Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

Diagnostic imaging that can clearly show tumors or abnormalities with never been shown quality.

A

MRI

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2
Q

Diagnostic imaging that is fast and easy, esp. in emergency diagnosis and treatment.

A

Conventional radiography

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3
Q

Cross-sectional display of anatomy which easily

defines the spatial relationships between organs and allows easy comparisons between sides.

A

CT

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4
Q

Compared with radiographs, there is increased contrast

sensitivity allowing better definition of non-bone anatomy. What imaging?

A

CT

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5
Q

More sensitive than MRI in the depiction of soft tissue

gas and small amounts of soft tissue calcium.

A

CT

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6
Q

The specific indication for CT evaluation of a traumatized articulation is

A

the precise assessment of known fracture extent, the determination of fragment location, and the identification of interarticular fragments

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7
Q

Can detect occult fractures and identify associated ligament injuries better than CT.

A

MRI

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8
Q

Examination of choice for delineation of osseous injury demonstrated on plain radiography.

A

CT

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9
Q

In the presence of a known fracture, _______ can precisely determine the relative position of major bone fragments.

A

CT

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10
Q

Intraosseous conditions are better displayed by _____ and it depicts extraarticular soft tissue very well.

A

MRI

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11
Q

When enhanced by the intraarticular administration of iodinated contrast and/or air, can be used to evaluate suspected internal derangement of a joint.

A

CT

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12
Q

Its increased sensitivity gives clearer and sharper images of soft tissues like muscles and tendons or fluids like the cerebrospinal fluid.

A

MRI

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13
Q

This modality is best used in the diagnosis of chronic repetitive injury, work-related injury, inflammation, and infection in soft tissues.

A

Ultrasound

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14
Q

Does cartilage show up on x-rays?

A

No

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15
Q

The only intracapsular ligament pf the hip joint.

A

ligament of head of femur ?

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16
Q

What are the three extracapsular ligaments (hip)? Give the location.

A
  1. iliofemoral - anteriorly
  2. pubofemoral - anteriorly and inferiorly
  3. ischiofemoral - posteriorly
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17
Q

Give the function of the ff extracapsular ligaments (hip)

  1. iliofemoral
  2. pubofemoral
  3. ischiofemoral
A
  1. prevents hyperextension of the hip joint
  2. prevents excessive abduction and extension
  3. prevents excessive extension of the femur at the hip join
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18
Q

What is the vascular supply of the hip joint?

A
  • medial and lateral circumflex,

- artery to the head of femur

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19
Q

Circumflex arteries are branches of what artery?

A

Profunda femoris artery

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20
Q

What medial circumflex is responsible for the majority of the arterial supply?

A

Medial circumflex a.

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21
Q

Where does the lateral circumflex artery penetrate in order to reach the hip joint?

A

iliofemoral ligament

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22
Q

Damage to the medial circumflex femoral artery can result in _______

A

avascular necrosis to the femoral head

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23
Q

Innervations of the hip joint

A

femoral n.
obturator n.
superior gluteal n.
quadratus femoris n.

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24
Q

The 2 hemi-pelvis bones and sacrum form a bone ring bounded posteriorly by?

A

sacroiliac joints

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25
Q

The 2 hemi-pelvis bones and sacrum form a bone ring bounded anteriorly by?

A

pubic symhysis

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26
Q

hemi-pelvis bone comprises:

A

ilium, pubis, ischium

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27
Q

Ilium, pubis, ischium fuse to form _____

A

acetabulum

28
Q

Shenton’s line is formed by?

A

medial edge of the femoral neck and the inferior edge of the superior pubic ramus

29
Q

Loss of contour of Shenton’s line is a sign of?

A

fractured neck of femur

30
Q

Enumerate intracapsular hip injuries

A
  • subcapital
  • transcervical
  • basicervical
31
Q

Enumerate extracapsular/ injuries that does not involve fx of the neck of the femur

A
  • intertrochanteric

- subtrochanteric

32
Q

In the study of the anterior structures, in diagnosing hip fracture using ultrasound the patient should be in the 1. _____ position;
for the medial structure, 2. _____; for the lateral structures, the patient should be in the 3. _____ position; for the posterior structures the patient must be in the 4. _____ position.

A
  1. supine
  2. left should be abducted and rotated outward with the
    knee flexed
  3. contralateral decubitus
  4. prone
33
Q

_____ acetabulum is stronger and along with the dome comprises the weight-bearing portion of the acetabulum.

A

Posterior

34
Q

A firm ligament extending from the fovea of the femoral head to the acetabulum. The ligament enters a small notch in the medial acetabular wall where it is surrounded by fat.

A

Ligamentum teres

35
Q

Compartments / articulations of the knee joint

A

lateral and medial femorotibial, patellofemoral

36
Q

AP knee radiograph shows

A

femoral condyles and tibial plateaus

37
Q

The medial and lateral compartment radiolucent “joint spaces” or “catilage spaces” should be equal with the knee extended; asymmetry usually indicates ______. Standing views may accentuate such findings, better if with knee flexion.

A

cartilage loss, ligamentous laxity

38
Q

Earlier and more severe cartilage loss often occurs

along the?

A

posterior weight-bearing portions of the femoral condyles

39
Q

Profiles the anterior weight-bearing, mid-weight bearing, and posterior weight-bearing surfaces of the femoral condyles and also reveals differences between the condyles and tibial plateaus.

A

lateral radiograph

40
Q
  • insert pic
A

skyline view

41
Q

Permit the sliding and rolling motion in the flexing knee while ensuring the collateral ligaments are sufficiently lax to permit the rotation associated with the curvature of the medial condyle about a vertical axis.

A

The resulting series of transverse axes

42
Q

tibial condyles are separated by the _____.

A

intercondylar eminence

43
Q

Essentially used for the external structures of the knee.

A

Ultrasound

44
Q

Age by which a child will have replaced the cartilage with bone (ossification)

A

3-5 years

45
Q

largest sesamoid bone in the body.

A

knee cap or patella

46
Q

Largest commuicative bursa

A

suprastellar bursa

47
Q

Two types of joint cartilage in knees and its function

A
  1. Fibrous cartilage - tensile strentgh; can resist pressure

2. Hyaline cartilage - covers the surface along which the joints move.

48
Q

Articular disks of the knee-joint are called _____

A

menisci

49
Q

Serve to protect the ends of the bones from rubbing on each other and to effectively deepen the tibial sockets into which the femur attaches.

A

menisci

50
Q

Knee joint is stabilized by a pair of ligament, _____ and _____

A

ACL and PCL (cruciate ligaments)

51
Q

Function of ACL

A

prevents the tibia from being pushed too far anterior relative to the femur. It is often torn during twisting or bending of the knee.

52
Q

Function of PCL

A

Prevents posterior displacement of the tibia relative to the femur. Injury to this ligament is uncommon but can occur as a direct result of forced trauma to the ligament.

53
Q

Gives the patella its mechanical leverage and also functions as a cap for the condyles of the femur

A

patellar ligament

54
Q

It protects the medial side of the knee from being bent open by a stress applied to the lateral side of the knee (a valgus force).

A

medial collateral ligament (MCL aka “tibial”)

55
Q

Partly covered by the pes anserinus and the tendon of the semimembranosus passes under it.

A

MCL

56
Q

Protects the lateral side of an inside bending force (a varus force).

A

LCL

57
Q

Enumerate intracapsular ligaments

A

ACL, PCL, transverse ligament

58
Q

Enumerate extracapsular ligament

A

Pattelar ligament, MCL, LCL, oblique popliteal ligament

59
Q

_____ is the concaved surface formed by the tibia and fibula.

A

“mortise”

60
Q

Supination is accompanied by the_____ and pronation

is accompanied by _____.

A

calcaneal inversion (calcaneovarus); calcaneal eversion (calcaneovalgus)

61
Q

It allows detection of tenosynovitis and tendinitis, as well as partial and complete tendon tears. Joint effusions, intraarticular bodies, ganglion cysts, ligamentous tears and plantar fasciitis can also be
diagnosed.

A

Ultrasaound

62
Q

Ligament that supports the medial side of the joint, and is attached at the medial malleolus of the tibia and connect in four places to the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus, calcaneonavicular ligament, the navicular tuberosity, and to the medial surface of the talus.

A

deltoid ligament

63
Q

Ligaments that support the lateral side of the joint from the lateral malleolus of the fibula to the dorsal and ventral ends of
the talus.

A

anterior and posterior talofibular

64
Q

Isolated injury to syndesmotic ligament is called _____

A

high ankle sprain

65
Q

Position where ankle injury is most likely to occur.

A

planter-flexed

66
Q

Classic ankle sprain involves _____, which is also most commonly injured during inversion sprains.

A

anterior talofibular ligament (AFTL)