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NUR 122 > Musculoskeletal > Flashcards

Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

The treatment for sprains known as RICE stands for what?

A

Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation

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2
Q

What exactly is a sprain?

A

Torn ligaments that hold the bone together to form a joint

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3
Q

What symptoms would be expected in a 1st degree sprain?

A

minimal swelling and loss of function, but no abnormal movement

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4
Q

What characterizes a 3rd degree sprain?

A

3rd degree = complete tearing of tissue fibers and loss of function

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5
Q

What symptoms would be present in a 2nd degree sprain?

A

Severe pain, especially with weight bearing, swelling and bleeding – with some loss of function

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6
Q

What is the definition of a strain?

A

A strain is a pulling or tearing of either muscle, tendon or both

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7
Q

A joint “dislocation” means what?

A

Stretching and tearing of ligaments around a joint with complete displacement of the bone.

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8
Q

What is a joint subluxation?

A

A partial or incomplete displacement of the joint surface

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9
Q

Carpal Tunnel syndrome occurs when?

A

When the median nerve in the wrist is compressed by and inflamed, edematous flexor tendon sheath

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10
Q

What is a Phalen’s sign?

A

Phalen’s sign is said to be positive if there is numbness with wrist flexion.

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11
Q

What is a positive Tinel’s sign?

A

Tapping over the median nerve the causes tingling and electric shock sensation.

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12
Q

In a patient with Carpal Tunnel syndrome: what would the MRI show?

A

Compression and flattening of the median nerve

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13
Q

What is a McMurray’s test?

A

Turning the foot side-to-side while bending the knee back and forth

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14
Q

What is the most common injury to the knee?

A

An ACL injury

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15
Q

What in the “common cause” of ACL injury?

A

twisting motion

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16
Q

What test indicates ACL injury?

A

Lachman’s test

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17
Q

What is crepitation?

A

A crackling or rattling sound made by the fractured ends of bone

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18
Q

What is the difference in an open reduction and a closed reduction?

A

Open = surgical incision. Closed = manipulation

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19
Q

How much calcium should an adult who is less than 50 years old consume daily?

A

1000 mg/day

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20
Q

How much calcium should an adult who is over 50 years old consume daily?

A

1200 mg/day

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21
Q

Calcium is rich in what foods?

A
  1. Dairy
  2. Green Leafy Veggies
  3. Sardines
  4. Canned Salmon
  5. Broccoli
  6. Fortified OJ
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22
Q

A nurse with a lateral curvature of their spine has what medical condition?

A

Scoliosis

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23
Q

Humpback is technically referred to as?

A

Kyphosis

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24
Q

What effect does Vitamin D have?

A

It promotes calcium and phosphate absorption, increased serum calcium and phosphorus levels

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25
Q

What is Fosamax given for?

A

Osteoporosis

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26
Q

After age 50, which gender is more affected by Osteoarthritis?

A

Women

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27
Q

What factor puts women at higher risk for Osteoarthritis?

A

Estrogen reduction at menopause

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28
Q

OA results from damage to what?

A

Cartilage

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29
Q

What is the big difference beween RA and OA?

A

RA is an auto-immune inflammatory disease; OA is not an auto-immune inflammatory disease–it is a degenerative disease.

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30
Q

Are there systemic manifestations in OA or RA?

A

RA only; OA has no systemic manifestations

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31
Q

In the early stages of OA, what helps the pain?

A

Rest

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32
Q

What two nodes are frequently deformed in patients with OA?

A

Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes

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33
Q

What is a test frequently performed in the diagnosis of OA?

A

Synovial Fluid Analysis: in patients with OA, the fluid will be clear yellow with no inflammation

34
Q

What is the primary intervention for patients with OA?

A

Non-pharmacological; drugs serve only as an adjunct

35
Q

Other than gender, what is a significant risk factor for OA?

A

Obesity

36
Q

What is the maximum dose of Tylenol to take in a 6-hour period?

A

1000 mg

37
Q

How much Tylenol can be taken in a 24-hour period?

A

4 grams (4000 mg)

38
Q

What is the characteristic trademark of Gout?

A

Hyperuricemia; excessive uric acid production or decreased uric acid excretion by the kidneys

39
Q

Uric acid is an end waste product of what?

A

Purine metabolism (breakdown)

40
Q

What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with Gout?

A

Avoid pressure on the affected area

41
Q

What diet is recommended for patients with gout?

A

Low-purine: eggs, fruit, cheese, nuts, sugar, gello and veggies

42
Q

What food items should be recognized as “high-purine”?

A

Meat, shellfish, spinach, legumes and sweet breads

43
Q

What are the two types of skeletal muscle relaxants?

A

Centrally and peripherally acting

44
Q

Flexeril is contraindicated for patients with what conditions?

A

MAOI’s and cardiac disorders

45
Q

Flexeril should be used cautiously in patient with what?

A

Urinary retention, glaucoma, and increased intraoccular pressure

46
Q

What is the MOA of Allopurinol?

A

Allopurinol inhibits the conversion of purine to uric acid

47
Q

The nurse should tell the patient on Allopurinol to immediately report signs of what?

A

Rash

48
Q

A patient taking Colchine should avoid what?

A

Grapefruit

49
Q

Colchicine is contraindicated for who?

A

Patients with renal, hepatic, cardiac or severe GI disorders

50
Q

What is the effect of Calcitonin?

A

Increases osetoblasts and slows bone loss

51
Q

What are S/E of Calcitonin?

A

Rhinitis, Sinusitis, Epistaxis and flushing of the face

52
Q

What is the MOA of Fosamax and Boniva?

A

inhibits osteclasts

53
Q

Fosamax and Boniva must be given 30-60 minutes before eating to avoid what?

A

Esophageal erosion

54
Q

What drug class is Evista?

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator

55
Q

What are severe side effects of Evista?

A

DVT and stroke in women with CAD

56
Q

What must a patient on Lortab be monitored for?

A

Respiratory depression

57
Q

What signs or symptoms seen in a post-operative total hip replacement patient require calling the doctor ASAP?

A

Shortening or rotation of the surgical leg (indicates subluxation or dislocation)

58
Q

What is the primary nursing priority post-op for a patient who had a total hip replacement?

A

Prevent hip dislocation

59
Q

What steps does the nurse caring for a post-op THR need to take to prevent dislocation?

A

Prevent hip adduction and hyperflexion

60
Q

What will post-arthroplasty patient need before procedures for the rest of their life?

A

Prophylactic antibiotics

61
Q

What exercises should a patient, post-op TKR, do to maintain ROM and muscle tone?

A

Isometric quadriceps flexing and straight leg raises

62
Q

What is plantar fasciitis?

A

inflamed tendon in the bottom of the foot that causes pain in the anterior medial aspect of the heel–that generally diminishes with stretching of the foot and the Achilles tendon

63
Q

What is hallux vulgus?

A

deformity of the big toe; bony enlargement of the first metatarsal head

64
Q

What is hallux rigidus?

A

Painful stiffness of the first MTP joint caused by osteoarthritis

65
Q

“Hammer toe” is characterized by what?

A

flexion deformity and callus formation on the 2nd through 5th toes

66
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

softening of the bone

67
Q

What are the appropriate nursing interventions for a acute sprain?

A

RICE = rest, ice, compression and elevation

68
Q

What is appropriate nursing management of an acute dislocation or subluxation?

A

Nursing efforts should be pain relief with support and protection of the affected joint. The nurse MUST resist the impulse to immediately reduce a dislocation without evaluation by a clinician.

69
Q

What would be an indication of a dislocation?

A

Deformity, local pain and loss of function

70
Q

What are possible complications of a dislocation?

A

Avascular necrosis and compartment syndrome

71
Q

What is fat embolism?

A

It is when fat globules (that serve as emboli) enter the bloodstream after a traumatic skeletal injury

72
Q

What presentation would a patient experiencing fat embolism syndrome have?

A

Chest pain, tachypnea, dyspnea, apprehension: all of the symptoms of impaired oxygenation. Sudden onset petechiae is a important sign to notice as well.

73
Q

What are expected manifestations of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Weakness of the thumb, burning pain, impaired sensation and clumsiness performing fine hand movements

74
Q

What is the treatment for carpal tunnel?

A

Rest and immobilization (possible splinting of the wrist) and corticosteroid injection

75
Q

What is a transverse fracture?

A

Break straight across

76
Q

What is spiral fracture?

A

A break in a spiral; an “S” shape

77
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

An incomplete fracture with one side splintered and the other bent

78
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

A fracture with two or more fragments

79
Q

What is an oblique fracture?

A

The break is at an angle

80
Q

What is a pathologic fracture?

A

A spontaneous fracture at the site of bone damage

81
Q

What is a stress fracture?

A

Fracture that occurs in a bone subject to repeated stress (like running)

NUR 122 (9 decks)

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