Musculoskeletal IV- Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

Achilles tendonitis snapshot

A
  • repetitive overuse disorder resulting in microscopic tears of collagen fibers on the surface or in the substance of the achilles tendon
  • tendon most often impacted in an avascular zone located two to six centimeters above the insertion of the tendon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Achilles tendonitis etiology

A
  • overload of tendon often caused by changes in training intensity or faulty technique
  • limited flaxibility and strength in gastroc and soleus complex and/or pronated or cavus foot are at increased risk
  • activities fx associated- running, basketball, gymnastics, and dancing
  • history of increased chance of tendon rupture later in life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Achilles tendonitis s/s

A
  • aching or burning in the posterior heel, tenderness of achilles tendon, pain with increased activity, swelling and thickening in the tendon area, muscle weakness due to pain, morning stiffness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Achilles tendonitis tx

A
  • Initially RICE, and anagesics as needed
  • heel lift and cross training may be used to limit the amount of tensile loading through the tendon
  • prevention includes heel cord stretching, use of appropriate solft soled footwear, eccentric strengthening or gastroc and soleus, and avoid sudden changes to exercise intensity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adhesive capsulitis snapshot

A
  • results in loss of ROM in active and passive shoulder motion due to soft tissue contracture
  • condition causes by adhesive fibrosis and scarring between the capsule, rotator cuff, subacromial bursa, and deltoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Adhesive capsulitis etiology

A
  • onset may be related to a direct injury to the shoulder or may begin insidiously
  • peak incidence occurs in individuals between 40 and 60 years of age with females more affected than males
  • increased risk with diabetes
  • self-limiting and typically resolves in 1-2 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Adhesive capsulitis s/s

A
  • incidious onset of localized pain often extending down the arm, subjective reports of stiffness, night pain, restricted ROM in a capsular pattern
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Adhesive capsulitis tx

A
  • focus of treatment is increasing ROM with glenohumeral mobilization, range of motion exercises, and palliative modalities
  • avoid overstretching and elevating pain since can result in further loss of motion
  • can have suprascapular nerve block and closed manipulation under anasthesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ACL sprain snapshot

A
  • ACL runs from anterior intercondylar area of the tibia to the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle in the intercondylar notch
  • ligament prevents anterior displacement of the tibia in relation to the femur
  • the extent of he sprain is classified according to extent of ligament damage
    • grade 1=microscopic tears
    • grade 3=completely torn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ACL etiology

A
  • noncontact twisting injury
    • associated with hyperextension, varus or valgus stress to the knee
  • ACL sprain often invoves injury to other knee structures such as medial capsule, MCL, and menisci
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ACL s/s

A
  • patient may report a loud pop or feeling the knee “giving way” or “buckling” followed by dizziness, sweating, and swelling
  • ST- anterior drawer, lachman, lateral pivot shift
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ACL tx

A
  • Initially RICE, NSAIDs, and analgesics as needed
  • Conservative includes:
    • LE strengthening emphasizing quads and hamstrings.
  • Surgery often warranted for complete ACL tear (grade III)
    • intra articular reconstruction using patellar tendon, iliotibial band, or hamstring tendon
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Congenital hip dysplasia snapshot

A
  • AKA developmental dysplasia
  • condition characterized by malalginment of the femoral head within the acetabulum
  • develops during late trimester in utero
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Congenital hip dysplasia etiology

A
  • cultural predisposition, malposition of utero, environmental and genetic influences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Congenital hip dysplasia s/s

A
  • clinical presentation includes
    • asymmetrical hip abduction with tightness and apparent femoral shortening of the involved side
  • testing for this condition may include the Ortolani’s test, Barlo’s test, and Diagnostic ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Congenital hip dysplasia tx

A
  • focus of treatment is dependent on age, severity, and initial attempts to reposition the femoral head within the acetabulum through the constant use of a harness, bracing, splinting or traction
  • PT may be indicated after cast removal for stretching, strengthening, and caregiver education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Congenital limb deficiencies snapshot

A
  • malformation that occurs in utero, secondary to an altered developmental course
  • classified as longitudinal or transverse
    • longitudinal refers to a reduction or absence of an element or elements within the long axis of the bone
    • transverse limb deficiency refers to a limb that has developed to a particular level beyond which no skeletal elements exist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Congenital limb deficiencies etiology

A
  • majority ae idiopathic or are genetic in origin
  • others include poor blood supply, constricting amniotic bands, infection, and maternal drug exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Congenital limb deficiencies s/s

A
  • structural or acquired abnormality of a limb, phantom limb pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Congenital limb deficiencies tx

A

the focus of treatment is on symmetrical movements, strengthening, range of motion, weight bearing activities, and prosthetic training when appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Congenital torticollis snapshot

A
  • “wry neck”
  • chracterized by unilateral contacture of the SCM muscle
  • condition is most often identified in the first two months of life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Congenital torticollis etiology

A
  • cause is unknown
  • may be associated with malpositioning in utero and birth trauma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Congenital tortocollis s/s

A
  • lateral cervical flexion to the same side as the contracture, rotation toward the opposite side, and facial asymmetries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Congenital torticollis tx

A
  • initially, conservative tx with emphasis on stretching, AROM, positioning, and caregive education
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Glenohumeral instability snapshot

A
  • refers to excessive translation of the humeral head on the glenoid during active rotation
  • involved varying degrees of injuries to dynamic and static structures that function to contain the humeral head in the glenoid
  • subluxation refers to joint laxity, allowing more than 50% of the humeral head to passively translate over the glenoid rim without dislocation
  • dislocation is complete seperation of the articular surfaces of the glenoid and the humeral head
  • approx 85% of disocations detach the glenoid labrum (ie Bankart lesion)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Glenohumeral instability etiology

A
  • combination of forces stress the anterior capsule, GH ligament, and RC, causing the humerus to move anteriorly out of the glenoid fossa
  • ant disloc is the most common and usually assoc with shoulder ABD and ER
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Glenohumeral instability s/s

A
  • subluxation-
    • feeling the shoulder “popping” out and back into place, pain, paresthesias, sensation of the arm feeling “dead”, positive apprehension test, capsular tenderness, swelling
  • dislocation-
    • severe pain, parethesias, limited ROM, weakness, visible shoulder fullness, arm supported by contralateral limb
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Glenohumeral instability tx

A
  • initial mobilization with a sling for 3-6 weeks
  • RICE and NSAIDs often in early phase
  • following immob, ROM and isometric strengthening should be initiated followed by progressive resistive exercises emphasizing the IR and ER as well as large scap muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Impingement syndrome snapshot

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Impingement syndrome etiology

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Impingement syndrome s/s

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Impingement syndrome tx

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Juvenile RA snapshot

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Juvenile RA etiology

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Juvenile RA s/s

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Juvenile RA tx

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lateral epicondylitis snapshot

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Lateral epicondylitis etiology

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lateral epicondylitis s/s

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Lateral epicondylitis tx

A
41
Q

Legg Calve Perthes Disease snapshot

A
42
Q

LCPD etiology

A
43
Q

LCPD s/s

A
44
Q

LCPD tx

A
45
Q

MCL snapshot

A
46
Q

MCL sprain etiology

A
47
Q

MCL sprain s/s

A
48
Q

MCL sprain tx

A
49
Q

Meniscus tear snapshot

A
50
Q

Meniscus tear etiology

A
51
Q

Meniscus tear s/s

A
52
Q

Meniscus tear tx

A
53
Q

Osgood Schlatter Disease snapshot

A
54
Q

OSD etiology

A
55
Q

OSD s/s

A
56
Q

OSD tx

A
57
Q

OA snapshot

A
58
Q

OA etiology

A
59
Q

OA s/s

A
60
Q

OA tx

A
61
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta

A
62
Q

Osteogenesis imprefecta etiology

A
63
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta s/s

A
64
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta tx

A
65
Q

Patellofemoral syndrome snapshot

A
66
Q

Patellofemoral etiology

A
67
Q

Patellofemoral s/s

A
68
Q

Patellofemoral syndrome tx

A
69
Q

PF snapshot

A
70
Q

PF etiology

A
71
Q

PF s/s

A
72
Q

PF tx

A
73
Q

PCL sprain snapshot

A
74
Q

PCL sprain s/s

A
75
Q

PCL sprain tx

A
76
Q

RA snapshot

A
77
Q

RA etiology

A
78
Q

RA s/s

A
79
Q

RA tx

A
80
Q

Rotator cuff tear snapshot

A
81
Q

Rotator cuff tear etiology

A
82
Q

Rotator cuff tear s/s

A
83
Q

Rotator cuff tear tx

A
84
Q

Scoliosis snapshot

A
85
Q

Scoliosis etiology

A
86
Q

Scoliosis s/s

A
87
Q

Scoliosis tx

A
88
Q

Talipes equinovarus snapshot

A
89
Q

Talipes Equinovarus etiology

A
90
Q

Talipes equinovarus s/s

A
91
Q

Talipes equinovarus tx

A
92
Q

THA snapshot

A
93
Q

THA etiology

A
94
Q

THA s/s

A
95
Q

THA tx

A
96
Q

TKA snapshot

A
97
Q

TKA etiology

A
98
Q

TKA s/s

A
99
Q

TKA tx

A