRIST UNIT of Transradial prosthesis

A

Quick change unit
Wrist flexion unit
Ball and socket
Constant friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

LE amputation involving metatarsals that preserves both PF’s and DF’s?

A

Tarsometatarsal (Lisfranc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the TERMINAL DEVICES used for Transradial Prosthesis

A

Voluntary opening or closing
Body-powered, externally powered, myoelectric or hybrid
Hook, mechanical hand, cosmetic glove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The most indication for a Syme’s amputation is ________

A

Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What positioning should be avoided with a transtibial amputation?

A

Prolonged hip and knee flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where should the pillow be placed for a patient who has a transtibial amputation?

A

Under distal residual limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Congenital limb deficiency accounts for approximately __% of LE amputations

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the least likely result in a LE amputation?

A

Congenital limb deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Approximately __% of all UE amputations result from _____

A

85%, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Traumatic amputations tend to occur most commonly in ______ adults

A

Younger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Amputations as a result of diabetes & peripheral vascular disease are more common in the ______

A

Elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a Ray Resection?

A

Removal of a toe & all or part of the corresponding metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The most common contracture seen after a transfemoral amputation is?

A

Hip flexion and abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A long transtibial amputation refers to removal of the ____ third of the tibia

A

Distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A short transtibial amputation refers to surgical removal of the limb at the ____ third of the tibia

A

Proximal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What all contributes to increased knee flexion during stance phase?

A

High shoe heel
Stiff heel cushion
Socket too far anterior
Socket excessively flexed
Insufficient P-flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A limitation in D-flex of the prosthesis will result in

A

Hyperextension of knee to attain foot flat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The safest way to ascend a hill with a prosthetic limb is to:

A

Sidestep w/ sound limb leading & prosthetic trailing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The most important factor to determine candidacy for a prosthesis is the patient’s ____

A

Prior activity level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What permits the attachment of pylon for early ambulation following amputation?

A

Plaster of Paris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Plaster of Paris is primarily used for:

A

Residual limb protection & edema control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What requires sutures to be removed from the amputation site prior to use?

A

Elastic shrinker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Elastic shrinkers are used for

A

Edema control & residual limb shaping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe the characteristics of Elastic shrinkers

A

Conical shaped
Sock like garments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What size elastic bandages would be used when wrapping a transtibial residual limb?

A

2 four inch bandages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the most common type of socket with a transtibial amputation?

A

Patellar tendon bearing socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Painful sensation that originates from an amputated limb is called?

A

Phantom pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What intervention would most likely benefit an individual with phantom limb pain?

A

Mirror therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which energy system is used for ATP production during HIGH intensity, SHORT duration exercise such as sprinting 100 meters?

A

ATP-PC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

There is 2 to 3 times more phosphocreatine in cells of _____ than ATP

A

Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

ATP-PC process happens _______

A

Instantaneously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

ATP-PC system provides energy for muscle contraction for up to _____

A

15 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which energy system is a major supplier of ATP during HIGH intensity, SHORT duration activities such as sprinting 400 or 800 meters?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Does Anaerobic glycolysis require oxygen?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis results in the formation of _______ which causes muscular fatigue

A

Lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis is nearly 50% slower than which system?

A

Phosphocreatine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Anaerobic glycolysis can provide a person with ___-___ sec of muscle contraction

A

30-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which system only uses carbohydrates, doesn’t require oxygen and releases enough energy for resynthesis of only small amounts of ATP?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which system is used predominantly during LOW intensity, LONG duration exercise such as running a marathon?

A

Aerobic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which system yields the most ATP?

A

Aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Aerobic system will provide energy as long as there are _______ to utilize

A

Nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Another name for CORONAL plane

A

Frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

______ is an erect posture of the body with the face forward, feet pointing forward and slightly apart, arms at side, and palms forward with fingers and thumbs in extension

A

Anatomical position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the 3 cardinal planes?

A

Frontal
Sagittal
Transverse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the 3 axes of the body?

A

A-P
M-L
Vertical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The frontal plane divides into _____ & ____ sections

A

Anterior, posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What motions occur in the frontal plane?

A

Abduction
Abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Frontal plane occurs around which axis?

A

A-P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The sagittal plane divides into ___ and ___ sections

A

Right, left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which motions occur in sagittal plane?

A

Flexion
Extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which axis does sagittal plane occur around?

A

M-L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Transverse plane divides into ____ and ____ sections

A

Upper, lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which motions occur in transverse plane?

A

IR/ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which axis does transverse plane occur around?

A

Vertical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Class __ lever has the axis of rotation between the effort [force] and resistance [load]

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What’s an example of Class 1 lever?

A

Triceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

A seesaw is an example of which lever?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

A wheelbarrow is an example of which lever?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A class __ lever has the resistance between the axis of rotation and effort.

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

A class __ lever has the effort between the axis of rotation and resistance.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Give an example of Class 3 lever

A

Shoulder abduction with weight at wrist
Elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which are the most common types of lever in the body?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Describe SUTURE

A

Union of 2 bones by a ligament or membrane
Immovable joint
Eventual fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Describe SYNDESMOSIS

A

Bone connected to bone by a dense fibrous membrane or cord
Very little motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Describe GOMPHOSIS

A

2 bony surfaces connect as a peg in a hole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the only gomphosis joints in the body?

A

Teeth and corresponding sockets in mandible/maxilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Fibrous joints are classified as ______

A

Synarthroses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Cartilaginous joints are classified as ______

A

Amphiarthroses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Synovial joints are classified as _____

A

Diarthrodial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

______ joint = one motion around a single axis in one plane of body

A

Uniaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the 2 types of uniaxial joint?

A

Hinge
Pivot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

_______ joint = movement occurs in two planes and around two axes through the convex/concave surfaces

A

Biaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the 2 types of BIAXIAL joint?

A

Condyloid
Saddle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

_______ joint = movement occurs in 3 planes and around 3 axes

A

Multi-axial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the 2 types of MULTIAXIAL joints?

A

Plane
Ball and socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The hip joint is what type of multiaxial joint?

A

Ball and socket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The carpal bones are what type of joint?

A

Plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Type IIa muscle fiber appear what color?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Type IIb muscle fibers appear what color?

A

White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Describe Type I muscle fibers

A

Aerobic
Red
Tonic
Slow twitch
Slow-oxidative

114
Q

Describe Type II muscle fibers

A

Anaerobic
Red/white
Phasic
Fast twitch
Fast glycolytic

115
Q

What muscles perform SCAPULAR ELEVATION?

A

Upper trap
Levator scapulae

116
Q

What muscles perform SCAPULAR DEPRESSION?

A

Latissimus dorsi
Pec major/minor
Lower trap

117
Q

What muscles perform SCAPULAR PROTRACTION?

A

Serratus anterior
Pectoralis minor

118
Q

What muscles perform SCAPULAR RETRACTION?

A

Middle trap
Rhomboids

119
Q

Which muscles perform SCAPULAR UR?

A

Upper/lower trap
Serratus anterior

120
Q

Which muscles perform SCAPULAR DR?

A

Rhomboids
Levator scapulae
Pectoralis minor

121
Q

Which muscles perform SHOULDER FLEXION?

A

Anterior deltoid
Biceps brachii
Coracobrachialis
Pectoralis major

122
Q

Which muscles perform SHOULDER ABDUCTION?

A

Middle deltoid
Supraspinatus

123
Q

Which muscles perform SHOULDER EXTENSION?

A

Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Posterior deltoid
Triceps brachii

124
Q

Which muscles perform SHOULDER ADDUCTION?

A

Pectoralis major
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major

125
Q

Which muscles perform TMJ DEPRESSION?

A

Suprahyoid
Infrahyoid
Lateral pterygoid

126
Q

Which muscles perform TMJ ELEVATION?

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid

127
Q

Which muscles perform TMJ PROTRUSION?

A

Masseter
Lateral pterygoid
Medial pterygoid

128
Q

Which muscles perform TMJ RETRUSION?

A

Temporalis
Masseter
Digastric

129
Q

Which muscles perform TMJ SIDE TO SIDE?

A

Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid

130
Q

Which muscles perform SHOULDER HOR. ABDUCTION?

A

Posterior deltoid
Infraspinatus
Teres minor

131
Q

Which muscles perform SHOULDER HOR ADDUCTION?

A

Anterior deltoid
Pectoralis major

132
Q

Which muscles perform SHOULDER EXTERNAL ROTATION?

A

Infraspinatus
Posterior deltoid
Teres minor

133
Q

Which muscles perform SHOULDER INTERNAL ROTATION?

A

Subscapularis
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Pectoralis major
Anterior deltoid

134
Q

Which muscles perform ELBOW FLEXION?

A

Biceps brachii
Brachialis
Brachioradialis

135
Q

Which muscles perform ELBOW EXTENSION?

A

Triceps
Anconeus

136
Q

Which muscles perform SUPINATION?

A

Biceps brachii
Supinator

137
Q

Which muscles perform PRONATION?

A

Pronator teres
Pronator Quadratus

138
Q

Which muscles perform WRIST FLEXION?

A

Flexor carpi radialis
Flexor carpi ulnaris
Palmaris longus

139
Q

Which muscles perform WRIST EXTENSION?

A

Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Extensor carpi ulnaris

140
Q

Which muscles perform WRIST RADIAL DEVIATION?

A

Flexor carpi radialis
Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
Extensor pollicis longus and brevis

141
Q

Which muscles perform WRIST ULNAR DEVIATION?

A

Extensor carpi ulnaris
Flexor carpi ulnaris

142
Q

Which interossei does FINGER ABDUCTION?

A

Dorsal

143
Q

Which interossei does FINGER ADDUCTION?

A

Palmar

144
Q

Which muscles perform HIP FLEXION?

A

Iliopsoas
Pectineus
Sartorius
Rectus femoris

145
Q

Which muscles perform HIP EXTENSION?

A

Glute max
Glute medius
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Biceps femoris

146
Q

Which muscles perform HIP ABDUCTION?

A

Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Piriformis
Obturator internus
Tensor fasciae latae

147
Q

Which muscles perform HIP ADDUCTION?

A

Gracilis
Adductor magnus
Adductor longus
Adductor brevis

148
Q

Which muscles perform HIP INTERNAL ROTATION?

A

Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Tensor fascia latae
Pectineus
Adductor longus

149
Q

Which muscles perform HIP EXTERNAL ROTATION?

A

Sartorius
Piriformis
Superior & inferior Gemellus
Obturator internus & externus
Gluteus Maximus

150
Q

Which muscles perform KNEE FLEXION?

A

Sartorius
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Biceps femoris

151
Q

Which muscles perform KNEE EXTENSION?

A

Rectus femoris
Vastus medialis
Vastus intermedius
Vastus lateralis

152
Q

Which muscles perform ANKLE PLANTAR FLEXION?

A

Soleus
Gastrocnemius
Plantaris
Fibularis longus
Fibularis brevis
Flexor hallucis
Tibialis posterior

153
Q

Which muscles perform ANKLE DORSIFLEXION?

A

Fibularis tertius
Tibialis anterior
Extensor hallucis longus
Extensor digitorum longus

154
Q

Which muscles perform ANKLE INVERSION?

A

Tibialis posterior
Tibialis anterior
Flexor digitorum longus

155
Q

Which muscles perform ANKLE EVERSION?

A

Fibularis longus
Fibularis brevis
Fibularis tertius

156
Q

What is the loose packed position for GLENOHUMERAL JOINT?

A

55 degrees abduction
30 degrees horizontal adduction

157
Q

What is the closed packed position for GLENOHUMERAL JOINT?

A

Abduction
External rotation

158
Q

What is the capsular pattern for GLENOHUMERAL JOINT?

A

External rotation
Abduction
Internal rotation

159
Q

What is the loose pack position of STERNOCLAVICULAR joint?

A

Arm resting by side

160
Q

What’s the close packed position for the STERNOCLAVICULAR joint?

A

Maximum shoulder elevation

161
Q

What’s the capsular pattern for STERNOCLAVICULAR joint?

A

Pain at extremes of range of movement

162
Q

What’s the loose packed position for ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint?

A

Arm resting by side

163
Q

What’s the close packed position for ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint?

A

Arm abducted to 90 degrees

164
Q

What motions does STERNOCLAVICULAR joint perform?

A

Elevation
Depression
Protraction
Retraction
Medial rotation
Lateral rotation

165
Q

What motion does ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint perform?

A

Anterior tilt
Posterior tilt
Upward rotation
Downward rotation
Protraction
Retraction

166
Q

Which motions does RADIOHUMERAL joint perform?

A

Flexion
Extension
Pronation
Supination

167
Q

What’s the loose packed position for RADIOHUMERAL joint?

A

Full extension & supination

168
Q

What’s the closed packed position for RADIOHUMERAL joint?

A

90 degrees flexion
5 degrees supination

169
Q

What motions does ULNOHUMERAL joint perform?

A

Flexion
Extension

170
Q

What’s the loose packed position for ULNOHUMERAL joint?

A

70 degrees elbow flexion
10 degrees supination

171
Q

What’s the close packed position for ULNOHUMERAL joint?

A

Extension

172
Q

What’s capsular pattern for ULNOHUMERAL joint?

A

Flexion, extension

173
Q

What’s the loose packed position for PROXIMAL RADIOULNAR joint?

A

70 degrees elbow flexion
35 degrees supination

174
Q

What’s the close packed position for PROXIMAL RADIOULNAR joint?

A

5 degrees supination

175
Q

Which ligament surrounds the head of radius?

A

Annular ligament

176
Q

What’s the loose packed position for RADIOCARPAL joint?

A

Neutral with slight ulnar deviation

177
Q

What’s the closed packed position for RADIOCARPAL joint?

A

Extension with radial deviation

178
Q

What’s the loose packed position for ILIOFEMORAL joint?

A

30 degrees flexion
30 degrees abduction
Slight lateral rotation

179
Q

What’s the closed packed position for ILIOFEMORAL joint?

A

Full extension, medial rotation

180
Q

What’s the capsular pattern for ILIOFEMORAL joint?

A

Flexion, abduction, medial rotation

181
Q

What bones make up the KNEE joint?

A

Patella
Tibia
Femur

182
Q

The knee is classified as a ____ joint

A

Hinge

183
Q

What motions does the TIBIOFEMORAL joint perform?

A

Flexion
Extension
Medial rotation
Lateral rotation

184
Q

What’s the loose packed position for TIBIOFEMORAL joint?

A

25 degrees flexion

185
Q

What’s the closed packed position for TIBIOFEMORAL joint?

A

Full extension
Lateral rotation of tibia

186
Q

Ligamentum nuchae restricts which motion in the cervical spine?

A

Flexion

187
Q

What structures connects the lamina of one vertebra to the lamina of the vertebra above it?

A

Ligamentum flavum

188
Q

Ligamentum flavum limits what motions?

A

Flexion
Rotation

189
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament limits what motion?

A

Flexion

190
Q

Interspinous ligaments limit what motions?

A

Flexion
Rotation

191
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament limits what motions?

A

Extension

192
Q

Atlanta-occipital joint is what type of joint?

A

Condylar synovial joint

193
Q

Atlanta-occipital joint permits which motions?

A

Flexion
Extension

194
Q

What type of joint is Atlantoaxial joint?

A

Plane synovial joint

195
Q

Which motions does atlantoaxial permit?

A

Flexion
Extension
Lateral flexion
Rotation

196
Q

Iliolumbar ligament limits all motions between __ & __

A

L5, S1

197
Q

Brachial plexus arises from nerve roots of __-__

A

C5, T1

198
Q

Lumbar plexus is formed by the nerve roots of __ and __

A

T12, L1-L4

199
Q

The most important branches of the plexus are the _____ and _____ nerves

A

Obturator, femoral

200
Q

Ribs 1-10 articulate with what?

A

Thoracic vertebrae through costovertebral/costotransverse joints

201
Q

Ribs 1-7 are attached to ______

A

Sternum

202
Q

Ribs 8-10 join with the _____ _____ of ribs 1-7

A

Costal cartilage

203
Q

Ribs 11-12 articulate only with:

A

Vertebral bodies of T11-T12, but not TP

204
Q

What’s the body’s 3 sources of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)?

A

ATP-PC [phosphagen]system
Anaerobic glycolysis [lactic acid] system
Aerobic [oxygen] system

205
Q

Phosphagen system =

A

ATP-PC

206
Q

Lactic acid system =

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

207
Q

Oxygen system =

A

Aerobic

208
Q

Which energy system provides energy for muscle contraction for up to 15 seconds?

A

ATP-PC system

209
Q

Which energy system provides energy for muscle contraction for 30-40 seconds?

A

Anaerobic glycolysis

210
Q

Common joint receptors include:

A

Free nerve endings
Golgi ligament endings
Golgi-Mazzini corpuscles
Pacinian corpuscles
Ruffini endings

211
Q

Type __ muscle fibers = aerobic, red, tonic, slow twitch and slow oxidative

A

I

212
Q

Describe Type II muscle fibers

A

Anaerobic
White
Phasic
Fast twitch
Fast glycolytic

213
Q

_______ are encapsulated sensory receptors that are sensitive to tension

A

Golgi tendon organs

214
Q

_______ are distributed throughout belly of muscle and function to send information to nervous system about muscle length and/or rate of change of its length

A

Muscle spindle

215
Q

The cervical spine consists of ___ vertebrae

A

7

216
Q

The thoracic spine consists of __ vertebrae

A

12

217
Q

The lumbar spine consists of ___ vertebrae

A

5

218
Q

An upper/lower quarter screen consists of:

A

Posture
ROM
Resistive, reflex and dermatome testing

219
Q

Hip precautions following total hip arthroplasty [posterolateral] approach:

A

Avoid:
- flexion beyond 90 deg
- adduction
- medial rotation

220
Q

_______ = excessive curvature of spine in posterior direction usually in thoracic spine

A

Kyphosis

221
Q

________ = excessive curvature of spine in anterior direction usually in cervical/lumbar spine

A

Lordosis

222
Q

________ = external device that provides support or stabilization, improves function, corrects deformities and distributes pressure from one area to another

A

Orthotic

223
Q

Components of UE prosthesis include:

A

Socket
Suspension
Elbow unit
Wrist unit
Terminal device

224
Q

Components of LE prosthesis include:

A

Socket
Suspension
Knee
Shank
Foot

225
Q

0/5 =

A

Zero

226
Q

1/5 =

A

Trace

227
Q

2-/5 =

A

Poor minus

228
Q

2/5 =

A

Poor

229
Q

2+/5 =

A

Poor plus

230
Q

3-/5 =

A

Fair minus

231
Q

3/5 =

A

Fair

232
Q

3+/5 =

A

Fair plus

233
Q

4-/5 =

A

Good minus

234
Q

4/5 =

A

Good

235
Q

4+/5 =

A

Good plus

236
Q

5/5 =

A

Normal

237
Q

Subject demonstrates no palpable muscle contraction

A

Zero

238
Q

Subject completes ROM against gravity with only minimal resistance

A

Fair plus

239
Q

Subject completes ROM against gravity with maximal resistance

A

Normal

240
Q

Subject does not complete ROM in gravity-eliminated position

A

Poor minus

241
Q

Subject completes ROM against gravity with moderate resistance

A

Good

242
Q

Subject’s muscle contraction can be palpated, but there’s no joint movement

A

Trace

243
Q

Subject completes ROM against gravity with moderate-maximal resistance

A

Good plus

244
Q

Subject does not complete ROM against gravity, but does complete more than 1/2 of range

A

Fair minus

245
Q

Subject completes ROM in gravity eliminated position

A

Poor

246
Q

Subject completes ROM against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance

A

Good minus

247
Q

Subject completes ROM against gravity without manual resistance

A

Fair

248
Q

Subject is able to initiate movement against gravity

A

Poor plus

249
Q

Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test on BICEPS?

A

C5

250
Q

Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test on BRACHIORADIALIS?

A

C6

251
Q

Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test on TRICEPS?

A

C7

252
Q

Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test for PATELLA?

A

L4

253
Q

Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test for ACHILLES?

A

S1

254
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C2?

A

Posterior head

255
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C3?

A

Posterior-lateral neck

256
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C4?

A

Acromioclavicular joint

257
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C5?

A

Lateral arm

258
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C6?

A

Lateral forearm and thumb

259
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C7?

A

Palmar distal phalanx
Middle finger

260
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C8?

A

Little finger
Ulnar border of hand

261
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level T1?

A

Medial forearm

262
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level L2?

A

Anterior thigh

263
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level L3?

A

Middle third of anterior thigh

264
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level L4?

A

Patella
Medial malleolus

265
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level L5?

A

Fibular head
Dorsum of foot

266
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level S1?

A

Lateral and plantar aspect of foot

267
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level S2?

A

Medial aspect of posterior thigh

268
Q

Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level S3-S5?

A

Perianal area

269
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C1?

A

Cervical rotation

270
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C2-C4?

A

Shoulder elevation

271
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C5?

A

Shoulder abduction

272
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C5-C6?

A

Elbow flexion

273
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C6?

A

Wrist extension

274
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C7?

A

Elbow extension
Wrist flexion

275
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C8?

A

Thumb extension

276
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for T1?

A

Finger abduction

277
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for L1-L2?

A

Hip flexion

278
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for L3-L4?

A

Knee extension

279
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for L4-L5?

A

Ankle dorsiflexion

280
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for L5?

A

Great toe extension

281
Q

Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for S1?

A

Ankle plantar flexion