Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

What type of fracture have the bones pierced the skin?

A

Open

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2
Q

What type of fracture are the bones still within the skin?

A

Closed

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3
Q

What is it called when there is only one fracture?

A

Simple

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4
Q

What is it called when there is multiple fractures or it is splintered?

A

Comminuted

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5
Q

What is it called when the end of the bones are firmly in place?

A

Stable

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6
Q

What type of fracture is it when the ends of the bones are able to move freely?

A

Unstable

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7
Q

What are clinical sign of a fracture?

A

Pain, lameness, swelling/bruising, deformity of the bone, crepitus

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8
Q

How do you diagnose a fracture?

A

Radiographs, 2 views necessary

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9
Q

What is the treatment for a fracture?

A

Reduction and fixation

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10
Q

When are pins/plates/screws necessary?

A

Fractures of humerus or femur, open fractures, unstable fractures, salter fractures

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11
Q

When can pins be removed?

A

After radiographic evidence of healing is achieved

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12
Q

What is the most common injury of the stifle?

A

Cranial cruciate ligament

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13
Q

Patient presents NWB on right forelimb with X-rays showing a cloudy growth to the limb. What is the likely diagnosis? What other view is important to obtain?

A

Osteosarcoma, thoracic rads

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14
Q

On examination you notice a prominent ventro-flexion of the cervical region. What electrolyte abnormality most often presents like this?

A

Hypokalemia

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15
Q

6 month old intact female Great Dane presents for toe touching lameness of the left forelimb. On palpation, she is extremely painful over the humerus, right around mid-level. You also notice an increased body temp of 103.7. Also noted last month she was lame on her right forelimb. What is the presumptive diagnosis? What is the treatment?

A

Panosteisis, supportive care until they grow out of it

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16
Q

What disease process has shifting leg lameness as a clinical sign?

A

Lyme

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17
Q

What age must a patient be to have official grading through OFA system?

A

2 years

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18
Q

What is the name of the disease that causes aseptic necrosis of the femoral head and neck

A

Left-perthes disease

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19
Q

What does OFA stand for?

A

Orthopedic foundation for animas

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20
Q

What are 3 disease shepherds are predisposed to?

A

EPI, pannus, hip dysplasia

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21
Q

On examination you are able to push the patella medially but once you let it go it snaps back into place. What is the complete diagnosis?

A

Stage 1 medial luxating patella

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22
Q

Name two tests you can preform for a suspected CCL rupture that are not radiographs:

A

Cranial Drawer test, tibial thrust

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23
Q

True or false: degenerative change in the joint will occur with or with out surgery to correct CCL

A

True

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24
Q

What causes a CCL

A

Ligament ruptures when foot is planted and upper leg rotates until the ligament pops

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25
Q

True or false: genetic predisposition in some breeds with degenerative disease is present for CCL Injuries

A

True

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26
Q

What are clinical signs of CCL

A

Acute lameness, NWB, +- pain, +- drawer sign, +- tibial thrust

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27
Q

How do you diagnose CCL

A

Drawer sign under anesthesia, radiographs

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28
Q

What is the treatment for CCL?

A

TPLO most common, surgery

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29
Q

What does TPLO stand for?

A

Tibial Plateau Leveling Osteotomy

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30
Q

Are medial luxations common in large or small breed dogs?

A

Small

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31
Q

Are lateral luxations common in larger or small breed dogs?

A

Large

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32
Q

What kind of luxation can happen in any breed?

A

Traumatic

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33
Q

What is a grade 1 luxation?

A

Pops out, easily pops back in when released

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34
Q

What is a grade 2 luxation

A

Pops out easily, stays out when released

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35
Q

What is a grade 3 luxation?

A

Located most of the time but can be reduced

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36
Q

What is a grade 4 luxation?

A

Luxated all of the time

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37
Q

What is the treatment for luxations?

A

MLP surgery

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38
Q

Who is prone to hip dysplasia?

A

German shepherds

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39
Q

What is hip dysplasia?

A

Disparity between muscle mass and bone when growing, failure of soft tissues of hip to maintain hip congruity

40
Q

True or false: environment and diet have no effect on hip dysplasia?

A

False

41
Q

What does acetabular mean?

A

Socket

42
Q

What is acetabular hip dysplasia?

A

Excessive slope to the dorsal rim of acetabulum: femoral head fails to press correctly into the developing cup

43
Q

What is femoral hip dysplasia?

A

Femoral neck is shortened decreasing coverage by the acetabular rim and disrupting the congruity of the joint surface

44
Q

How do you diagnose hip dysplasia?

A

Radiographs under anesthesia, OFA grading system or PennHIP testing

45
Q

How old must a dog be to get PennHIP testing?

A

Any age

46
Q

What is the treatment for hip dysplasia?

A

Moderate exercise, weight control, NSAID, nutraceuticals, surgery(FHO, Total hip replacement, triple osteotomy

47
Q

What does FHO stand for?

A

Femoral head ostectomy

48
Q

What is legg-perthes disease?

A

Aseptic necrosis of femoral head and neck, small breed dogs

49
Q

What are clinical signs of Legg-parthes disease?

A

Pain, non weight bearing, atrophy of hip muscles

50
Q

How do you diagnose legg-Perthes disease?

A

Radiographs

51
Q

What is the treatment for legg-Perthes
Disease?

A

Surgery

52
Q

What is osteochondrosis dissecans?

A

Degeneration of the bone and cartilage followed by reossification, dissecting cartilaginous flap may develop, failure of cartilage to turn into bone, thickened cartilage is prone to injury, result is a non-healing flap cartilage

53
Q

Who is prone to osteochondrosis dissecans?

A

Large breed dogs

54
Q

What is a symptom of osteochondrosis dissecans?

A

Lameness

55
Q

How do you diagnose osteochondrosis dissecans?

A

Radiographs

56
Q

True or false: surgery for removal of the flap may be necessary for osteochondrosis dissecans?

A

True

57
Q

What are clinical signs of panosteitis?

A

Intermittent lameness in large breed dogs, shifting leg lameness, weight loss, fever, anorexia

58
Q

True or false: patients will outgrow panosteitis by two years old

A

True

59
Q

True or false: long ones was commonly involved with panosteitis may be free febrile

A

True

60
Q

What is another name for panosteitis?

A

Eosinophilic panosteitis, eopan

61
Q

How do you diagnose panosteitis?

A

Pain elicted with pressure to center of long bones, radiographs

62
Q

What is the treatment for panosteitis?

A

Rest, NSAID, keep comfortable until they grow out of it

63
Q

What is the most common type of luxation of the hip?

A

Craniodorsal, tearing of the joint capsule in the brown ligament

64
Q

True or false: luxation of the hip are typically caused by trauma

A

True

65
Q

What are clinical signs of luxation of the hip?

A

Acute lameness, maybe swelling over the hip, extend hips – legs are not the same length

66
Q

How do you diagnose luxation of the hip?

A

Radiographs

67
Q

What is the treatment for luxation of the hip?

A

Reduction, either closed or open

68
Q

What are myopathies?

A

Diseases that affect muscle: inflammatory, immune mediated, acquired

69
Q

What are inflammatory myopathies

A

Bacterial infections, uncommon; usually occur after bite wounds– Protozoal myositis due to toxoplasmosis in cats

70
Q

What are immune mediated myopathies?

A

Polymyositis; weakness that gets worse with exercise, hyperesthesia on palpation, fever, depression, some dogs have megaesophagus

71
Q

How do you diagnose a immune mediated myopathies?

A

Muscle biopsy

72
Q

How do you treat immune mediated myopathies?

A

Prednisone

73
Q

What muscles does masticatory myositis affect?

A

Muscles of mastication in the dog

74
Q

What are symptoms of masticatory myositis

A

Masticatory muscles become swollen and painful, eventually atrophy, and the dog is unable to open the mouth, even under anesthesia

75
Q

How do you diagnose masticatory myositis?

A

2M test

76
Q

How do you treat masticatory myositis?

A

Prednisone

77
Q

What is an example of an acquired myopathy in cats?

A

Cervical ventral flexion, periodic weakness, muscle pain; in cats that are hypokalemic

78
Q

What is the treatment for feline acquired myopathy

A

Supplementation with potassium, change in diet

79
Q

What is the primary bone neoplasm?

A

Osteosarcoma

80
Q

What are the most common bones affected by osteosarcoma?

A

Distal radius, proximal, humerus, distal, femur, proximal tibia

81
Q

What is the treatment for osteosarcoma?

A

Amputation of leg, followed by chemo many have already spread

82
Q

Are osteosarcoma tumors painful

A

Yes

83
Q

What is the saying for tumors of the bone?

A

Away from the elbow, towards the knees

84
Q

What other view should you get when obtaining x-rays for osteosarcoma?

A

Chest x-rays

85
Q

What is the difference between femoral hip dysplasia and acetabular hip dysplasia?

A

Femoral hip– the ball is out of the joint and fails to press back on the rim
As a tubular – the socket is misshaped in the femoral head fails to align

86
Q

Masticator myositis affects

A

Muscles of mastication

87
Q

What is the treatment for choice for a larger dog that has a positive tibial thrust test?

A

TPLO

88
Q

Which direction is most common for patella luxation of large breed animals?

A

Lateral

89
Q

At what age can you submit for a pen hip testing?

A

Any age

90
Q

True or false: leg Perthes is defined as septic necrosis of the femoral head and neck

A

False

91
Q

What disease of dogs under two years of age can cause lameness, fever, lethargy, and affects the long bones

A

Panosteitis

92
Q

Which of the following is not a clinical sign associated with hypokalemia and felines?
A. Cervical ventral flexion
B. Periodic weakness.
C. Muscle pain.
D. Cervical ventral extension.

A

D

93
Q

Away from the elbow and towards the knees, describes the location of what

A

OSA

94
Q

What does OSA stand for?

A

Osteosarcoma

95
Q

Which anabiotic is best suited for oral infections

A

Clindamycin