Musculoskeletal Diseases 2/18 Flashcards

Test 2

1
Q

Scleroderma is know as _______

A

Systemic Sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What disorder is CREST used for? What does it mean?

A

Scleroderma

(C)alcinosis: calcium deposits on skin
(R)aynauds phenomenon
(E)sophageal dysfunction: acid reflux & decrease in motility
(S)clerodactyly =: skin thickening/tightening on hands/finger
(T)elangiectasias: dilation of capillaries –> red spots on face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Raynauld’s phenomenon triggered by? What are Tx?

A

Cold
-stress
-pain
-in adequate perfusion

Tx: keep extremities warm; treat pain; adequately profuse; digital block (last resort –> causes vasodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the 3 interrelated processes that scleroderma are characterized by?

A
  1. Autoimmune-mediated inflammatory vasculitis.
  2. Tissue & internal organ fibrosis
  3. Organ sclerosis with vascular structures that do not regenerate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is the prognosis for scleroderma poor?

A

Visceral/organ involvement (kidneys, lungs, heart, GI) and the vascular structures do not regenerate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are S/S for Scleroderma? Go through all systems.

A

Skin: Taunt, Ca deposits
MS: limited mobility, contractures (dt taunt skin), skeletal muscle myopathy –> difficulty moving
NS: distal nerve compression (ulnar/radial)
CV: systemic/pulm HTN; dysrhythmias; vasospasms, CHF, increase risk: pericarditis/pericardial effusion
Pulm: pulm fibrosis –> decreased compliance
Renal: decreased RBF & HTN; renal crisis precipitated by corticosteroids
GI: Reflux, malabsorption, coagulation disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What consideration should we have with induction for scleroderma? Why?

A

Use Etomidate
-Do slow induction

Why: reduces risk of pulm HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are signs of pulmonary hypertension? Tx?

A

JVD
-increase R ventricle
CXR: pulm edema

Tx: keep on the dry side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do we Tx Renal crisis? What causes it?

A

ACE inhibitors

Steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F: Reglan/metoclopramide works well in scleroderma

A

F

It does not work to increase motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the Tx for Scleroderma?

A

PPI –> reflux
ACE-I –> renal crisis
CCB –> raynauds
PDE inhibitors –> Pulm HTN
Dig –> increase CO
Imm therapy/steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do I Tx ACE-I/ARBs-induced hypotension in scleroderma?

A

Vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do I need to make sure I get on pts with scleroderma? Why?

A

ECHO

risk of pulm HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What drug works in increasing motility in scleroderma?

A

octreotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the anesthesia considerations we should have scleroderma?

A

Airway: Limited mandible motion; small mouth opening; limited neck, ROM; increase risk of oral bleeding
CV: if needing A-line w/ raynauds –> decrease flow distal to line
Pulm: avoid increasing PVR
GI: high risk aspiration –> PPIs/H2 antagonist/NGT/ OGT to decompress
VTE prophylaxis
Stress dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In Scleroderma, what can we give for oral bleeding?

A

TXA
Vitamin K
Topical phenylephrine/epi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

__________ maybe a better option with scleroderma

A

Regional anesthesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the stress dose?

A

Hydrocortisone

100 mg q6-8h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the VTE prophylaxis dose?

A

Heparin

5000u SQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DMD =

A

(Pseudohypertrophy muscular dystrophy) Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy starts in ___________ and is more common in ___________

A

childhood

men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

By _______ yo, pt are not able to walk independently anymore with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

A

8-10 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is characterized by what 2 things?

A

Muscle wasting
decreasing strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the initial symptoms of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Frequent falls
impaired gait
diff climbing stairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, pts wont live past early __________ and usually die from ___________ complications

A

adulthood (20-25 yo)

pulmonary (CHF/PNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What gene mutation is responsible for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy? Where is it located?

A

Dystrophin gene on the X-chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, _________ infltrations = ____________-

A

Fatty

Pseudohypertrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are S/S of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

CNS: intellectual disabilities
MS: kyphoscoliosis; skeletal muscle atrophy; serum CK 20-100x normal (dt muscle wasting) –> increased K
CV: sinus tach, cardiomyopathy, EKG abnormalities (increased K)
Pulm: we can respiratory muscles/cough; OSA; pulm HTN
GI: hypermotility; gastroparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of test should we get on Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy pts?

A

ECHO –> pulm HTN
EKG –> increased K from rhado dt muscle wasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of EKG changes would you see in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Short PR interval
Sinus tach

V1: tall R waves
Limb leads: deep Q waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the anesthesia considerations we should have with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Airway: weak laryngeal reflexes/cough –> don’t over sedate; hard to clear secretions
Pulm: weakend muscles –> may want to avoid NMB
CV: EKG/ECHO
GI: delayed gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What medications do we use for reversal in Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

Sugammadex

Not neostigmine or glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What consideration should we have w/ Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy if we have to put them on the ventilator?

A

Have to be on the ventilator longer up to 36 hrs post Sx –> have to go to ICU

Does your facility have an ICU? –> may need to transfer our before or after procedure depending on the severity/emergency of the case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy we want to avoid what NMB? Why?

A

Succs

increased K from muscle wasting; this will increase K even more.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

With Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, there’s an increased risk of _______.

A

MH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, which type of anesthesia is preferred?

A

Regional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In pediatrics with Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy, what are 2 good drugs for sedation?

A

Ketamine
Precedex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis characterized by?

A

Cycles of exacerbation and remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Decreased functional post-synaptic Ach-R at the NMJ from antibodies –> muscle weakness w/ rapid exhaustion w/ basic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Myasthenia Gravis is usually developed when?

A

later in adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Myasthenia Gravis ALSO results in ________ abnormalities

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Exhaustion from Myasthenia Gravis is _________ recovered with rest

A

partially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pts with Myasthenia Gravis are sensitive to ______ and we should try not to use them.

A

NMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What unit is destroyed on the Ach-R with Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Post synaptic Alpha-subunit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

______% of receptors can be lost in Myasthenia Gravis

A

80

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies in Myasthenia Gravis? What percentage of people w/ Myasthenia Gravis have this?

A

Tyrosine kinase antibody that is cruicial in the maintenance of NMJ and have no thymus involvement

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the difference between the types of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Type 1: limited to ocular involvement
Type2a/2b
Type3
Type4: severe form of skeletal muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are S/S of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

-Ptosis (eye drooping); diplopia (double vision); dysphagia
-dysarthria (diff speaking); diff handling savila
-isolated resp failure
-arm, leg, trunk muscle weakness
-increase risk myocarditis
-autoimmune associated risk (including pernicious anemia/hyperthyroid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What may be the only symptom in Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Isolated respiratory failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What type of antibiotics should you avoid in Myasthenia Gravis? Why?

A

Mycin ABx (Gentamicin, streptomycin, tobramycin)

inhibit Ach release at NMJ –> severe respiratory muscle weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What causes Myasthenia crisis vs Cholinergic crisis? What are the different s/s?

A

MG crisis
cause: drug resistance/tolerance; missed dose
s/s: severe muscle weakness;resp failure

Cholinergic crisis
cause: excess anticholinerergics
s/s: SLUDGEM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are drugs that can causes cholinergic crisis?

A

Atropine
Scope patch
Hydroxzine
Benadryl
Phenergan
glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SLUDGEM =

A

Salivation
Lacrimation
Urination
Diarrhea
Gastrointestinal
Emesis
Miosis (Pupil constriction)

54
Q

What is the relevance of the Tensilon Test? What does it consist of?

A

Give 1-2mg IV of Edrophonium

Better –> MG crisis
Worse –> Cholinergic crisis

55
Q

What is the Tx for Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Anticholinesterases: Pyridostigmine > neostigmine

Thymectomy: Reduces Ach-R antibodies thru unknown MOA
–induces remission
–reduces use of immunosuppressants
–full benefits delayed after Sx
–invasise bc thymus next to heart

Immunosuppressants: corticosteroids, azathioprine, cyclosporine, mycophenolate

Immunotherapy (crisis):
–plasmapheresis
–immunoglobulin

56
Q

What considerations should we have with MG and -stigmine?

A

Used in Tx so may have tolerance –> decrease effectiveness when using for reversal –> just dont use NMB bc too much of a risk with already muscle weakness and then possible no reversal.

57
Q

What is the dose for -stigmines in Myasthenia Gravis?

A

120mg q3H

higher doses –> cholinergic crisis

58
Q

In Myasthenia Gravis, pts are resistant to ____________. What is a good alternative? Why?

A

Succs

Remifentanil

similar effects to succ w/o depolarization
-can use if need to quickly get an airway and cant use succs

59
Q

What are anesthesia management considerations for MG?

A

Aspiration risk
-weakend pulmonary effort
-mark sensitivity to nondepolarizing muscle relaxant
-resistance to succs
-intubate without NMBD

60
Q

With Myasthenia Gravis, you should use ________ to decrease risk for aspiration

A

Reglan/metoclopramide
H2 antagonists

61
Q

What joints are Osteoarthritis common in?

A

Knee
Hip
Shoulder
hands

62
Q

What causes Osteoarthritis?

A

Repetitive bio mechanical stress

esp. w/ heavy loads

63
Q

What is Osteoarthritis?

A

Chronic degenerative process affecting articular cartilage

64
Q

What type of cartilage does Osteoarthritis affect?

A

Articular cartilage

65
Q

Inflammation with osteoarthritis should be ________

A

Minimal

if big/very swollen –> something else wrong (maybe infection)

66
Q

What is another big contributor of osteoarthritis?

67
Q

In osteoarthritis, pain is present with _________ and relieved by_________

A

Motion

Rest

68
Q

What are Heberden nodes?

A

Seen in Osteoarthritis

In the distal interphalangeal joints (hands/fingers)
Disc/joints sticking out

69
Q

Describe degenerative disease in Osteoarthritis in reference to vertebral bodies & intervetebral discs

A

Lean forward –> pressure on disc –> disc protrudes –> pressure on nerves –> pain/pain shots down leg

arc back –> pressure on facets joints –> compression of dorsal nerve roots –> pain

70
Q

What is the most common area for degenerative disease pain with Osteoarthritis in the back to be?

A

Mid-lower lumbar
C6-C7

71
Q

What is the recommended Tx for Osteoarthritis?

A

PT/exercise –> maintain muscle function
NSAIDs
Acupuncture
Stem cell
Joint replacement Sx

72
Q

We do NOT want to give _______ with Osteoarthritis. Why?

A

corticosteroids

It will help temporarily –> then get worse

73
Q

What are anesthesia management considerations we should have with Osteoarthritis?

A

Limited ROM with neck and possibly other extremities

74
Q

RA =

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

75
Q

What is RA?

A

Autoimmune-mediated systemic inflammatory disease that causes pain

76
Q

Where does RA normally affect?

A

Proximal interphalangeal (hands) and metacarpophalangeal joints (feet)

77
Q

What is a consideration for any pt that is on an immunosuppressant?

A

Make sure they have their vaccines!

78
Q

Pts with RA are normally ______ than pt with osteoarthritis.

79
Q

RA is more common with _______ joints

80
Q

What are S/S of RA?

A

-Atlantoaxial subluxation
-Cricoarytenoid arthritis
-osteoporosis
NM: weakened skeletal muscles–> peripheral neuropathy
CV: Increase risk pericarditis, accelerated coronary atherosclerosis
Pulm: restrictive lung changes
Blood: anemia, neutropenia, elevated platelets
-Keratoconjunctivitis sicca and xerostomia

81
Q

RA is worse in the __________

A

morning

gets better through the day

82
Q

What is a main difference in RA and osteoarthritis?

A

RA: worse in the morning –> better thru day

Osteo: worse thru the day

83
Q

Where is RA rarely seen in the back? where is it more commonly seen?

A

Rare: lumbar/thoracic

common: cervical

84
Q

In RA, how do we decrease swelling in the TMJ?

A

therapy

Wont drain dt increase risk of infection

85
Q

What is Atlantoaxial subluxation? What disorders is this seen in?

A

Odontoid process protrudes into the foramen magnum –> cord/art compression –> stroke s/s

RA
Downs syndrome

86
Q

What is the difference between acute and chronic Cricoarytenoid arthritis in RA? What considerations should I have with this?

A

Acute: hoarseness; dyspnea; stridor; front neck tenderness/pain over larynx; swelling/redness over arytenoids –> high risk of vocal cord, injury, or loss of airway after extubation

Chronic: asymptomatic or variable degree of hoarseness; dyspnea; upper airway obstruction

87
Q

T/F: In RA, Subluxation of other cervical vertebrae can occur.

A

T

Causes migraines, dizziness, vertigo, tinnitus, ringing in the ears, neck, pain without movement

88
Q

What is RA vasculitis?

A

antigen antibody complex–> blood vessels inflammed –> organ/tissue damage

89
Q

How does RA present?

A

Sinlge/multiple joints
-painful synovial inflammation –> can be drained
-morning stiffness
-symmetrical distribution of several joints
-furisform swelling
-synovitis temporomandibular joint (TMJ) –> swelling in TMJ but won’t drain dt increase risk of infection –> therapy to increase lymphatics to decrease inflammation

90
Q

What are Rheumatoid nodules?

A

Nodules that develope with RA in the lunds that resemble TB or cancer on CXR

can occlude alveoli on bronchi when bigger

91
Q

Sjogren Syndrom (Keratoconjunctivitis sicca and xerostomia) is associated with ________

92
Q

In RA, you have a ________ in clotting.

A

increase in clotting

93
Q

What is the Tx of RA?

A

NSAIDs –> decrease joint swelling/pain

Corticosteroids –> decreased joint swelling/ pain/ morning stiffness

DMARDs (disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs): Methotrexate: lots of SE

Tumor necrosis factor (TNF-alpha) inhibitors: lots of SE

Interleukin (IL-1) inhibitors: slower onset/ less effective; work better than Methotrexate

Surgery

94
Q

What is the DMARDs we give for RA?

A

Methotrexate

95
Q

What are anesthesia management considerations for RA?

A

Airway: Atlantoaxial subluxation, TMJ limitation, cricoarytenoid joint –> use Videolaryngoscopy –> dont need to extend neck as much

-severe rheumatoid lung disease
-protect eyes
-stress dose

96
Q

SLE =

A

Systemic lupus Erythematosus

97
Q

Who is Lupus more common in?

A

African-American females age 15 to 40

98
Q

What is lupus?

A

Multisystem chronic inflammatory caused by anti-nuclear antibody production

99
Q

What is the main presentation of Lupus?

A

Malar (butterfly) rash

100
Q

What causes drug induced lupus?

A

Slow acetylators:
Isoniazid
D-Penacillamine
Alpha-methyldopa

Increase risk of drug induced lupus dt slow metabolism of drugs

101
Q

Lupus is difficult to manage in __________-

102
Q

What are s/s of lupus?

A

Polyarthritis/dermatitis
-symmetrical arthritis
-Increase risk avascular necrosis of femoral head or condyle
CNS: Cognitive/Psych changes
CV: Pericarditis, CAD, Raynauds
Pulm: Lupus PNA; restrictive lung disease; vanishing lung syndrome
Renal: Glumerulonephritis, decreased GFR
GI: Abd pain
Liver: pancreatitis, elevated liver enzymes
NM: skeletal muscle weakness
Blood: thromboembolism, thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia
Skin: malar rash, discoid lesions, alopecia

103
Q

Does Lupus usually have spinal involvement? What affect does this have?

A

No spinal involvement –> no airway involvement

104
Q

Which MSD has increased risk of avascular necrosis?

105
Q

In lupus, what are the cog/psych changes dt?

A

Mostly insecurities regarding skin presentation

106
Q

What is vanishing lung syndrome? What MSD is this associated with?

A

Diaphragm moving up into chest –> lung disappears

Lupus

107
Q

How does lupus and pneumonia present? What consideration should I have with this?

A

Pulmonary infiltrates –> pleural effusions –> nonproductive cough –> severe difficulty breathing

Be cautious w/ lupus presenting with pulm s/s dt this & restrictive lung disease component

108
Q

What are s/s a pericarditis?

A

CP
Friction rub
ST elevation in all leads
Pericardial effusion

109
Q

Death during Lupus may be dt _________ and is accelerated by Tx of Lupus with _________

A

Coronary atherosclerosis

corticosteroids

110
Q

Lupus is associated with _______ anemia

111
Q

Which NMD has the least effect on skeletal muscle weakness?

112
Q

What are discoid lesions? What do you see them in?

A

Thick disc shaped lesion; red/scaly; mostly seen on scalp/face –> causes permanent scarring; NOT itchy/painful

113
Q

With lupus you’ll see __________ in areas exposed to sunlight. What does this look like?

A

erythematous rash

Measles

114
Q

What is the Tx for Lupus?

A

NSAIDs
ASA
Antimalarial: Hydroxychloroquine; quinacrine
Steroids
Immunosuppressants: Methotrexate; azathioprine

115
Q

For Lupus, ____________ is better than high dose steroids

A

Immunosuppressants

116
Q

What is the anesthesia management considerations for lupus?

A

Airway: recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy; cricoarytenoid arthritis –> use videolayrngoscpoe

Stress dose

117
Q

What gene is mutated in MH? What is this in?

A

RYR1 gene

Ryanodine receptor & Dihydropyridine receptor

118
Q

What is MH?

A

Hypermetabolic syndrome characterized by uncontrolled elevation in sarcoplasmic Ca++ –> sustained muscle contractions/rigidity –> rhabdomyolysis

119
Q

MH has a _____% mortality rate

120
Q

What causes MH?

A

exposure to volatile anesthetics and succs

121
Q

If the pt is intubated, what is a main concern with MH?

A

biting down on ET tube and cutting off O2 flow

122
Q

T/F: MH only happens periop

A

F

Can happen many hours postop

123
Q

________ increases the risk of MH

124
Q

What are the non-triggering agents “safe drugs” for MH?

A

Barbiturates
Propofol
Etomidate
Benzos
Opioids
Droperidol
Nitrous oxide
Nondepolarizing muscle relaxant
Anticholinesterases
Anticholinergics
Sympathomimetics
Local anesthetics
Alpha-2 agonist (precedex, clonidine)

125
Q

What are the early s/s of MH?

A

Hypercarbia
Tachypnea
Sinus tach
Masseter muscle spasm
General muscular rigidity
Peak T waves
Metabolic/respiratory acidosis

126
Q

What are the late s/s of MH?

A

Hyperthermia
Coca-Cola urine –> rhabdo
Elevated CPK
Cardiac arrhythmias –> VT/VF
ARF –> CRRT
Cardiovascular collapse
DIC

127
Q

What is Masseter Spasm?

A

When succs is used –> spasms of muscles responsible for chewing

128
Q

What is Tx for MH?

A

CALL FOR HELP
-D/C all triggering agents
-Dantrolene
-Disconnect from machine –> Bag with hand 100% O2
-Get a new anesthesia machine –> hook pt up
——-Old machine needs to be completely cleaned out. vaporizers taken off; flushed with O2 for 15-20 mins; Changed breathing circuit & soda lime
-Give large amounts of crystalloids –> flush kidneys
-Bicarb –> acidosis/increased K
-Ca++ –> increased K
-Insulin & glucose –> increased K
-COOL THE PT ANY WAY POSSIBLE
-treat arrhythmia
-monitor UO

129
Q

What is the dose for dantrolene? How do you reconstitute dantrolene?

A

Dose
Initial: 2.5 mg/kg
max: 10 mg/kg

Reconstitute: 20mg dantrolene + 3 g mannitol in 60 cc sterile water

130
Q

How long should MH pt be expected to stay in ICU?

A

24-48 hours

131
Q

How do you test for MH?

A

Muscle biopsy contracture test:

biopsy –> expose to halothane & caffeine –> measures contraction