Introduction to MS trauma Flashcards

1
Q

Why is musculoskeletal trauma a major public health concern?

A

It is a leading cause of disability and death, especially in young adults, and can lead to long-term impairment if not managed properly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the key components of a systematic trauma assessment?

A

Primary survey (ABCDE: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure), secondary survey (head-to-toe examination), and ongoing reassessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is compartment syndrome and why is it dangerous?

A

A condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment restricts blood flow, leading to tissue ischemia and necrosis if not treated promptly with fasciotomy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How does a posterior hip dislocation commonly occur?

A

High-energy trauma, such as a dashboard injury in a car accident, forcing the femur posteriorly out of the acetabulum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the clinical signs of a posterior hip dislocation?

A

Leg appears shortened, internally rotated, and adducted with severe pain and inability to move.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Ottawa Ankle Rule and why is it used?

A

A clinical decision tool used to determine the need for X-ray imaging in ankle injuries, reducing unnecessary radiation exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a Monteggia fracture-dislocation?

A

A fracture of the proximal ulna with dislocation of the radial head, commonly caused by a fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between a Colles’ and Smith’s fracture?

A

Colles’ fracture: dorsal displacement of the distal radius (FOOSH injury); Smith’s fracture: volar displacement (fall on flexed wrist).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do you differentiate between a sprain and a ligament tear?

A

A sprain involves mild stretching or partial tearing of ligaments, whereas a complete ligament tear results in significant instability and loss of function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the risks associated with long bone fractures?

A

Hemorrhage, fat embolism syndrome, compartment syndrome, and infection (especially in open fractures).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the pathophysiology of fat embolism syndrome?

A

Fat droplets from marrow enter the bloodstream after long bone fractures, leading to pulmonary and cerebral microvascular occlusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of fat embolism syndrome?

A

Respiratory distress, petechial rash, altered mental status, and fever, typically occurring 24–72 hours post-injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Why is a pelvic fracture considered a life-threatening injury?

A

It can cause massive internal bleeding due to disruption of major pelvic vessels and requires urgent stabilization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the difference between a tension pneumothorax and an open pneumothorax?

A

Tension pneumothorax: air trapped in the pleural space causing increased intrathoracic pressure; Open pneumothorax: air freely enters and exits the pleural cavity through an open chest wound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you manage an open fracture in the emergency setting?

A

Control bleeding, cover the wound with a sterile dressing, immobilize the limb, administer antibiotics and tetanus prophylaxis, and prepare for surgical debridement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the role of external fixation in trauma management?

A

It provides temporary stabilization of fractures, minimizes further soft tissue damage, and allows for wound care before definitive internal fixation.

17
Q

Why is early mobilization important in musculoskeletal trauma patients?

A

Prevents complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pressure ulcers, muscle atrophy, and joint stiffness.

18
Q

How does a scaphoid fracture present, and why is it often missed?

A

Presents with pain in the anatomical snuffbox; missed due to subtle X-ray findings and risk of avascular necrosis.

19
Q

What is Volkmann’s ischemic contracture?

A

A severe complication of compartment syndrome in the forearm, leading to permanent flexion contractures due to ischemic necrosis of muscles.

20
Q

What is the significance of neurovascular assessment in limb trauma?

A

Essential to detect compromised blood supply or nerve function, preventing complications like ischemia or permanent nerve damage.

21
Q

What are the mechanisms and consequences of a crush injury?

A

Prolonged pressure on muscles leads to ischemia, rhabdomyolysis, and potential acute kidney injury due to myoglobin release.

22
Q

What is the typical presentation of an Achilles tendon rupture?

A

Sudden pain in the back of the lower leg, inability to push off the foot, and a positive Thompson test (absence of plantar flexion with calf squeeze).

23
Q

Why are femoral neck fractures common in elderly patients?

A

Osteoporosis and reduced bone density increase the risk of fractures from minor falls.

24
Q

What are the principles of damage control orthopedics (DCO)?

A

Stabilization of life-threatening injuries first, followed by temporary fracture fixation, and definitive repair once the patient is stable.

25
Q

What is the primary concern with open-book pelvic fractures?

A

High risk of severe hemorrhage due to disruption of pelvic ring integrity and damage to major blood vessels.

26
Q

How do you diagnose and manage a knee dislocation?

A

Clinically evident gross deformity, requires immediate reduction and assessment for vascular injury (e.g., popliteal artery damage).

27
Q

What is the most common cause of shoulder dislocation?

A

Anterior dislocation caused by forced abduction and external rotation of the arm.

28
Q

What is a Galeazzi fracture?

A

A fracture of the distal radius with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, requiring surgical fixation.

29
Q

Why is early rehabilitation crucial in musculoskeletal trauma recovery?

A

Enhances functional outcomes, prevents joint stiffness, and reduces long-term disability by promoting muscle strength and mobility.

30
Q

What is rhabdomyolysis and its association with musculoskeletal trauma?

A

A condition caused by muscle breakdown releasing myoglobin, which can lead to acute kidney injury.

31
Q

Why is deep vein thrombosis (DVT) a concern in trauma patients?

A

Immobility and endothelial injury increase clot formation risk, which can lead to life-threatening pulmonary embolism.

32
Q

What are the long-term complications of a nonunion fracture?

A

Persistent pain, deformity, loss of function, and increased risk of secondary fractures.