Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MED SURG EXAM 3 > MUSCULOSKELETAL > Flashcards

MUSCULOSKELETAL Flashcards

1
Q

What is Kyphosis?

A

Kyphosis is a forward thoracic curve of the spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Scoliosis?

A

Scoliosis is a sideways curvature of the spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Lordosis?

A

Lordosis is an inward curve of the lumbar spine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What should be assessed during the examination of muscles, joints, and bones?

A

Muscle strength should be assessed and joint abnormalities checked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Radiography (X-ray)?

A

Radiography (X-ray) is imaging of bone structures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does Dual-Energy X-ray Absorptiometry (DXA) measure?

A

DXA measures bone density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Fluoroscopy used for?

A

Fluoroscopy is used for real-time imaging for joint movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does Computed Tomography (CT) provide?

A

CT provides detailed cross-sectional images of bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) image?

A

MRI images soft tissue and joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Radionuclide Imaging?

A

Radionuclide Imaging includes bone scans and gallium scans to detect abnormalities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Arthrocentesis?

A

Arthrocentesis is a needle aspiration of joint fluid for analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should be monitored after Arthrocentesis?

A

Monitor for infection, pain, or hematoma formation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Arthroscopy?

A

Arthroscopy is a minimally invasive joint surgery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does Electromyography evaluate?

A

Electromyography evaluates muscle electrical activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a Biopsy?

A

A Biopsy is the removal of tissue for diagnosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does Antinuclear Antibody (ANA) detect?

A

ANA detects autoimmune disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does C-Reactive Protein (CRP) indicate?

A

CRP indicates inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) measure?

A

ESR measures inflammation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What do Mineral Metabolism Tests assess?

A

Mineral Metabolism Tests assess calcium/phosphorus balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do Muscle Enzymes identify?

A

Muscle Enzymes identify muscle damage or disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do Electrolytes monitor?

A

Electrolytes monitor for imbalances affecting muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Osteoporosis?

A

Osteoporosis involves an imbalance where osteoclastic activity exceeds osteoblastic activity, leading to low bone mass, loss of calcium, and bone fragility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a normal DXA T-Score?

A

A normal DXA T-Score is above -1.

24
Q

What is Osteopenia in terms of DXA T-Score?

A

Osteopenia is defined as a DXA T-Score between -1 and -2.5.

25
Q

What is Osteoporosis in terms of DXA T-Score?

A

Osteoporosis is defined as a DXA T-Score below -2.5.

26
Q

What are some risk factors for Osteoporosis?

A

Risk factors include female gender, post-menopause, breastfeeding, ethnicity, family history, sedentary lifestyle, smoking, alcohol, and calcium/vitamin D deficiency.

27
Q

What are some management strategies for Osteoporosis?

A

Management includes adequate calcium/vitamin D intake, weight-bearing exercise, and avoiding alcohol/tobacco.

28
Q

What medications are used for Osteoporosis?

A

Medications include Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) and Diphosphonates (e.g., Fosamax).

29
Q

What nursing considerations are important for Osteoporosis?

A

Nursing considerations include altered nutrition, impaired physical activity, and pain management.

30
Q

What is Paget’s Disease?

A

Paget’s Disease is a chronic metabolic bone disorder with increased osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity, resulting in weak, large, disorganized bones.

31
Q

What are clinical manifestations of Paget’s Disease?

A

Clinical manifestations include bone pain, nerve compression, deformities, arthritis, and pathologic fractures.

32
Q

What is the treatment for Paget’s Disease?

A

Treatment includes pain management with NSAIDs, medications like Diphosphonates and calcitonin, and surgical intervention for complications.

33
Q

What nursing management strategies are important for Paget’s Disease?

A

Nursing management emphasizes a balanced diet, medications, exercise, and fall prevention.

34
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Osteoarthritis?

A

Osteoarthritis is a chronic joint disease characterized by degeneration of articular cartilage, affecting weight-bearing joints.

35
Q

What are risk factors for Osteoarthritis?

A

Risk factors include age, obesity, repetitive joint injuries, and genetics.

36
Q

What are clinical manifestations of Osteoarthritis?

A

Clinical manifestations include morning stiffness, pain worsening by day’s end, joint enlargement, and crepitus.

37
Q

What are Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes?

A

Heberden’s nodes occur in distal joints, while Bouchard’s nodes occur in proximal joints.

38
Q

What is the management for Osteoarthritis?

A

Management includes pain relief with NSAIDs, corticosteroids, weight management, and low-impact exercise.

39
Q

What are surgical management options for Osteoarthritis?

A

Surgical management options include osteotomy, arthrodesis, and arthroplasty (e.g., total hip/knee replacement).

40
Q

What are postoperative goals for Osteoarthritis surgery?

A

Postoperative goals include preventing deformities, restoring weight-bearing, using assistive devices, and pain relief.

41
Q

What does RICE stand for in treating strains and sprains?

A

RICE stands for Rest, Ice (24–72 hrs), Compression, and Elevation.

42
Q

What are the classifications of fractures?

A

Fractures can be classified as closed, open, complete, incomplete, comminuted, or depressed.

43
Q

What are the grades for open fractures?

A

Grade I: <1 cm, minimal contamination; Grade III: >6 cm, extensive damage, heavy contamination.

44
Q

What are the stages of bone healing?

A

The stages of bone healing are inflammatory phase, reparative phase, callus formation, and remodeling phase.

45
Q

What is Compartment Syndrome?

A

Compartment Syndrome is a circulation impairment due to pressure, with symptoms including pain, pallor, paresthesia, and pulselessness.

46
Q

What is Fat Embolism Syndrome?

A

Fat Embolism Syndrome occurs when fat globules cause ARDS, petechiae, and hypoxia.

47
Q

What are symptoms of DVT?

A

Symptoms of DVT include calf pain, edema, and risk of pulmonary embolism.

48
Q

What should be monitored in postoperative care for fractures?

A

Monitor for infection, DVT, compartment syndrome, and joint stiffness.

49
Q

What is the 5 Ps of neurovascular assessment?

A

The 5 Ps are Pain, Pulse, Pallor, Paresthesia, and Paralysis.

50
Q

What are important aspects of cast care?

A

Cast care includes elevating the extremity, assessing for pressure areas, and maintaining cleanliness.

51
Q

What is involved in external fixation care?

A

External fixation care includes sterile pin care, monitoring for drainage/infection, elevation, and applying ice.

52
Q

What should be ensured with Buck’s Traction?

A

Ensure alignment, maintain free-hanging weights, and prevent rope tangling.

53
Q

What is Volkmann’s Contracture?

A

Volkmann’s Contracture is a permanent hand/wrist deformity resulting from ischemia.

54
Q

What are long-term complications of fractures?

A

Long-term complications include avascular necrosis, delayed/non-union of fractures, and post-traumatic arthritis.

55
Q

What are symptoms of Fat Embolism Syndrome?

A

Symptoms include chest pain, hypoxia, petechiae, fever, and respiratory distress.

56
Q

What are signs of infection in fractures?

A

Signs of infection include wound drainage, fever, odor, and localized pain.

MED SURG EXAM 3 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions