Ischemia Heart Disease 2/20 Flashcards

Test 2

1
Q

IHD =

A

Ischemic heart disease

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2
Q

____% of Sx pts are at increased risk for IHD

A

30%

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3
Q

What are the 2 most important risk factors for developing IHD or atherosclerosis involvinf the coronaries?

A

Male gender
Increasing age

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4
Q

What are the first manifestations of IHD?

A

Angina pectoris
Acute MI
sudden death

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5
Q

What are things that can result in sudden death?

A

CAD
overdose
cardiomyopathy

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6
Q

Stable angina is also known as _________

A

Angina Pectoris

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7
Q

Stable angina is relieved by _______

A

rest

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8
Q

Stable angina is an imbalance between what?

A

Decreased coronary blood flow & increased myocardial O2 demand

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9
Q

Stable angina is ______ occlusion/narrowing w ____% being affected

A

partial

> 70%

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10
Q

What mediators are released with stable angina?

A

adenosine & bradykinin

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11
Q

stable angina affects the _______ sympathetic ganglia

A

T1 - T5

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12
Q

What type of CV changes are expected in stable angina? Why?

A

Increased risk for bradyarrhymthias

Decreased HR and contractility

Decreased flow thru coronaries –> decreased flow AV nodes –> decreased contractility and HR

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13
Q

_________ is the most common cause of impaired coronary blood flow resulting in angina pectoris

A

atherosclerosis

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14
Q

What are populations that you may see weird presentation with CP in?

A

DM
female gender

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15
Q

Where does retrosternal CP often radiate to?

A

dermatomes from C8 to T4

Which can then radiate to:
neck
left shoulder/arm
jaw
back
down both arms

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16
Q

T/F: Cold weather can induce angina

A

T

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17
Q

Differentiate between Chronic stable, unstable, and new onset angina

A

Chronic: No change in severity/frequency
> 2 months

Unstable: Increasing severity/frequency
-no change in cardiac biomarkers

New onset: Severe, prolonged, disabling

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18
Q

What can cause chronic stable angina?

A

distal occlusion

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19
Q

If CP is increasing in frequency/severity w increase in cardiac biomarkers WITHOUT EKG changes then…

A

NSTEMI

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20
Q

T/F: ECHO is useful in patients with confirmed AMI Dx

A

F

Only needed when Dx is uncertain with abnormal EKG

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21
Q

Your T wave is _____ from previous MI. What happens to it during a reccurent MI? What is this called?

A

inverted

If having another MI, T wave may go back to upright position

Pseudinormalization of T wave

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22
Q

Exercise ECG is ______ sensitive/specific than nuclear/chemical cardiology techniques

A

less (75%)

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23
Q

What is the most thorough/greater sensitivity test for coronary perfusion or IHD? What does it assess?

A

Nuclear (Chemical) stress imaging

Exercise or cardiac stress is produced by administration of: atropine, dobutamine, pacing, adenosine, dipyridamole –> radionunuclide tracer scanning is performed to asses myocardial perfusion.

Helps to also figure old vs new MI problems
-estimates LV size/function

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24
Q

What is the gold standard for assessing the coronaries?

A

Coronary angiography

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25
Q

Describe Prinzmetal-Variant angina. What trigges this?

A

A sudden, temporary spasm or narrowing of a small part of a coronary artery causing CP & an episode of ST elevation

triggers: cold
cocaine

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26
Q

What are AMI often a result from?

A

plaque rupture from a coronary artery that was less than 50% stenosed

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27
Q

Losing 10% of body wt decreases risk of ACS/IHD by ______%

A

50%

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28
Q

Statins are used when LDL cholesterol levels are ______. What are the reduction goals?

A

> 160 mg/dL

goals: >50% reduction or <70 mg/dL

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29
Q

All suspected or definite AMI patient should receive _____

A

ASA

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30
Q

If you have an allergy to ASA, what should you take? MOA? Describe them

A

P2Y12 inhibitors: clopidogrel
prasugrel
ticagrelor

MOA: inhibit ADP receptor and platelet aggregation
-irreversible
-pro drug

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31
Q

With drug therapy, what is more effective than ASA? What is the MOA?

A

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist: abciximab
eptifibatide
tirofiban

MOA: inhibit, platelet activation, adhesion and aggregation

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32
Q

What drugs reduce the effectiveness of clopidogrel (P2Y12 inhibitors)?

A

PPI

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33
Q

What is special about the response you can have to clopidogrel?

A

You can have a hypo or hyper response –> need platelet function panel to evaluate this –> will tell you how to treat if bleeding occurs

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34
Q

When is Effient used? Why?

A

This is an anti-platelet used with ACS/IHD with a higher risk of bleeding
Very predictable

Usually used in short term in Cath Lab, where patient can be monitored closely

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35
Q

How does organic nitrates effect the CVS?

A

Decreases angina
Increases amount of exercise required to produce ST depression

-reduces L vent afterload
-reduces myocardial O2 demand
-reduces Venus return/preload

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36
Q

nitrates ________ antithrombotic effects

A

increases

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37
Q

What is the only type of medication that increases life span if you have CAD?

38
Q

Propanolol and nadolol are _________ agonist

39
Q

What does literature support about beta blockers during periop?

A

Continue them or give them something else during Sx

40
Q

What are the differences between esmolol, metoprolol, & labetolol?

A

esmolol: controls HR – less effect on contractility

Metoprolol: More effect on contractility – less on HR

Labetolol: affects both HR & contractility equally

41
Q

What is the 2nd line therapy when pt doesnt response to BB in IHD?

42
Q

_______ reduces motality in any surgery!!!!!

43
Q

During revascularizaton, when would you want to do CABG over PCI? What are other CABG indications?

A

failure of medical therapy
-50% L main coronary art occluded
-70% epicardial coronary art occluded
-EF <40%
-3 vessel coronary art disease
-DM w 2 or 3 vessel coronary art disease

Indications: coronary anatomy
-failed PCI
-infarct-related septal rupture
-mitral regurg
-multiple stents present

44
Q

What chemical mediators could be the causes of Thrombogenesis in a STEMI?

A

Collagen
ADP
epinephrine
serotonin
Thromboxane A2
Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors
Fibrin deposits

45
Q

We give ______ to decrease vasospasms in STEMI

46
Q

How do you Dx a STEMI?

A

Cardiac biomarkers and 1 of the following:

-ST/T changes
-New onset L BBB
-New pathologic Q waves
-New loss of viable myocardium
-wall motion abnormality
-thrombus identification by angiography/autopsy

47
Q

Changes in angina may happen _____ before an AMI

48
Q

Whats the difference between troponin and CK-MB?

A

CK-MB is not cardiac specific – just indicated muscle injury

troponin is cardiac specific

49
Q

You’ll see an increase in cardiac markers within _______ after my cardio injury. They stay elevated for _______

A

3 hours

7 - 10 days

50
Q

With MONA, what other things can we use to replace the M? What benefits do they carry?

A

M = morphine

Can use fentanyl or toradol

Both dont have major effects on BP which can further worsen ischemia by increasing demand of heart like morphine.

Toradol also has anti platelet affects (still give ASA tho)

51
Q

What is the goal of MONA?

A

reduce catecholamine release because that increase myocardial O2 demand (which is bad)

52
Q

What drugs do we use for thombolytic therapy?

A

tPa
Streptokinase
reteplase
tenecteplase

53
Q

When should thrombolytic therapy be initiated?

A

within 30-60 mins of arrival to hospital

within 12 hours of symptom onset

54
Q

What are indications to PCI/stents?

A

thrombolytic therapy contraindication
-severe HF
-pulmonary edema
-Symptoms for 2 -3 hrs –> mature clot

55
Q

When should PCI be initiated?

A

within 90 mins of arrival to hospital

within 12 hours of symptom onset

56
Q

T/F: Anemia increases metabolic demand of the heart

A

T

This worsens/causes myocardial ischemia

57
Q

Thrombolytics are for _______ only

58
Q

What are the risks with PCI/stents?

A

Thrombosis – can temp worsen ischemia
Bleeding – from vessel rupture

59
Q

What is DAPT? What is the relevance of this?

A

Dual Antiplatelet Therapy

ASA w P2Y12 inhibitor like clopidogrel after any cardiac Sx, PCI/stent

60
Q

___________ discontinuation is the most significant independent predictor of stent thrombosis

A

P2Y12 inhibitor

61
Q

What are the d/c time frames for P2Y12 inhibitors?

A

Clopidogrel/ticagrelor: 5-7 days
Prasugrel: 7-10 days
Ticlopidine: 10 days

62
Q

When can we do an operation after PCI for angioplasty w/o stunting?

A

2 - 4 weeks

63
Q

When can we do an operation after PCI for Bare-metal stent placement?

A

At least 30 days

12 weeks preferred

64
Q

When can we do an operation after PCI for coronary artery bypass grafting?

A

At least 6 weeks

12 weeks preferred

65
Q

When can we do an operation after PCI for drug eluding stent placement?

A

At least 6 months

At least 12 months after ACS

66
Q

What does a carotid bruit indicate?

A

cerebrovascular disease

67
Q

What medications should we continue with ACS?

A

BB
A2 agonists
Statins

68
Q

What medication should I give with BB to combat drop on HR? What is the dose for this?

A

Glycopyrrolate

0.8 mg

69
Q

You give ________ with Neostigmine. What are the doses? Peds?

A

Glycopyrrolate: 0.8 mg

Neostigmine: 5 mg

Peds: 1:1 ratio

70
Q

We give ______ for refractory hypotension

A

vasopressin

71
Q

D/c of BB during postop can cause _________

A

rebound HTN & tachycardia

72
Q

Based on the Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI), what components increase risk for major cardiac events after surgery? How do you score this?

A
  1. High risk surgery
  2. ischemic heart disease
  3. Hx of congestive heart failure
  4. Hx of cerebral vascular disease
  5. DM requiring insulin
  6. creatinine greater than 2

Each is worth 1 point

Risk or major cardiac event
0 = 0.4%
1 = 1.0%
2 = 2.4%
3 or more = 5.4%

73
Q

Components of RCRI: High-risk Sx

A

Abdominal aortic aneurysm
-Peripheral vascular operation
-Thoracotomy
-major abdominal operation

74
Q

Components of RCRI: ischemic heart disease

A

Hx of MI
-Hx of positive finding on exercise testing
-current complaints of angina pectoris
-use of nitrate therapy
-presence of Q waves

75
Q

Components of RCRI: congestive heart failure

A

Hx of CHF
-Hx of pulmonary edema
-Hx of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
-physical examination showing rales or S3
-chest radiograph showing pulmonary vascular redistribution

76
Q

Components of RCRI: cerebral vascular disease

A

Hx of stroke
-Hx of transient ischemic attack

77
Q

What does functional capacity do?

A

-Assesses cardiopulmonary fitness
-estimates patient’s risk for a major postop morbidity or mortality
-assesses preoperative risk

78
Q

With functional capacity, what is considered a good METs score?

79
Q

How do we normally test functional capacity?

A

METs score of 5:

Climbing 1 flight of stairs

80
Q

What are the times for urgency of surgeries?

A

Emergent: 30 minutes - 6 hours

Urgent: 6 to 24 hours

Time sensitive: 1 to 6 weeks

81
Q

What is the Preop Cardiac risk assessment algorithm?

A

Sx

Step 2. Active cardiac conditions:
ACS
decompensated HF
significant arrhythmia
severe valvular disease
–> Postpone until eval/Tx

Step 3. Estimate risk using RCRI –> less than 2 –> Sx

Step 4. Assessed functional capacity –> greater than 4 –> Sx

Step 5. Assess whether testing will impact care.

Step 6. Proceed to Sx or consider alternative strategies.

82
Q

When is the ideal time frame for Sx post MI?

83
Q

What is our main anesthesia considerations with ACS/IHD?

A

Keep them as normal as possible!!!!!

84
Q

Increasing O2 requirements has these effects:

A

SNS stimulation –>
Tachycardia
-hypertension
-increase myocardial contractility
-increase afterload/preload

85
Q

Decreasing O2 delivery has these effects:

A

Decreased coronary blood flow
-tachycardia
-hypotension
-hypocapnia
-coronary artery spasm
-decreased oxygen content
-anemia
-arterial hypoxemia
-shift of oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left

86
Q

What causes the oxyhemoglobin dissociation to shift to the left?

A

Decreased oxygen delivery

87
Q

What causes the oxyhemoglobin dissociation to shift to the right?

A

Increased oxygen delivery

88
Q

T/F: Esmolol helps decrease the risk of sympathetic surge during intubation which increases myocardial demand

89
Q

Why are volatile anesthetics beneficial in IHD?

A

decrease myocardial O2 demand

but could be detrimental if they decrease blood pressure

90
Q

In ACS, we want to give ________ for hypotension.

A

Ephedrine - good for low BP & normal HR
-Phenylephrine

91
Q

Why is glycopyrrolate preferred over atropine in ACS in bradycardia?

A

Has much less chronotropic effect & central effect than atropine

92
Q

What are the most common leads for heart monitoring in pts with CAD? What does it look at?

A

Lead II –> R coronary view

V5 –> L coronary view