Liver Flashcards

test 3

1
Q

The liver is divided into ____ segments

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the functions of the liver?

A

-synthesize glucose via gluconeogenesis
-stores glucose as glycogen
-synthesize cholesterol and proteins into hormones and vitamins
-metabolize, fat, protein, carbs to generate energy
-metabolizes drugs via CYP – 450 and other enzyme pathways
-detoxifies blood
-involved in acute phase of immune support
-processes hgb and stores iron
-synthesize coagulation factors (except F III, IV, VIII, vWF)
-aids in volume control as blood reservoir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

T/F: almost every organ is impacted by the liver & and liver dysfunction can lead to MOSF

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which side of the liver is bigger?

A

R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What separates the R & L lobes of the liver?

A

Falciform Ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: The liver has 4 blood supplies and each segment shares a blood supply and a bile drainage

A

F

Each segment has its own blood supply & bile drainage (8)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What supplies blood to the liver?

A

Portal vein
hepatic artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ hepatic veins empty into _____. What are they?

A

3

IVC

R; middle; L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does bile drain?

A

Hepatic ducts –> gall bladder –> common bile duct –> ampulla of vater –> duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The ______ connects the Pancreas & gallbladder. This leads to the ________

A

Ampulla of Vater

Duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What happens in the duodenum?

A

Bile flows here and breaks down fatty acids for digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The liver receives ___% of CO which is about _____ L/min

A

25%

1.25 - 1.5 L/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

T/F: the liver has the highest proportionate of CO of all organs

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The Portal vein rises from what veins?

A

Splanchnic vein
Superior mesenteric vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Portal vein blood is partially __________. Why?

A

Deoxygenated

Has to perfuse G.I. organs, pancreas, spleen first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The hepatic artery branches off of what?

A

The aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The portal vein provides ___% of HBF and the hepatic artery provide provides ___% of HBF. How much O2 delivery does each vein provide?

A

75%

25%

Both provide 50% equally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hepatic artery blood flow is _____ related to portal vein blood flow. What is the MOA behind this?

A

Inversely

if one decreases the other increases

Autoregulation: hepatic artery will dilate in response to low portal venous flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is portal Venus pressure a reflection of?

A

Splanchnic arterial tone
intraheptatic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What happens if there is increased portal Venus pressure? What causes this?

A

Blood back up into systemic circulation –> esophageal/gastric varices

causes: Cirrhosis or sclerosis of liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the hepatic venous pressure gradient values used to determine portal hypertension?

A

HVPG 1-5 mmHg: normal

> 10: clinically significant portal, hypertension

> 12: Variceal rupture
(Emergency; need banding; can result in death)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F: liver symptoms often show very early

A

F

Often asymptomatic until late stage liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

We heavily rely on ______ for degree of suspicion with liver disease

A

Risk factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are risk factors for liver disease?

A

-Family hx
-heavy ETOH
-high risk lifestyle
-DM
-obesity
-illicit drug use
-multiple sex partner
-DIY tattoos
-blood transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the presentations on a physical exam for liver disease?

A

-pruitis (dt increased bilirubin)
-jaundice
-ascites
-asterixis (flapping tremor)
-Hepatomegaly
-Splenomegaly
-Spider nevi (little vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are our best lab indicators for liver dysfunction? Which is most liver specific?

A

AST - Aspartate aminotransferase

ALT - Alanine aminotransferase <– more liver specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What labs do you need for liver function?

A

-BMP
-CBC
-PT/INR
-AST
-ALT
-Bilirubin
-alkaline phosphatase
-GGT - y-glutamyl-transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What type of imaging can you use to Dx liver disease?

A

-US
-Doppler (Portal blood flow)
-CT
-MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What labs are affected in hepatocellular injury? Differentiate between ALF/ ALD/ NAFLD

A

-increased AST/ALT

Acute liver failure (ALF): elevated 25x

Alcoholic liver disease (ALD): AST: ALT ratio at least 2:1 (both elevated)

Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD): 1:1 with both elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What labs are affected in reduced synthetic function?

A

Decreased albumin

Increased PT/INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What labs are affected in cholestasis?

A

Increased Alk phosphatase, GGT, bilirubin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Cholestasis?

A

Sluggish/lack of bile flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

______ is the ONLY pathology that has elevated unconjugated bilirubin

A

Bilirubin overload dt hemolysis

ALL OTHERS ARE CONJUGATED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe Cholelithiasis: Risk factors; S/S; Tx

A

Gallstones: hinders flow of bile to small intestines –> can’t break down fatty acids

Risk factors: obesity; increased cholesterol; DM; pregnancy; female; family hx

S/S: RUQ pain referred to shoulders; N/V; indigestion; fever

Tx: IVF, Abx, pain management
lap chole (last resort)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

____% of Cholelithiasis is asymptomatic

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

______ releases bile during meals & ______ release his bile continuously into the duodenum

A

Gallbladder

Common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The _______ technique is the most common now for Lap Chole

A

Laproscopic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe Choledocolithiasis: Risk factors; S/S; Tx

A

Stones constructing common bile duct –> causing bile to reflux (biliary colic)

Risk factors: obesity; increased cholesterol; DM; pregnancy; female; family hx

S/S: N/V; cramping; RUQ pain; fever; rigors; jaundice

Tx: endoscopic removal of stone via ERCP (endoscopic retrograde Cholangiopancreatography)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe the procedure of ERCP

A

To remove a stone obstructing CBD (Choledocolithiasis)

Guide wire through Sphincter of odds –> ampulla of vater –> to get stone from pancreatic duct/CBD

Pt position: prone w/ left tilt
ETT taped to L
Surgeon puts tube down R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

______ helps prevent Oddi spasm. What is the dose for this?

A

Glucagon

1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is bilirubin? Unconjugated? Conjugated?

A

End product of heme-breakdown

Unconjugated (indirect): Protein bound to albumin –> transported to liver –> conjugated into water soluble, conjugated (direct) form –> excreted into bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the difference between unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?

A

unconjugated: imbalance of bilirubin synthesis & conjugation

conjugated: obstruction, causing reflux of conjugated bilirubin into circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the five types of hepatitis? Which types are more chronic?

A

A, B, C, D, E

B & C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The decline in hepatitis is due to what?

A

Vaccines and new treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

_____ is the most common viral hepatitis requiring liver transplant

A

HCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Treatment of HCV is 75% based on genotype _____. What is the treatment for this?

A

Type 1

Tx: Sofosbuvir/Velpatasvir (antiviral)
12 week course provides 98-99% clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Common symptoms for hepatitis include:

A

-fatigue
-jaundice
-N/V
-loss of appetite
-bleeding/bruising
-dark urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which type of hepatitis can be spread by percutaneous and sexual contact?

A

B & C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

in HCV, ____% of people develop chronic liver disease

50
Q

In Hep B, ___% of adults and ____% of children developed chronic liver disease

A

1-5%

80-90%

51
Q

Which types of hepatitis can be spread through fecal and water?

52
Q

What is the most common cause of cirrhosis and liver transplant?

A

Alcoholic liver disease (ALD)

53
Q

With ALD, if your platelets drop below _________ it requires a blood transfusion

54
Q

What are symptoms of ALD?

A

-malnutrition
-muscle wasting
-parotid gland hypertrophy
-jaundice
-thrombocytopenia
-ascities
-hepatosplenomegaly
-pedal edema
-withdrawl

55
Q

With ALD, withdraw normally occurs ______ after stopping drinking

A

24 - 72 hrs

56
Q

What are the lab values with ALD?

A

-Increase MCV (mean corpuscular volume)
-increase liver enzymes
-increase GGT
-increase Bilirubin
-increase blood ethanol

57
Q

describe non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD): Rx; Dx; Tx

A

Hepatocytes contain >5% fat

Risk factors: obesity; insulin; DM2; metabolic syndrome

Dx: imaging; liver biopsy (gold standard)

Tx: diet and exercise
Liver transplant for advancement to cirrhosis/fibrosis

58
Q

_______ have NAFLD regardless of weight

A

1/4 or 25%

59
Q

What are the stages of NAFLD?

A

NAFL –> Non-alcoholic Steatohepatitis (NASH) –> Liver Fibrosis –> Cirrhosis

60
Q

What are the stages of AFLD?

A

AFLD –> Alcoholic hepatitis –> cirrhosis

61
Q

Describe Autoimmune Hepatitis: S/S; Dx; Tx

A

Not fully understood

S/S: a asymptomatic, chronic, or acute

Dx: (+) autoantibodies;
hypergammaglbulinemia
AST/ALT 10-20x normal

Tx: steroids
Azathioprine (immunosuppressant)
Liver transplant

62
Q

Autoimmune Hepatitis primarily affects _______

63
Q

T/F: With autoimmune hepatits 60-80% achieve remission but relapse is common

A

T

May need transplant

64
Q

Most common drug induced liver injury is caused by ________

A

Acetaminophen OD

65
Q

What are the 3 specific genetic disorders regarding metabolism w/ the liver? Describe onset and mortality

A

-Wilson’s disease
-alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency
-hemochromatosis

Onset: varies from birth to teen

Most severe forms are in neonatal period
High mortality

66
Q

Liver genetic disorders regarding metabolism occur is _______ births

67
Q

Wilsons Disease is also called _________ and is an _________ genetic disease. What is it characterized by?

A

Hepatolenticular degeneration

Autosomal recessive

Impaired copper metabolism

68
Q

Describe Wilsons Disease: S/S; Dx; Tx

A

Impaired copper metabolism –> copper build up –> oxidative stress to liver, basal ganglia, cornea

S/S: asymptomatic
Sudden onset liver failure
Neurologic manifestations
Psychiatric manifestations

Dx: lab test (elevated serum ceruliplasmin, aminotransferases, urine copper)
Liver biopsy

Tx: Copper-chelation therapy
PO Zinc (binds to copper in GI tract)

69
Q

Describe Alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency: Dx; Tx

A

Genetic disorder resulting in defective alpha-1 Antitrypsin protein

Dx: alpha-1 Antitrypsin phenotyping

Tx: pooled alpha-1 Antitrypsin effective for pulm symptoms
Liver transplant is the only cure

70
Q

alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency protects the liver/lungs from __________. What does this do?

A

Neutrophil elastase

enzyme that disrupts lung/liver tissue

71
Q

alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency incidence is _______

A

1:16,000 to 1:35,000

Likely under diagnosed

72
Q

What is the #1 genetic cause of liver transplant in children?

A

alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency

73
Q

T/F: Liver transplant is the only cure in alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency

74
Q

Describe Hemochromatosis: S/S; Dx; Tx

A

Excessive intestinal absorption of iron –> iron accumulates in organs –> damages tissues
-genetic or caused by excessive blood/iron transfusion

S/S: cirrhosis
-HF
-DM
-adrenal insufficiency
-polyarthropathy

Dx: genetic mutation testing
Echo
MRI
Liver biopsy

Tx: weekly phlebotomy
Iron-chelatin drugs
Liver transplant

75
Q

Describe Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis (PSC): S/S; Dx; Tx

A

Autoimmune, chronic inflammation of larger bile ducts of biliary tree
-intra/extrahepatic
-Fibrosis of biliary tree –> stictures –> cirrhosis –> ESLD

S/S: fatigue
-itching
-deficiency of fat soluble vitamins (A., D, E, K)
-cirrhosis

Dx: MRCP
-ERCP
-liver biopsy

Tx: no drug treatment are effective
liver transplant, only long-term Tx
REOCCURENCE IS COMMON AFTER TRANSPLANT

76
Q

What is a hallmark symptom of Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis?

A

strictures or beads on string appearance on biliary tree

77
Q

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis is more common ins ______ and has an onset of _____

A

Males

about 40 yo

78
Q

T/F: With Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis, Tranplant is final tx

A

F

Reoccurence is common even after transplant

This is a lifeling problem.

79
Q

Describe Primary Biliary Cholangitis (PSC): causes; S/S; Dx; Tx

A

Auto immune destruction of bile ducts with periportal inflammation & cholestasis
-can lead to liver scarring, fibrosis, cirrhosis

Causes: exposure to environmental toxins and genetically susceptible individuals

S/S: jaundice
-fatigue
-itching

Dx: increase Alk Phos, GGT
(+) antimitochondrial antibodies
Imaging (CT, MRI, MRCP, US)
Liver biopsy

Tx: no cure
Exogenous bile acids can slow production

80
Q

Primary Biliary Cholangitis was previously known as _______

A

biliary cirrhosis

81
Q

Primary Biliary Cholangitis is more common in _____ an occurs in _____ ages

A

Women

Middle ages

82
Q

What is the difference between Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis & Primary Biliary Cholangitis?

A

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis: Stictures: bead like structures on biliary tree
intra/extrahepatic

Primary Biliary Cholangitis: small ducts
intrahepatic only

83
Q

Describe Acute liver failure: causes; S/S; Dx; Tx

A

Life-threatening severe liver injury
Occurs within days to 6 month after insult
-massive heptacyte necrosis –> cellular swelling –> membrane disruption in liver

causes: 50% drug induced (most acetaminophen)
-Viral hepatitis
-auto immune
-hypoxia
-ALF of pregnancy
-HELLP

S/S: jaundice
-nausea
-RUQ pain
-cerebral edema
-encephalopathy
-multiorgan failure
-death

Tx: treat cause
Supportive care
Liver transplant

84
Q

What is the final stage of liver disease? What is it exactly?

A

Cirrhosis

Normal liver parenchyma replaced with/ scar tissue

85
Q

Describe cirrhosis: causes; S/S; Dx; Tx

A

Final stage of liver disease
Liver covered with scar tissue

Causes: ALD
NAFL
HCV
HBV

S/S: jaundice
-ascities
-varices
-coagulopathy
-encephalopathy
-lack of body hair
-muscle wasting
-red palms
-widened blood vessels
-spider angioma

Dx: elevated AST, ALT, Bilirubin, Alk phos, PT/INR
Thrombocytopenia

Tx: transplant is only cure

86
Q

What are cirrhosis complications? (8)

A

Bacterial Peritonitis
Hepatic Encephalopathy
Ascities
Varices
Hepatorenal syndrome
Hepatopulmonary syndrome
Portal HTN
Portopulmonary HTN

87
Q

what is the TIPS procedure?

A

Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt: reduces portal HTN & ascities

Stent/graft placed between hepatic vein & portal vein –> shunts portal flow to systemic circulation

88
Q

Describe Bacterial Peritonitis

A

Complication of cirrhosis
infection in ascities and fluid
Requires abx

89
Q

Describe Hepatic Encephalopathy

A

Complication of cirrhosis
Dt nitrogen buildup –> Neuropsych symptoms

Tx: lactulose; rifaximin

90
Q

Describe Ascities

A

most common complication of cirrhosis
Portal HTN –> increase blood volume –> peritoneal fluid accumulation

Management: decrease salt intake; replace albumin
TIPS procedure

91
Q

Describe Varices

A

Complication of cirrhosis
In 50% of cirrhosis pts

Hemorrhage is most lethal complication

BB reduce risk
Tx: prophylactic endoscopic variceal banding & ligation
Balloon tamponade

92
Q

Describe Hepatorenal syndrome

A

Complication of cirrhosis
excessive production of endogenous, vasodilators (NO, PG) –> decrease RBF

Tx: Midodrine; Octreotide; Albumin

93
Q

Describe Hepatopulmonary syndrome

A

Complication of cirrhosis
Triad of chronic liver disease, hypoxemia, intrapulmonary vascular dilation

S/S: Platypnea: hypoxemia when upright dt R to L intrapulmonary shunt

94
Q

Describe Portal HTN

A

Complication of cirrhosis
HVPG >5

95
Q

Describe Portopulmonary HTN

A

Pulmonary HTN accompanied by portal HTN
Systemic vasodilation –> pulmonary vasoconstriction

Tx: phosphodiesterase inhibitors
-NO
-prostacyclin analogs
-endothelin receptor antagonist
—–Drugs only manage symptoms—–
Transplant is only cure

96
Q

What are the two scoring assistance to determine severity and prognosis of liver disease? What does the score indicate?

A

Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP)
Model for in stage liver disease (MELD)

Increase score = increase mortality

97
Q

Liver disease algorithm:

A

No cirrhosis? –> OR
MELD < 10 or Child class A –> OR

MELD 10-15 or Child class B –> No portal HTN? –> OR with careful peri/postop monitoring
Yes portal HTN –> Consider TIPS; discuss how to optimize before OR; cancel if elective until TIPS

MELD > 16 or Child class C –> alt to Sx & workup for transplant unless emergent

98
Q

Alcoholism ______ MAC of volatile anesthetics

99
Q

Succs & Cisatracurium are metabolized in the ________. Are they good for liver disease pts?

A

Plasma

Yes. not metabolized by liver

100
Q

What types of fluids are preferred with liver disease in resuscitation?

A

Natural colloids
Ex. albumin.

Not crystalloids
Not synthetic colloids

101
Q

What does liver disease put you more at risk for?

A

Aspiration
Hypotension
Hypoxemia

102
Q

T/F: plasma cholinesterase maybe decrease in severe liver disease.

A

T

this can effect drugs that are metabolized in the plasma

103
Q

What are contras to TIPS procedure?

A

HF
Tricuspid regurg
Severe pulm HTN

104
Q

What are indications to TIPS procedure?

A

Refractory Varices hemorrhage
Refractory ascities

105
Q

Up to _____% removal is tolerated in pt for a partial hepatectomy w/ normal liver function

106
Q

What are anesthesia considerations we should have with a partial hepatectomy?

A

-invasive monitoring
-available blood products
-adequate vascular access for blood/pressors

107
Q

With a partial hepatectomy, the surgeon may clamp ______ or _______ to control blood loss

A

IVC

Hepatic artery

108
Q

With a partial hepatectomy, standard practice is to maintain _____ CVP by _______. What does this do?

A

Low

Fluid restriction

Helps to reduce blood loss

109
Q

partial hepatectomy Pts require a postop ______ because this is a very painful procedure

110
Q

What are the most common indications for liver transplant?

A

ALD > fatty liver > HCC (cancer)
In this order

111
Q

what is the definitive treatment for ESLD?

A

Liver transplant

112
Q

For a liver transplant with a living donor, how are the surgeries timed?

A

Both surgeries have to be timed together –> minimal ischemic time

113
Q

T/F: The Liver is similar to the heart and kidney and cells dont regenerate

A

F

A portion of the liver can be donated and actually regenerate close to its normal size before donation.

114
Q

What things do we need to keep pt hemodynamically stable during liver transplant with brain dead donors?

A

A line
CVC
PA cath
TEE

115
Q

What are anesthesia considerations for liver transplant preop?

A

Preop eval
Vascular access
Blood product availability

116
Q

What are anesthesia considerations for liver transplant dissection?

A

Hemodynamic compromise
Hemorrhage
Decreased to Venus return

117
Q

What are anesthesia considerations for liver transplant anhepatic?

A

Hemodynamic compromise from IVC clamping
Metabolic acidosis
Hypocalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypothermia
Hypoglycemia

118
Q

What are anesthesia considerations for liver transplant reperfusion?

A

Hemodynamic instability
Dysrhythmias
Hyperkalemia
Acidosis
PE
Cardiac arrest

119
Q

What are anesthesia considerations for liver transplant post transplant?

A

ICU admission
Early/late extubation
Hemodynamic management

120
Q

T/F: the liver is the largest internal organ in the body