Musculoskeletal System Flashcards
1
Q
______ is the surgical removal of a body part, partial or full extremity, due to disease, trauma or injury
A
Amputation
2
Q
______ extremity amputations are more common than ______ extremities
A
Lower, upper
3
Q
What is the primary etiology for lower extremity amputations?
A
Peripheral vascular disease
4
Q
A commonly encountered client with limb loss is an _____ adult who underwent lower-limb amputation due to vascular disease
A
Older
5
Q
What UE amputation takes away the UE including shoulder girdle?
A
Forequarter (scapulothoracic)
6
Q
What are other non-vascular causes of amputations?
A
- trauma
- cancer-related
- congenital conditions
7
Q
What amputation involves UE through shoulder?
A
Shoulder disarticulation
8
Q
What UE amputation involves UE proximal to elbow joint?
A
Transhumeral
9
Q
What UE amputation involves lower arm and hand through elbow joint?
A
Elbow disarticulation
10
Q
What UE amputation is distal to elbow joint?
A
Transradial
11
Q
_______ attempt to replace the missing body part to allow a patient improved function and cosmesis.
A
Prosthetics
12
Q
Forequarter amputations include the __________
A
Scapulothoracic
13
Q
What UE amputation involves the hand through wrist joint?
A
Wrist disarticulation
14
Q
What UE amputation involves portion of the hand or digits @ trans carpal, trans metacarpal, or transpharangeal?
A
Partial hand
15
Q
What UE amputation involves removal of digit @ MCP, PIP, or DIP level?
A
Digital amputation
16
Q
What SOCKETS are used for Transradial prosthesis?
A
Standard socket or Supracondylar socket
17
Q
What LE amputation involves pelvis and both LE?
A
Hemicorporectomy
18
Q
Standard socket covers:
A
2/3 of forearm
19
Q
What LE amputation involves 1/2 of pelvis and LE?
A
Hemipelvectomy
20
Q
Why may the standard socket be shortened?
A
To allow for increased pronation/supination
21
Q
What LE amputation is removal of LE from the pelvis?
A
Hip disarticulation
22
Q
T/F: Supracondylar sockets are self suspending?
A
True
23
Q
What LE amputation involves removal of LE above knee joint?
A
Transfemoral
24
Q
T/F: Supracondylar sockets require additional harness apparatus
A
False; NO
25
What LE amputation involves the LE through the knee joint?
Knee disarticulation
26
What LE amputation is the removal of LE below the knee joint?
Transtibial
27
What type of SUSPENSIONS are used for Transradial prosthesis?
Triceps cuff
Harness
Cable system
28
LE amputation of foot @ ankle joint with malleoli?
Syme's
29
The ELBOW UNIT of Transradial prosthesis attaches where?
Either triceps cuff or upper arm pad
30
LE amputation through talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints?
Transverse Tarsal (Chopart's)
31
Describe the ELBOW UNIT of Transradial prosthesis
Flexible or rigid hinge; Connects socket to proximal component
32
In a transverse tarsal (chopart's) amputation, which muscle group is kept and which is lost?
PF's kept
DF's lost
33
What is the usual result of Chopart's amputation due to losing DF's?
Equinus contracture
34
Describe the WRIST UNIT of Transradial prosthesis
Quick change unit
Wrist flexion unit
Ball and socket
Constant friction
35
LE amputation involving metatarsals that preserves both PF's and DF's?
Tarsometatarsal (Lisfranc)
36
Describe the TERMINAL DEVICES used for Transradial Prosthesis
Voluntary opening or closing
Body-powered, externally powered, myoelectric or hybrid
Hook, mechanical hand, cosmetic glove
37
The most indication for a Syme’s amputation is ________
Infection
38
What positioning should be avoided with a transtibial amputation?
Prolonged hip and knee flexion
39
Where should the pillow be placed for a patient who has a transtibial amputation?
Under distal residual limb
40
Congenital limb deficiency accounts for approximately __% of LE amputations
5%
41
What is the least likely result in a LE amputation?
Congenital limb deficiency
42
Approximately __% of all UE amputations result from _____
85%, trauma
43
Traumatic amputations tend to occur most commonly in ______ adults
Younger
44
Amputations as a result of diabetes & peripheral vascular disease are more common in the ______
Elderly
45
What is a Ray Resection?
Removal of a toe & all or part of the corresponding metatarsal
46
The most common contracture seen after a transfemoral amputation is?
Hip flexion and abduction
47
A long transtibial amputation refers to removal of the ____ third of the tibia
Distal
48
A short transtibial amputation refers to surgical removal of the limb at the ____ third of the tibia
Proximal
49
What all contributes to increased knee flexion during stance phase?
High shoe heel
Stiff heel cushion
Socket too far anterior
Socket excessively flexed
Insufficient P-flexion
50
A limitation in D-flex of the prosthesis will result in
Hyperextension of knee to attain foot flat
51
The safest way to ascend a hill with a prosthetic limb is to:
Sidestep w/ sound limb leading & prosthetic trailing
52
The most important factor to determine candidacy for a prosthesis is the patient’s ____
Prior activity level
53
What permits the attachment of pylon for early ambulation following amputation?
Plaster of Paris
54
Plaster of Paris is primarily used for:
Residual limb protection & edema control
55
What requires sutures to be removed from the amputation site prior to use?
Elastic shrinker
56
Elastic shrinkers are used for
Edema control & residual limb shaping
57
Describe the characteristics of Elastic shrinkers
Conical shaped
Sock like garments
58
What size elastic bandages would be used when wrapping a transtibial residual limb?
2 four inch bandages
59
What is the most common type of socket with a transtibial amputation?
Patellar tendon bearing socket
60
Painful sensation that originates from an amputated limb is called?
Phantom pain
61
What intervention would most likely benefit an individual with phantom limb pain?
Mirror therapy
62
Which energy system is used for ATP production during HIGH intensity, SHORT duration exercise such as sprinting 100 meters?
ATP-PC
63
There is 2 to 3 times more phosphocreatine in cells of _____ than ATP
Muscle
64
ATP-PC process happens _______
Instantaneously
65
ATP-PC system provides energy for muscle contraction for up to _____
15 sec
66
Which energy system is a major supplier of ATP during HIGH intensity, SHORT duration activities such as sprinting 400 or 800 meters?
Anaerobic glycolysis
67
Does Anaerobic glycolysis require oxygen?
No
68
Anaerobic glycolysis results in the formation of _______ which causes muscular fatigue
Lactic acid
69
Anaerobic glycolysis is nearly 50% slower than which system?
Phosphocreatine system
70
Anaerobic glycolysis can provide a person with ___-___ sec of muscle contraction
30-40
71
Which system only uses carbohydrates, doesn’t require oxygen and releases enough energy for resynthesis of only small amounts of ATP?
Anaerobic glycolysis
72
Which system is used predominantly during LOW intensity, LONG duration exercise such as running a marathon?
Aerobic system
73
Which system yields the most ATP?
Aerobic
74
Aerobic system will provide energy as long as there are _______ to utilize
Nutrients
75
Another name for CORONAL plane
Frontal
76
______ is an erect posture of the body with the face forward, feet pointing forward and slightly apart, arms at side, and palms forward with fingers and thumbs in extension
Anatomical position
77
What are the 3 cardinal planes?
Frontal
Sagittal
Transverse
78
What are the 3 axes of the body?
A-P
M-L
Vertical
79
The frontal plane divides into _____ & ____ sections
Anterior, posterior
80
What motions occur in the frontal plane?
Abduction
Abduction
81
Frontal plane occurs around which axis?
A-P
82
The sagittal plane divides into ___ and ___ sections
Right, left
83
Which motions occur in sagittal plane?
Flexion
Extension
84
Which axis does sagittal plane occur around?
M-L
85
Transverse plane divides into ____ and ____ sections
Upper, lower
86
Which motions occur in transverse plane?
IR/ER
87
Which axis does transverse plane occur around?
Vertical
88
Class __ lever has the axis of rotation between the effort [force] and resistance [load]
1
89
What’s an example of Class 1 lever?
Triceps
90
A seesaw is an example of which lever?
1
91
A wheelbarrow is an example of which lever?
2
92
A class __ lever has the resistance between the axis of rotation and effort.
2
93
A class __ lever has the effort between the axis of rotation and resistance.
3
94
Give an example of Class 3 lever
Shoulder abduction with weight at wrist
Elbow flexion
95
Which are the most common types of lever in the body?
3
96
Describe SUTURE
Union of 2 bones by a ligament or membrane
Immovable joint
Eventual fusion
97
Describe SYNDESMOSIS
Bone connected to bone by a dense fibrous membrane or cord
Very little motion
98
Describe GOMPHOSIS
2 bony surfaces connect as a peg in a hole
99
What are the only gomphosis joints in the body?
Teeth and corresponding sockets in mandible/maxilla
100
Fibrous joints are classified as ______
Synarthroses
101
Cartilaginous joints are classified as ______
Amphiarthroses
102
Synovial joints are classified as _____
Diarthrodial
103
______ joint = one motion around a single axis in one plane of body
Uniaxial
104
What are the 2 types of uniaxial joint?
Hinge
Pivot
105
_______ joint = movement occurs in two planes and around two axes through the convex/concave surfaces
Biaxial
106
What are the 2 types of BIAXIAL joint?
Condyloid
Saddle
107
_______ joint = movement occurs in 3 planes and around 3 axes
Multi-axial
108
What are the 2 types of MULTIAXIAL joints?
Plane
Ball and socket
109
The hip joint is what type of multiaxial joint?
Ball and socket
110
The carpal bones are what type of joint?
Plane
111
Type IIa muscle fiber appear what color?
Red
112
Type IIb muscle fibers appear what color?
White
113
Describe Type I muscle fibers
Aerobic
Red
Tonic
Slow twitch
Slow-oxidative
114
Describe Type II muscle fibers
Anaerobic
Red/white
Phasic
Fast twitch
Fast glycolytic
115
What muscles perform SCAPULAR ELEVATION?
Upper trap
Levator scapulae
116
What muscles perform SCAPULAR DEPRESSION?
Latissimus dorsi
Pec major/minor
Lower trap
117
What muscles perform SCAPULAR PROTRACTION?
Serratus anterior
Pectoralis minor
118
What muscles perform SCAPULAR RETRACTION?
Middle trap
Rhomboids
119
Which muscles perform SCAPULAR UR?
Upper/lower trap
Serratus anterior
120
Which muscles perform SCAPULAR DR?
Rhomboids
Levator scapulae
Pectoralis minor
121
Which muscles perform SHOULDER FLEXION?
Anterior deltoid
Biceps brachii
Coracobrachialis
Pectoralis major
122
Which muscles perform SHOULDER ABDUCTION?
Middle deltoid
Supraspinatus
123
Which muscles perform SHOULDER EXTENSION?
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Posterior deltoid
Triceps brachii
124
Which muscles perform SHOULDER ADDUCTION?
Pectoralis major
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
125
Which muscles perform TMJ DEPRESSION?
Suprahyoid
Infrahyoid
Lateral pterygoid
126
Which muscles perform TMJ ELEVATION?
Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid
127
Which muscles perform TMJ PROTRUSION?
Masseter
Lateral pterygoid
Medial pterygoid
128
Which muscles perform TMJ RETRUSION?
Temporalis
Masseter
Digastric
129
Which muscles perform TMJ SIDE TO SIDE?
Masseter
Temporalis
Medial pterygoid
Lateral pterygoid
130
Which muscles perform SHOULDER HOR. ABDUCTION?
Posterior deltoid
Infraspinatus
Teres minor
131
Which muscles perform SHOULDER HOR ADDUCTION?
Anterior deltoid
Pectoralis major
132
Which muscles perform SHOULDER EXTERNAL ROTATION?
Infraspinatus
Posterior deltoid
Teres minor
133
Which muscles perform SHOULDER INTERNAL ROTATION?
Subscapularis
Latissimus dorsi
Teres major
Pectoralis major
Anterior deltoid
134
Which muscles perform ELBOW FLEXION?
Biceps brachii
Brachialis
Brachioradialis
135
Which muscles perform ELBOW EXTENSION?
Triceps
Anconeus
136
Which muscles perform SUPINATION?
Biceps brachii
Supinator
137
Which muscles perform PRONATION?
Pronator teres
Pronator Quadratus
138
Which muscles perform WRIST FLEXION?
Flexor carpi radialis
Flexor carpi ulnaris
Palmaris longus
139
Which muscles perform WRIST EXTENSION?
Extensor carpi radialis longus
Extensor carpi radialis brevis
Extensor carpi ulnaris
140
Which muscles perform WRIST RADIAL DEVIATION?
Flexor carpi radialis
Extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis
Extensor pollicis longus and brevis
141
Which muscles perform WRIST ULNAR DEVIATION?
Extensor carpi ulnaris
Flexor carpi ulnaris
142
Which interossei does FINGER ABDUCTION?
Dorsal
143
Which interossei does FINGER ADDUCTION?
Palmar
144
Which muscles perform HIP FLEXION?
Iliopsoas
Pectineus
Sartorius
Rectus femoris
145
Which muscles perform HIP EXTENSION?
Glute max
Glute medius
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Biceps femoris
146
Which muscles perform HIP ABDUCTION?
Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Piriformis
Obturator internus
Tensor fasciae latae
147
Which muscles perform HIP ADDUCTION?
Gracilis
Adductor magnus
Adductor longus
Adductor brevis
148
Which muscles perform HIP INTERNAL ROTATION?
Gluteus medius
Gluteus minimus
Tensor fascia latae
Pectineus
Adductor longus
149
Which muscles perform HIP EXTERNAL ROTATION?
Sartorius
Piriformis
Superior & inferior Gemellus
Obturator internus & externus
Gluteus Maximus
150
Which muscles perform KNEE FLEXION?
Sartorius
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
Biceps femoris
151
Which muscles perform KNEE EXTENSION?
Rectus femoris
Vastus medialis
Vastus intermedius
Vastus lateralis
152
Which muscles perform ANKLE PLANTAR FLEXION?
Soleus
Gastrocnemius
Plantaris
Fibularis longus
Fibularis brevis
Flexor hallucis
Tibialis posterior
153
Which muscles perform ANKLE DORSIFLEXION?
Fibularis tertius
Tibialis anterior
Extensor hallucis longus
Extensor digitorum longus
154
Which muscles perform ANKLE INVERSION?
Tibialis posterior
Tibialis anterior
Flexor digitorum longus
155
Which muscles perform ANKLE EVERSION?
Fibularis longus
Fibularis brevis
Fibularis tertius
156
What is the loose packed position for GLENOHUMERAL JOINT?
55 degrees abduction
30 degrees horizontal adduction
157
What is the closed packed position for GLENOHUMERAL JOINT?
Abduction
External rotation
158
What is the capsular pattern for GLENOHUMERAL JOINT?
External rotation
Abduction
Internal rotation
159
What is the loose pack position of STERNOCLAVICULAR joint?
Arm resting by side
160
What’s the close packed position for the STERNOCLAVICULAR joint?
Maximum shoulder elevation
161
What’s the capsular pattern for STERNOCLAVICULAR joint?
Pain at extremes of range of movement
162
What’s the loose packed position for ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint?
Arm resting by side
163
What’s the close packed position for ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint?
Arm abducted to 90 degrees
164
What motions does STERNOCLAVICULAR joint perform?
Elevation
Depression
Protraction
Retraction
Medial rotation
Lateral rotation
165
What motion does ACROMIOCLAVICULAR joint perform?
Anterior tilt
Posterior tilt
Upward rotation
Downward rotation
Protraction
Retraction
166
Which motions does RADIOHUMERAL joint perform?
Flexion
Extension
Pronation
Supination
167
What’s the loose packed position for RADIOHUMERAL joint?
Full extension & supination
168
What’s the closed packed position for RADIOHUMERAL joint?
90 degrees flexion
5 degrees supination
169
What motions does ULNOHUMERAL joint perform?
Flexion
Extension
170
What’s the loose packed position for ULNOHUMERAL joint?
70 degrees elbow flexion
10 degrees supination
171
What’s the close packed position for ULNOHUMERAL joint?
Extension
172
What’s capsular pattern for ULNOHUMERAL joint?
Flexion, extension
173
What’s the loose packed position for PROXIMAL RADIOULNAR joint?
70 degrees elbow flexion
35 degrees supination
174
What’s the close packed position for PROXIMAL RADIOULNAR joint?
5 degrees supination
175
Which ligament surrounds the head of radius?
Annular ligament
176
What’s the loose packed position for RADIOCARPAL joint?
Neutral with slight ulnar deviation
177
What’s the closed packed position for RADIOCARPAL joint?
Extension with radial deviation
178
What’s the loose packed position for ILIOFEMORAL joint?
30 degrees flexion
30 degrees abduction
Slight lateral rotation
179
What’s the closed packed position for ILIOFEMORAL joint?
Full extension, medial rotation
180
What’s the capsular pattern for ILIOFEMORAL joint?
Flexion, abduction, medial rotation
181
What bones make up the KNEE joint?
Patella
Tibia
Femur
182
The knee is classified as a ____ joint
Hinge
183
What motions does the TIBIOFEMORAL joint perform?
Flexion
Extension
Medial rotation
Lateral rotation
184
What’s the loose packed position for TIBIOFEMORAL joint?
25 degrees flexion
185
What’s the closed packed position for TIBIOFEMORAL joint?
Full extension
Lateral rotation of tibia
186
Ligamentum nuchae restricts which motion in the cervical spine?
Flexion
187
What structures connects the lamina of one vertebra to the lamina of the vertebra above it?
Ligamentum flavum
188
Ligamentum flavum limits what motions?
Flexion
Rotation
189
Posterior longitudinal ligament limits what motion?
Flexion
190
Interspinous ligaments limit what motions?
Flexion
Rotation
191
Anterior longitudinal ligament limits what motions?
Extension
192
Atlanta-occipital joint is what type of joint?
Condylar synovial joint
193
Atlanta-occipital joint permits which motions?
Flexion
Extension
194
What type of joint is Atlantoaxial joint?
Plane synovial joint
195
Which motions does atlantoaxial permit?
Flexion
Extension
Lateral flexion
Rotation
196
Iliolumbar ligament limits all motions between __ & __
L5, S1
197
Brachial plexus arises from nerve roots of __-__
C5, T1
198
Lumbar plexus is formed by the nerve roots of __ and __
T12, L1-L4
199
The most important branches of the plexus are the _____ and _____ nerves
Obturator, femoral
200
Ribs 1-10 articulate with what?
Thoracic vertebrae through costovertebral/costotransverse joints
201
Ribs 1-7 are attached to ______
Sternum
202
Ribs 8-10 join with the _____ _____ of ribs 1-7
Costal cartilage
203
Ribs 11-12 articulate only with:
Vertebral bodies of T11-T12, but not TP
204
What’s the body’s 3 sources of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP)?
ATP-PC [phosphagen]system
Anaerobic glycolysis [lactic acid] system
Aerobic [oxygen] system
205
Phosphagen system =
ATP-PC
206
Lactic acid system =
Anaerobic glycolysis
207
Oxygen system =
Aerobic
208
Which energy system provides energy for muscle contraction for up to 15 seconds?
ATP-PC system
209
Which energy system provides energy for muscle contraction for 30-40 seconds?
Anaerobic glycolysis
210
Common joint receptors include:
Free nerve endings
Golgi ligament endings
Golgi-Mazzini corpuscles
Pacinian corpuscles
Ruffini endings
211
Type __ muscle fibers = aerobic, red, tonic, slow twitch and slow oxidative
I
212
Describe Type II muscle fibers
Anaerobic
White
Phasic
Fast twitch
Fast glycolytic
213
_______ are encapsulated sensory receptors that are sensitive to tension
Golgi tendon organs
214
_______ are distributed throughout belly of muscle and function to send information to nervous system about muscle length and/or rate of change of its length
Muscle spindle
215
The cervical spine consists of ___ vertebrae
7
216
The thoracic spine consists of __ vertebrae
12
217
The lumbar spine consists of ___ vertebrae
5
218
An upper/lower quarter screen consists of:
Posture
ROM
Resistive, reflex and dermatome testing
219
Hip precautions following total hip arthroplasty [posterolateral] approach:
Avoid:
- flexion beyond 90 deg
- adduction
- medial rotation
220
_______ = excessive curvature of spine in posterior direction usually in thoracic spine
Kyphosis
221
________ = excessive curvature of spine in anterior direction usually in cervical/lumbar spine
Lordosis
222
________ = external device that provides support or stabilization, improves function, corrects deformities and distributes pressure from one area to another
Orthotic
223
Components of UE prosthesis include:
Socket
Suspension
Elbow unit
Wrist unit
Terminal device
224
Components of LE prosthesis include:
Socket
Suspension
Knee
Shank
Foot
225
0/5 =
Zero
226
1/5 =
Trace
227
2-/5 =
Poor minus
228
2/5 =
Poor
229
2+/5 =
Poor plus
230
3-/5 =
Fair minus
231
3/5 =
Fair
232
3+/5 =
Fair plus
233
4-/5 =
Good minus
234
4/5 =
Good
235
4+/5 =
Good plus
236
5/5 =
Normal
237
Subject demonstrates no palpable muscle contraction
Zero
238
Subject completes ROM against gravity with only minimal resistance
Fair plus
239
Subject completes ROM against gravity with maximal resistance
Normal
240
Subject does not complete ROM in gravity-eliminated position
Poor minus
241
Subject completes ROM against gravity with moderate resistance
Good
242
Subject’s muscle contraction can be palpated, but there’s no joint movement
Trace
243
Subject completes ROM against gravity with moderate-maximal resistance
Good plus
244
Subject does not complete ROM against gravity, but does complete more than 1/2 of range
Fair minus
245
Subject completes ROM in gravity eliminated position
Poor
246
Subject completes ROM against gravity with minimal-moderate resistance
Good minus
247
Subject completes ROM against gravity without manual resistance
Fair
248
Subject is able to initiate movement against gravity
Poor plus
249
Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test on BICEPS?
C5
250
Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test on BRACHIORADIALIS?
C6
251
Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test on TRICEPS?
C7
252
Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test for PATELLA?
L4
253
Which nerve are you testing when performing REFLEX test for ACHILLES?
S1
254
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C2?
Posterior head
255
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C3?
Posterior-lateral neck
256
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C4?
Acromioclavicular joint
257
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C5?
Lateral arm
258
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C6?
Lateral forearm and thumb
259
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C7?
Palmar distal phalanx
Middle finger
260
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level C8?
Little finger
Ulnar border of hand
261
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level T1?
Medial forearm
262
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level L2?
Anterior thigh
263
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level L3?
Middle third of anterior thigh
264
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level L4?
Patella
Medial malleolus
265
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level L5?
Fibular head
Dorsum of foot
266
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level S1?
Lateral and plantar aspect of foot
267
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level S2?
Medial aspect of posterior thigh
268
Which area of skin are you testing when performing DERMATOME test at innervation level S3-S5?
Perianal area
269
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C1?
Cervical rotation
270
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C2-C4?
Shoulder elevation
271
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C5?
Shoulder abduction
272
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C5-C6?
Elbow flexion
273
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C6?
Wrist extension
274
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C7?
Elbow extension
Wrist flexion
275
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for C8?
Thumb extension
276
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for T1?
Finger abduction
277
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for L1-L2?
Hip flexion
278
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for L3-L4?
Knee extension
279
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for L4-L5?
Ankle dorsiflexion
280
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for L5?
Great toe extension
281
Which RESISTIVE TEST would be performed for S1?
Ankle plantar flexion
