Musculoskeletal and joint imaging Flashcards

1
Q

Explain the difference between primary and secondary osteoarthritis.

A

Primary osteoarthritis occurs without a known underlying cause and is related to aging and wear-and-tear, while secondary osteoarthritis results from predisposing factors such as trauma, congenital abnormalities, or metabolic conditions.

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2
Q

Describe the radiographic features of aggressive versus non-aggressive bone lesions.

A

Aggressive lesions show permeative or moth-eaten bone destruction, interrupted periosteal reaction (e.g., Codman’s triangle), and soft tissue invasion, while non-aggressive lesions display well-defined borders, solid periosteal reaction, and lack of soft tissue extension.

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3
Q

What are the key MRI sequences used in musculoskeletal imaging and their purposes?

A

T1-weighted images provide detailed anatomical structures and fat signals; T2-weighted images highlight fluid and edema; STIR (Short Tau Inversion Recovery) suppresses fat signals to enhance fluid detection; Gradient Echo (GRE) is used for detecting hemorrhage or calcification.

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4
Q

Describe the pathophysiology and imaging findings of avascular necrosis (AVN).

A

AVN results from compromised blood supply leading to bone cell death. Early MRI findings include double-line signs on T2-weighted images, while late-stage radiographs show subchondral collapse (crescent sign) and sclerosis.

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5
Q

What distinguishes an osteoid osteoma from an osteoblastoma?

A

Osteoid osteoma is a benign bone tumor (<2 cm) with a central nidus surrounded by reactive bone, typically causing night pain relieved by NSAIDs. Osteoblastoma is larger (>2 cm), less painful, and commonly affects the spine.

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6
Q

List and describe the five Salter-Harris fracture types.

A

Type I: Fracture through the physis (growth plate); Type II: Fracture through physis and metaphysis; Type III: Fracture through physis and epiphysis; Type IV: Fracture through all three components; Type V: Crush injury to the physis.

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7
Q

What is the radiological “double density sign”,” and what condition does it indicate?,The double density sign indicates a bony density overlying normal bone, commonly associated with osteoid osteoma due to its central nidus surrounded by sclerotic bone.

A
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8
Q

How does MRI differentiate between acute and chronic osteomyelitis?

A

Acute osteomyelitis shows marrow edema on T2-weighted images with low T1 signals. Chronic osteomyelitis may present with sequestrum (dead bone), involucrum (new bone formation), and sinus tracts.

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9
Q

What is the difference between enchondroma and chondrosarcoma on imaging?

A

Enchondromas are benign, well-defined, with stippled calcifications and no cortical destruction. Chondrosarcomas show aggressive features like cortical erosion, soft tissue extension, and endosteal scalloping.

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10
Q

Describe the three patterns of bone destruction and their clinical significance.

A

Geographic: well-defined and slow-growing; moth-eaten: aggressive with irregular margins; permeative: highly aggressive with multiple small areas of bone destruction.

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11
Q

Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting early bone marrow changes?

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most sensitive for detecting early bone marrow abnormalities such as edema and infiltration.

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12
Q

What are the imaging hallmarks of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

Bamboo spine appearance due to syndesmophyte formation, sacroiliitis with joint space narrowing, and facet joint ankylosis.

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13
Q

Explain the difference between lytic and sclerotic metastases on imaging.

A

Lytic metastases cause bone destruction and radiolucent areas (e.g., lung, thyroid cancer), while sclerotic metastases cause increased bone density and radiopaque lesions (e.g., prostate, breast cancer).

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14
Q

What are the imaging findings of Paget’s disease in different stages?

A

Lytic stage: Osteolysis and “blade of grass” sign; Mixed stage: Cortical thickening and trabecular coarsening; Sclerotic stage: Bone enlargement and ivory vertebrae.

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15
Q

What are the classic radiological signs of osteomyelitis on plain films?

A

Early: Soft tissue swelling and periosteal reaction; Late: Sequestrum (dead bone), involucrum (new bone), and cloaca (draining sinus).

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16
Q

How does Ewing’s sarcoma typically present on imaging?

A

It presents with a permeative or moth-eaten pattern of bone destruction, onion skin periosteal reaction, and soft tissue mass in the diaphysis of long bones.

17
Q

Describe the MRI findings of rotator cuff tears.

A

Full-thickness tears show discontinuity of tendons with fluid in the gap on T2-weighted images, while partial-thickness tears show focal high signal intensity within the tendon.

18
Q

What is a stress fracture

A

and how does it appear on imaging?,A stress fracture is a fatigue-induced fracture due to repetitive mechanical stress. It may initially be occult on plain films but appears as periosteal reaction or sclerosis later; MRI detects early marrow edema.

19
Q

What are the characteristic radiological signs of gouty arthritis?

A

Punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins, overhanging edges, and soft tissue masses due to tophi deposition.

20
Q

What distinguishes a pathologic fracture from a traumatic fracture?

A

A pathologic fracture occurs through weakened bone due to an underlying disease (e.g., metastasis, osteoporosis), while a traumatic fracture results from direct mechanical force on normal bone.