Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

Danger Signals

N_____ Fracture (Sc____ Bone Fracture)

C____ Fracture

Acute Osteo____

H__ Fracture

P____ Fracture

C____ E____ Syndrome

Low-back Pain (From A Dissecting (1))

Bone M______

A

Navicular Fracture (Scaphoid Bone Fracture)

Colles Fracture

Acute Osteomyelitis

Hip Fracture

Pelvic Fracture

Cauda Equina Syndrome

Low-back Pain (From A Dissecting Abdominal Aneurysm)

Bone Metastases

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2
Q

Navicular Fracture (Scaphoid Bone Fracture)

Wrist pain on palpation of the (1) Pain on axial loading of the ____.

History of _____ forward with _____ hand (hyperextension of the wrist) to break the fall.

Initial x-ray of the wrist may be normal, but a repeat x-ray in 2 weeks will show the _____ fracture (due to callus bone formation).

High risk of avascular ____ and non_____.

_____ wrist (thumb spica splint) and refer to a hand ______.

A

Wrist pain on palpation of the anatomic snuffbox Pain on axial loading of the thumb.

History of falling forward with outstretched hand (hyperextension of the wrist) to break the fall.

Initial x-ray of the wrist may be normal, but a repeat x-ray in 2 weeks will show the scaphoid fracture (due to callus bone formation).

High risk of avascular necrosis and nonunion.

Splint wrist (thumb spica splint) and refer to a hand surgeon.

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3
Q

Colles Fracture

Fracture of the distal _____ (with or without ulnar fracture) of the forearm along with dorsal displacement of wrist.

History of _____ forward with _____ hand (as in navicular fracture).

This fracture is also known as the “(1)” fracture because of the appearance of arm and wrist after the fracture.

It is the ____ common type of wrist fracture.

A

Fracture of the distal radius (with or without ulnar fracture) of the forearm along with dorsal displacement of wrist.

History of falling forward with outstretched hand (as in navicular fracture).

This fracture is also known as the “dinner fork” fracture because of the appearance of arm and wrist after the fracture.

It is the most common type of wrist fracture.

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4
Q

Acute Osteomyelitis

=

Most common bacterial cause =

Patient complains of l______ bone pain, swelling, redness, and tenderness of affected area and f_____. If on leg or hip, may refuse to w___ and bear weight.

A

An acute infection of the bone that causes inflammation and destruction, which can be caused by bacteria, mycobacteria, and fungi.

Most common bacteria that causes osteomyelitis is Staphylococcus aureus.

Patient complains of localized bone pain, swelling, redness, and tenderness of affected area and fever. If on leg or hip, may refuse to walk and bear weight.

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5
Q

Acute Osteomyelitis

Most cases are due to contiguous spread from a nearby infected _____ to the bone. For example, an infected p______ sore on the heel can cause osteomyelitis of the heel bone, or calcaneus (non_______ spread).

Hematogenous spread is seeding of the bone from an infection in the bloodstream (_____emia). For example, a patient with bacteremia complains of refractory vertebral pain and tenderness (hematogenous osteomyelitis).

Direct tr_____ to the bone can also result in infection.

A

Most cases are due to contiguous spread from a nearby infected wound to the bone. For example, an infected pressure sore on the heel can cause osteomyelitis of the heel bone, or calcaneus (nonhematogenous spread).

Hematogenous spread is seeding of the bone from an infection in the bloodstream (bacteremia). For example, a patient with bacteremia complains of refractory vertebral pain and tenderness (hematogenous osteomyelitis).

Direct trauma to the bone can also result in infection.

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6
Q

Acute Osteomyelitis Workup and Treatment

Imaging of choice?

Labs?

Treatment?

A

MRI can show changes to the bone and bone marrow before plain x-ray or radiograph.

White blood cell (WBC) count, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR; sed rate), and C-reactive protein (CRP) are elevated. Blood cultures may be positive.

Antibiotic treatment is based on culture and sensitivity (C&S) results. May need surgical debridement, amputation, and bone grafts.

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7
Q

Hip Fracture

Patient has a history of slipping or f____. Sudden onset of ___-sided hip pain. Unable to ____and bear weight on affected hip.

If mild fracture, may bear weight on affected hip. If displaced fracture, presence of severe hip pain with _____ rotation of the hip/leg (abduction) and leg _____.

More common in ____. Elderly have a 1-year mortality rate from 12% to 37% related to complications of immobility, such as pn____ and deep vein _______.

A

Patient has a history of slipping or falling. Sudden onset of one-sided hip pain. Unable to walk and bear weight on affected hip.

If mild fracture, may bear weight on affected hip. If displaced fracture, presence of severe hip pain with external rotation of the hip/leg (abduction) and leg shortening.

More common in elderly. Elderly have a 1-year mortality rate from 12% to 37% related to complications of immobility, such as pneumonia and deep vein thrombophlebitis.

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8
Q

Pelvic Fracture

History of significant or high-energy trauma such as a (1) or (1) accident.

Signs and symptoms depend on degree of injury to the pelvic bones and other pelvic structures such as n____, blood vessels, and pelvic organs.

Look for ecc_____ and swelling in the lower ab____, hi__, gr____, and/or scr____. May have bladder and/or fecal in_____, vaginal or rectal bl____, ____turia, ____ness. May cause internal h______, which can be life-threatening.

Check (1)’s first!

A

History of significant or high-energy trauma such as a motor vehicle or motorcycle accident.

Signs and symptoms depend on degree of injury to the pelvic bones and other pelvic structures such as nerves, blood vessels, and pelvic organs.

Look for ecchymosis and swelling in the lower abdomen, hips, groin, and/or scrotum. May have bladder and/or fecal incontinence, vaginal or rectal bleeding, hematuria, numbness. May cause internal hemorrhage, which can be life-threatening. Check airway, breathing, and circulation first (the ABCs).

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9
Q

(1)

Acute onset of saddle anesthesia, bladder incontinence (or retention of urine), and fecal incontinence. Accompanied by bilateral leg numbness and weakness. Pressure (most common cause is a bulging disc) on a sacral nerve root results in inflammatory and ischemic changes to the nerves.

A surgical ____. Needs spinal de______. Refer to ___.

A

Cauda Equina Syndrome

Acute onset of saddle anesthesia, bladder incontinence (or retention of urine), and fecal incontinence. Accompanied by bilateral leg numbness and weakness. Pressure (most common cause is a bulging disc) on a sacral nerve root results in inflammatory and ischemic changes to the nerves.

A surgical emergency. Needs spinal decompression. Refer to ED.

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10
Q

(1)

Acute and sudden onset of “tearing,” severe low-back/abdominal pain. Presence of abdominal bruit with abdominal pulsation. Patient has signs and symptoms of shock. More common in elderly males, atherosclerosis, White race, and smokers.

A

Low-back Pain (From A Dissecting Abdominal Aneurysm)

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11
Q

Bone Metastases Symptoms

Bone pain can feel achy, sharp, and well l_____, or it can feel like _____pathic pain (burning shooting pain).

It can be severe with n____ pain and/or pain with ____bearing.

It may be accompanied by night ____, malaise, f____, and weight ____.

It can be constant or intermittent and can get exacerbated with m_____of the joint or bone.

A

Bone pain can feel achy, sharp, and well localized, or it can feel like neuropathic pain (burning shooting pain).

It can be severe with night pain and/or pain with weight bearing.

It may be accompanied by night sweats, malaise, fever, and weight loss.

It can be constant or intermittent and can get exacerbated with movement of the joint or bone.

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12
Q

Bone Metastases

Bone is one of the most common sites of distant metastases. Pathologic _____ may occur.

Routine labs may show elevated levels of alkaline _____ and/or serum (1) electrolyte.

Cancers of the pr_____, br___, l___, th____, and k____ make up the majority (80%) of cases of bone metastases.

Most sensitive and specific imaging test (1)*?

A

Bone is one of the most common sites of distant metastases. Pathologic fractures may occur.

Routine labs may show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase and/or serum calcium (hypercalcemia).

Cancers of the prostate, breast, lung, thyroid, and kidney make up the majority (80%) of cases of bone metastases.

In general, MRI* is the most sensitive and specific imaging test.A radiograph (x-ray) has poor sensitivity (44%–50%), but it can show bony lesions and may show early lesions.

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13
Q

Joint Anatomy

(1): Thick serous clear fluid (sterile) that provides lubrication for the joint

  • ____ synovial fluid can be indicative of infection; order C&S

(1): Space between two bones (the joint) filled with synovial fluid

(1): The cartilage lining the open surfaces of bones in a joint

(1): Crescent-shaped cartilage located in each knee; two in each knee

  • Damage to menisci may cause l_____ of the knees and knee in______.
A

Synovial fluid: Thick serous clear fluid (sterile) that provides lubrication for the joint

  • Cloudy synovial fluid can be indicative of infection; order C&S

Synovial space: Space between two bones (the joint) filled with synovial fluid

Articular cartilage: The cartilage lining the open surfaces of bones in a joint

Meniscus or menisci (plural): Crescent-shaped cartilage located in each knee; two menisci in each knee

  • Damage to menisci may cause locking of the knees and knee instability.
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14
Q

Joint Anatomy

(1): Connects muscle to the bone (partial or complete tear of tendon or muscle is a strain)

(1): Connects bone to bone (partial or complete tear of a this is a sprain)

(1): Saclike structures located on the anterior and posterior areas of a joint that act as padding; filled with synovial fluid when inflamed (1)

  • _____ fluid is abnormal and is indicative of infection.
A

Tendon: Connects muscle to the bone (partial or complete tear of tendon or muscle is a strain)

Ligament: Connects bone to bone (partial or complete tear of a ligament is a sprain)

Bursae: Saclike structures located on the anterior and posterior areas of a joint that act as padding; filled with synovial fluid when inflamed (bursitis)

  • Cloudy fluid is abnormal and is indicative of infection.
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15
Q

Benign Variants

  • Genu recurvatum:*
  • Genu valgum:*
  • Genu varum:*
A
  • Genu recurvatum:* Hyperextension or backward curvature of the knees
  • Genu valgum:* Knock-knees
  • Genu varum:* Bowlegs
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16
Q

Exam Tip

To remember valgum, think of “___ stuck between the ____” (knock-knees). The opposite is varus, or ___ legs.

A

To remember valgum, think of “gum stuck between the knees” (knock-knees). The opposite is varus, or bowlegs.

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17
Q

Exercise and Injuries

Within the first __ hours, protect joint, and acutely inflamed joints should not:

  • Be _____ in any form (not even isometric exercises)
  • Engage in any active (1) exercises; if done too early, they will cause more inflammation and damage to the affected joints

Undergo exacerbating activities

A

Within the first 48 hours, protect joint, and acutely inflamed joints should not:

  • Be exercised in any form (not even isometric exercises)
  • Engage in any active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises; if done too early, they will cause more inflammation and damage to the affected joints

Undergo exacerbating activities

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18
Q

RICE Mneumonic

Within the first 48 hours after musculoskeletal trauma, follow these rules:

A

Rest**: Avoid using injured joint or limb.

Ice**: Apply cold packs on injured area (e.g., 20 minutes on, 10 minutes off) for first 24 to 48 hours.

Compression: Use an elastic bandage wrap over joints to decrease swelling and provide support. Joints that are usually compressed are the ankles and knees.

Elevation**: This prevents or decreases swelling. Avoid bearing weight on affected joint.

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19
Q

Recommendation for Exercise in Adults

How much aerobic exercise?

How much muscle strengthening?

Aerobic exercise is good to bring down what vital sign in adults?

A

150 to 300 minutes weekly of moderate-intensity aerobic activity (or 75 to 150 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity) +

Muscle strengthening exercise at least 2 days a week.

In hypertensive adults, aerobic exercise has been found to lower resting clinic systolic/diastolic BP

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20
Q

Recommendation for Exercise in Children to Teens

How much aerobic exercise?

How much muscle strengthening?

A

60 minutes daily of moderate-to-vigorous physical activity +

Muscle-strengthening and bone strengthening activity 3 times per week

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21
Q

Non-weight-bearing exercise

Isometric exercise definition

Example of an isometric exercise?

Is biking and swimming non weight bearing exercises?

A

Isometric exercises are non-weight-bearing exercises that are performed in a fixed state in which the muscle is flexed against a stationary object.

An example is pushing one fist against the palm of the other hand, which is stationary.

Biking and swimming are aerobic exercises, which are non-weight-bearing (do not strengthen bones).

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22
Q

Weight-bearing exercise

In weight-bearing exercises, the bones/muscles are forced against ____.

Weight-bearing exercise is recommended for treating (1) to help strengthen bone dur_____.

Examples include?

A

In weight-bearing exercises, the bones/muscles are forced against gravity.

Weight-bearing exercise is recommended for treating osteoporosis/osteopenia to help strengthen bone durability.

Examples include walking, yoga, tai chi, skiing, weight lifting, other sports

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23
Q

Drawer Sign

Tests for what?

Excessive laxity is suggestive of a?

A

Drawer sign is a test for knee stability.

Excessive laxity of affected knee is suggestive of a torn ligament.

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24
Q

Anterior Drawer Sign

How to perform maneuver?

What is a positive exam?

A

Patient lies on examination table (supine). The hip is flexed to 45 degrees, and the knee is bent to 90 degrees. The examiner sits on the forefoot/toes to stabilize the knee joint. Then examiner grasps the lower leg by the joint line and pulls the tibia anteriorly (like opening a drawer).

A positive anterior drawer sign is indicative of a damaged or torn anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).

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25
Q

Posterior Drawer Sign

How to perform maneuver?

What is a positive test?

A

Patient lies on examination table (supine). The hip is flexed to 45 degrees, and the knee is bent to 90 degrees. The examiner sits on the forefoot/toes to stabilize the knee joint. Then examiner grasps the lower leg by the joint line and pushes it posteriorly (like closing a drawer)

A positive posterior drawer sign is indicative of a damaged or torn posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). Sensitivity is 90%, and specificity is 99%.

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26
Q

Finkelstein’s Test

Tests for what condition?

How to perform the test?

What is a positive test?

A

De Quervain’s tenosynovitis (or tendinosis) is caused by an inflammation of the tendon sheath, which is located at the base of the thumb

Tell patient to flex thumb toward the palm, then make a fist by folding remaining fingers over the thumb, then tell patient to ulnarly deviate their wrist.

Positive if there is pain and tenderness on the wrist on the thumb side (abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons).

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27
Q

McMurray’s Test

Tests for what condition?

How to perform test?

What is a positive test?

Gold standard test for joint damage is?

A

Meniscus Injury or Tear

Patient supine and relaxed. The examiner grasps the patient’s heel with one hand and the joint line of the knee with the other hand. The knee is flexed maximally, with external tibial rotation (medial meniscus) or internal tibial rotation (lateral meniscus).

Knee pain and a “click” sound upon manipulation of the knee are positive

Gold-standard test for joint damage is the MRI.

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28
Q

Lachman’s Sign

What does this test for?

How to perform test?

What is a positive sign?

This test vs. anterior drawer sign?

A

Tests for ACL damage

This test is done by bending the hip 45 degrees and the knee 90 degrees, then pulling the knee forward with a sudden jerk to test the leg’s range of motion.

If it moves 6 mm beyond its normal range of motion, then you may have an ACL tear or injury

Lachman’s test is more sensitive than is the anterior drawer sign

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29
Q

Collateral Ligaments (Knees)

Positive finding is an increase in laxity of the damaged knee (ligament tear).

  • Valgus stress test of the knee:* Test for the _____ collateral ligament
  • Varus stress test of the knee:* Test for the ____ collateral ligament
A

Positive finding is an increase in _____ of the damaged knee (ligament tear).

  • Valgus stress test of the knee:* Test for the medial collateral ligament (MCL)
  • Varus stress test of the knee:* Test for the lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
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30
Q

Joint Injections

Administering intra-articular/periarticular joint injections with _____ (e.g., triamcinolone) is a ______ treatment for inflamed joints.

Some expert panels suggest about ____ injections per joint (such as a knee) in a lifetime.

If high re______ is felt when pushing syringe, do not force. Withdraw needle slightly (do not remove from joint) and re_____.

A

Administering intra-articular/periarticular joint injections with steroids (e.g., triamcinolone) is a controversial treatment for inflamed joints.

Some expert panels suggest about four injections per joint (such as a knee) in a lifetime.

If high resistance is felt when pushing syringe, do not force. Withdraw needle slightly (do not remove from joint) and redirect.

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31
Q

Joint Injections Complications

  • T_____ rupture
  • N___ damage
  • in____
  • bl_____
  • (1) axis suppression, others.

Joint injections are contraindicated in patients who are on anti______ therapy because of the risk of hem_____

A
  • Tendon rupture
  • nerve damage
  • infection
  • bleeding
  • hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal (HPA) suppression, others.

Joint injections are contraindicated in patients who are on anticoagulation therapy because of the risk of hemarthrosis (bleeding into joint)

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32
Q

Plain X-Rays (Radiographs)

Show bone _____, osteo_____ (OA; joint space n_____, osteop_____ formation), damaged bone (osteom____, met_____), met___ and other dense objects.

____ recommended for soft tissue structures such as menisci, tendons, and ligaments. Usually the _____ imaging modality

A

Show bone fractures, osteoarthritis (OA; joint space narrowing, osteophyte formation), damaged bone (osteomyelitis, metastases), metal and other dense objects.

Not recommended for soft tissue structures such as menisci, tendons, and ligaments. Usually the initial imaging modality

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33
Q

MRI

Gold standard for =

MRI uses a magnetic field and radio waves, not ______ (compared with x-rays and CT scans).

Can be done without or with contrast.

A

Gold standard for injuries of the cartilage, menisci, tendons, ligaments, or any joint of the body.

MRI uses a magnetic field and radio waves, not radiation (compared with x-rays and CT scans).

Can be done without or with contrast.

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34
Q

MRI Contraindications

M_____ implants, ____makers, aneurysm cl____, insulin p____, metallic foreign body in the ____, “trigger____” contact lens, cochlear implant, el_____for deep brain stimulation, and metallic joints.

A

Metal implants, pacemakers, aneurysm clips, insulin pumps, metallic foreign body in the eye, “triggerfish” contact lens, cochlear implant, electrodes for deep brain stimulation, and metallic joints.

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35
Q

CT

Combines x-rays (_____ radiation) that are rotating in a continuous circle around the patient with computer software to show slices of ____-dimensional images.

Can be done without or with contrast.

Detects bl____, an______, m____, pelvic and bone trauma, fr_____.

A

Combines x-rays (gamma radiation) that are rotating in a continuous circle around the patient with computer software to show slices of three-dimensional images.

Can be done without or with contrast.

Detects bleeding, aneurysms, masses, pelvic and bone trauma, fractures.

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36
Q

Clinical Pearls

(1): Best for soft tissue, joints, occult fractures, and soft tissue.

(1): Best for bone injuries such as fractures. Some bone fractures might not be visible (e.g., stress fractures).

A

MRI: Best for soft tissue, joints, occult fractures, and soft tissue.

X-rays (radiographs): Best for bone injuries such as fractures. Some bone fractures might not be visible (e.g., stress fractures).

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37
Q

Orthopedic Terminology

(1): Movement going away from the body

(1): Movement going toward the body

(1): Body part located closer to the body (compared with distal)

(1): Body part farther away from the center of the body

A

Abduction (varus): Movement going away from the body

Adduction (valgum): Movement going toward the body

Proximal: Body part located closer to the body (compared with distal)

Distal: Body part farther away from the center of the body

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38
Q

Hand Anatomy

  • (1):* Bones of the hands.
  • (1)*: Bones of the wrist. There are a total of eight wrist bones.
  • (1)*: Fingers and the toes; singular form of the term is (1)
  • (1):* Bones of the feet.
  • (1):* The ankle bone.
  • (1):* The heel bone.
A
  • Metacarpals:* Bones of the hands.
  • Carpals*: Bones of the wrist. There are a total of eight wrist bones.
  • Phalanges:* Fingers and the toes; singular form of the term is phalanx.
  • Metatarsals:* Bones of the feet.
  • Talus:* The ankle bone.
  • Calcaneus:* The heel bone.
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39
Q

Hand Anatomy Picture

A
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40
Q

Foot Anatomy Picture

A
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41
Q

(1)

Lower extremity injury caused by overuse, resulting in microtears and inflammation of the muscles, tendons, and bone tissue of the tibia. Also known as “shin splints.”

A

Medial Tibia Stress Syndrome (Shin Splints) and Medial Tibial Stress Fracture

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42
Q

Medial Tibia Stress Syndrome (Shin Splints) and Medial Tibial Stress Fracture

More common in _______ (higher incidence in females) and people with ____feet. If severe, it can progress into a stress f______.

(1) gender are at higher risk of stress fracture, especially those with “female athlete triad” (3).

Onset precipitated or worsened with intensification of activity (increased mil____ and/or fr_____ of training).

A

More common in runners (higher incidence in females) and people with flat feet. If severe, it can progress into a stress fracture.

Females are at higher risk of stress fracture, especially those with “female athlete triad” (amenorrhea, eating disorder, osteoporosis).

Onset precipitated or worsened with intensification of activity (increased mileage and/or frequency of training).

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43
Q

Shin Splints Classic Case

(1) gender r_____ reports that she recently increased frequency/distance running and complains of recent onset of pain on the ____ edge of the ____.

Pain may be sharp and stabbing or dull and throbbing. Aggravated during and after exercise. Complains of a sore spot on the inside of the lower leg or the shin (tibia). Some patients may have pain on the ____rior aspect of the shin. Focal area is tender when t_____. Some may develop a stress _____ on the tibia.

A

Female runner reports that she recently increased frequency/distance running and complains of recent onset of pain on the inner edge of the tibia.

Pain may be sharp and stabbing or dull and throbbing. Aggravated during and after exercise. Complains of a sore spot on the inside of the lower leg or the shin (tibia). Some patients may have pain on the anterior aspect of the shin. Focal area is tender when touched. Some may develop a stress fracture on the tibia.

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44
Q

Shin Splints Non-Pharm Treatment

(1) Mneumonic for several ______ are recommended

Apply ____ packs during acute exacerbation, for ___minutes at a time, several times a day for first 24 to 48 hours and then as needed.

________ bandage or sleeve may help decrease swelling. Using c_______ shoes (sneakers) for daily activity helps decrease tibial stress.

When pain is gone, wait about ___ weeks before resuming exercise. Avoid h____ and very hard surfaces until the shin splints have resolved.

If aerobic exercise is desired, recommend ______ impact exercises (e.g., swimming, stationary bike, elliptical trainer). If stress fracture is suspected, advise patient to _____ exercising.

St____ before exercise and start at _____ intensity. Wear sup_____ sneakers.

A

RICE for several weeks are recommended

Apply cold packs during acute exacerbation, for 20 minutes at a time, several times a day for first 24 to 48 hours and then as needed.

Compression bandage or sleeve may help decrease swelling. Using cushioned shoes (sneakers) for daily activity helps decrease tibial stress.

When pain is gone, wait about 2 weeks before resuming exercise. Avoid hills and very hard surfaces until the shin splints have resolved.

If aerobic exercise is desired, recommend lower impact exercises (e.g., swimming, stationary bike, elliptical trainer). If stress fracture is suspected, advise patient to avoid exercising.

Stretch before exercise and start at lower intensity. Wear supportive sneakers.

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45
Q

Shin Splints Treatment Plan

Rx(1) as needed for pain

Imaging of Choice if suspecting stress fracture

If fracture is confirmed, refer to _____

A

NSAIDs as needed

If suspect stress fracture, bone scan and/or MRI. A radiograph (x-ray) does not show stress fractures.

Refer to orthopedic specialist.

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46
Q

(1)

Acute or recurrent pain on the bottom of the feet that is aggravated by walking. Caused by _____ in this area of the foot due to tightness of the Achilles tendon.

Higher risk with ____ (body mass index [BMI] >30), d_____, _____exercise, f____feet, prolonged st______.

A

Plantar Fasciitis

Acute or recurrent pain on the bottom of the feet that is aggravated by walking. Caused by microtears in the plantar fascia due to tightness of the Achilles tendon.

Higher risk with obesity (body mass index [BMI] >30), diabetes, aerobic exercise, flat feet, prolonged standing.

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47
Q

Classic Case of Plantar Fasciitis

_____-aged adult complains of pl_____ foot pain (either on one or on both feet) that is worsened by w_____ and weight bearing. Complains that foot pain is worse during the first few steps in the m______ and continues to worsen with pro______ walking.

A

Middle-aged adult complains of plantar foot pain (either on one or on both feet) that is worsened by walking and weight bearing. Complains that foot pain is worse during the first few steps in the morning and continues to worsen with prolonged walking.

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48
Q

Plantar Fasciitis Pharm Tx

  • (1):* Naproxen (Aleve) orally twice a day, ibuprofen (Advil) orally every 4 to 6 hours.
  • (1):* Diclofenac gel (Voltaren Gel) applied to soles of feet twice a day.

Consider (1) to rule out fracture, heel spurs, complicated case

Refer to (1) as needed

A
  • NSAIDs:* Naproxen (Aleve) orally twice a day, ibuprofen (Advil) orally every 4 to 6 hours.
  • Topical NSAID:* Diclofenac gel (Voltaren Gel) applied to soles of feet twice a day.

Consider x-ray to rule out fracture, heel spurs, complicated case

Refer to podiatrist as needed

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49
Q

Plantar Fasciitis Non-Pharm Treatment

Use _____ foot appliance at night for a few weeks; it will help to ____ the _____ tendon.

Stretching and massaging of the foot: ____ a golf ball with sole of foot several times a day.

Lose _____ (if overweight).

Use shoes with well-p_____ soles and/or use a heel ____ on affected foot.

A

Use orthotic foot appliance at night for a few weeks; it will help to stretch the Achilles tendon.

Stretching and massaging of the foot: Roll a golf ball with sole of foot several times a day.

Lose weight (if overweight).

Use shoes with well-padded soles and/or use a heel cup on affected foot.

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50
Q

(1)

Inflammation of the digital nerve of the foot between the third and fourth metatarsals. Increased risk with high-heeled shoes, tight shoes, obesity, dancers, runners.

A

Morton’s Neuroma

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51
Q

Classic Case of Morton’s Neuroma

Middle-aged woman complains of many weeks of _____ foot pain that is worsened by walking, especially while wearing high heels or tight narrow shoes. The pain is described as b____ and/or ______ness, and it is located on the space between the ____ and ____ toes (metatarsals) on the forefoot. Physical exam of the foot may reveal a small n_____ on the space between the third and fourth toes. Some patients palpate the same nodule and report it as “peb___-like.”

A

Middle-aged woman complains of many weeks of plantar foot pain that is worsened by walking, especially while wearing high heels or tight narrow shoes. The pain is described as burning and/or numbness, and it is located on the space between the third and fourth toes (metatarsals) on the forefoot. Physical exam of the foot may reveal a small nodule on the space between the third and fourth toes. Some patients palpate the same nodule and report it as “pebble-like.”

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52
Q

Mulder Test

Test for Morton’s Neuroma

=

What indicates a positive test?

A

This test for Morton’s neuroma is done by grasping the first and fifth metatarsals and squeezing the forefoot

Positive test is hearing a click along with a patient report of pain during compression. Pain is relieved when the compression is stopped.

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53
Q

Morton’s Neuroma Treatment

Avoid wearing t____ n____ shoes and high _____. Use forefoot p____. Wear well-padded shoes.

Diagnosed by _____ presentation and history. Refer to ______.

A

Avoid wearing tight narrow shoes and high heels. Use forefoot pad. Wear well-padded shoes.

Diagnosed by clinical presentation and history. Refer to podiatrist.

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54
Q

(1)

Occurs when the cartilage covering the articular surface of joints becomes damaged from overuse and with age. Large weight-bearing joints (hips and knees) and the hands (_____ and ______ nodes) are most commonly affected. It can affect one side or bilaterally. Risk factors include ____ age, _____ of joints, and positive _____ history.

A

Degenerative Joint Disease (Osteoarthritis)

Occurs when the cartilage covering the articular surface of joints becomes damaged from overuse and with age. Large weight-bearing joints (hips and knees) and the hands (Bouchard’s and Heberden’s nodes) are most commonly affected. It can affect one side or bilaterally. Risk factors include older age, overuse of joints, and positive family history.

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55
Q

Degenerative Joint Disease (Osteoarthritis) Classic Case

Gr____ onset (over years). Early-_____ joint stiffness with inactivity. Shorter duration of joint stiffness () compared with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Pain aggravated by over____ of joint. During exacerbations, involved joint may be swollen and tender to palpation. May be one-sided (e.g., right hip only). Absence of ______ symptoms (not a systemic inflammatory illness like RA). (2) nodes may be noted

A

Gradual onset (over years). Early-morning joint stiffness with inactivity. Shorter duration of joint stiffness (<15 minutes) compared with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Pain aggravated by overuse of joint. During exacerbations, involved joint may be swollen and tender to palpation. May be one-sided (e.g., right hip only). Absence of systemic symptoms (not a systemic inflammatory illness like RA). Heberden’s and/or Bouchard’s nodes may be noted

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56
Q

OA findings

  • _______ nodes:* Bony nodules on the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints
  • _______ nodes:* Bony nodules on the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints
A
  • Heberden’s nodes:* Bony nodules on the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints
  • Bouchard’s nodes:* Bony nodules on the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints
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57
Q

DegenerativeJoint Disease (OA) Goal of Treatment

Relieve ______

Preserve joint m______ and f_______

Minimize dis______ and pr_____ joint.

A

Relieve pain.

Preserve joint mobility and function.

Minimize disability and protect joint.

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58
Q

Degenerative Joint Disease (OA) Non-Pharm Management

______ (with care) at least three times a week. Lose _____. Stop sm_____.

Do _____ exercises to strengthen ______ muscles (knee OA).

Engage in ____-bearing exercise (walking, lifting weights), ______-band exercises.

Avoid agg______ activities. Use ____ or ____ packs and ultra____ treatment.

Use walking ____. Patellar t_____ by physical therapist will reduce load on knees.

Alternative medicine: Use glucosamine supplements, SAM-e, tai ___exercises, ac______.

A

Exercise (with care) at least three times a week. Lose weight. Stop smoking.

Do isometric exercises to strengthen quadriceps muscles (knee OA).

Engage in weight-bearing exercise (walking, lifting weights), resistance-band exercises.

Avoid aggravating activities. Use cold or warm packs and ultrasound treatment.

Use walking aids. Patellar taping by physical therapist will reduce load on knees.

Alternative medicine: Use glucosamine supplements, SAM-e, tai chi exercises, acupuncture.

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59
Q

Degenerative Joint Disease (OA) Pharm Management

First line treatment =

A

Acetaminophen 325 to 650 mg every 4 to 6 hours (maximum 4 g/day) PRN. or

Tylenol 325 mg to 1,000 mg every 4 to 6 hours (maximum dose 4 g [4,000 mg] per 24 hours) PRN. Dehydration increases risk of hepatic adverse effects; drink a lot of water.

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60
Q

DJD 2nd Line Treatment

=

A

NSAIDs

If no relief with acetaminophen, switch to a short-acting NSAID.

Start with NSAIDs, such as ibuprofen (Advil), one to two tablets every 4 to 6 hours or naproxen (Aleve) BID or Anaprox DS one tablet every 12 hours PRN.

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61
Q

DJD Pharm Treatment Notes

(2) Rx = For added gastrointestinal (GI) protection (if long term)

If patient is at high risk for both __ bleeding and __ side effects, avoid NSAIDs.

  • GI bleed risk factors: History of uncomplicated ulcer, aspirin, warfarin (Coumadin), peptic ulcer disease (PUD), platelet disorder
  • Opioid analgesics: Avoid if possible (especially if patient is a recovering narcotic addict)

Age older than 75 years: Use topical (vs. oral) NSAIDs for treatment.

Rule out osteoporosis and order bone mineral density test (postmenopausal females, chronic steroid treatment males/females).

A

Add a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI; omeprazole) or misoprostol (Cytotec) = For added gastrointestinal (GI) protection (if long term)

If patient is at high risk for both GI bleeding and CV side effects, avoid NSAIDs.

  • GI ____ risk factors: History of uncomplicated ulcer, aspirin, warfarin (Coumadin), peptic ulcer disease (PUD), platelet disorder
  • _____ analgesics: Avoid if possible (especially if patient is a recovering narcotic addict)

Age older than 75 years: Use _____ (vs. oral) NSAIDs for treatment.

Rule out (1) and order (1) density test (postmenopausal females, chronic steroid treatment males/females).

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62
Q

Topical Medicine for DJD (OA)

(2)

NSAID: ______ gel (Voltaren Gel); apply to painful area and massage well into skin QID.

C______ cream: Apply to painful area QID. Avoid contact with eyes/mucous membranes.

Capsaicin comes from ____ peppers. Also used to treat _______ pain (e.g., post shingles).

Do not use on w____/abraded skin. Avoid sh______ afterward (so that it is not washed off).

A

NSAID: Diclofenac gel (Voltaren Gel); apply to painful area and massage well into skin QID.

Capsaicin cream: Apply to painful area QID. Avoid contact with eyes/mucous membranes.

Capsaicin comes from chili peppers. Also used to treat neuropathic pain (e.g., post shingles).

Do not use on wounds/abraded skin. Avoid bathing/showering afterward (so that it is not washed off).

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63
Q

Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug Risk

  • _____ risk of (1):* Ketorolac (Toradol) and piroxicam (Feldene)
  • _____ risk of (1)* Ibuprofen and celecoxib (Celebrex)
  • ______ risk of (1) events:* Diclofenac and celecoxib at higher doses
  • _____ risk of (1) events:* Naproxen
A
  • Highest risk of GI bleeding:* Ketorolac (Toradol) and piroxicam (Feldene)
  • Lowest risk of GI bleeding:* Ibuprofen and celecoxib (Celebrex)
  • Highest risk of CV events:* Diclofenac and celecoxib at higher doses
  • Lowest risk of CV events:* Naproxen
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64
Q

Exam Tips

Ketorolac (Toradol) is limited to ___ days of use. The first dose is given what route?

Heberden’s and/or Bouchard’s nodes have appeared many times on the exam. Memorize the location of each. The following may help:

  • Heberden’s vs. Bouchard’s node location: trick to remember?
A

Ketorolac (Toradol) is limited to 5 days of use. The first dose is given intramuscular or intravenous (IV).

Heberden’s and/or Bouchard’s nodes have appeared many times on the exam. Memorize the location of each. The following may help:

  • Heberden’s vs. Bouchard’s node location: The letter B comes before the letter H. Therefore, Bouchard’s node (PIP) comes before Heberden’s nodes (DIP)
65
Q

Exam Tips

Types of treatment methods used for DJD: Analgesics, N_____s (by mouth and topical), ______ injection on inflamed joints (no systemic/oral steroids), s______ (e.g., joint replacement).

Do not confuse the treatment options for OA with those for ___.

Recognize signs and symptoms of a medial tibial stress fracture = pinpoint pain, lower leg pain while running, especially at fast speeds, pain, swelling, aching at site of fracture

A

Types of treatment methods used for DJD: Analgesics, NSAIDs (by mouth and topical), steroid injection on inflamed joints (no systemic/oral steroids), surgery (e.g., joint replacement).

Do not confuse the treatment options for OA with those for RA.

Recognize signs and symptoms of a medial tibial stress fracture.

66
Q

(1)

A multisystem autoimmune disease that is more common in women (9:1 ratio). Characterized by remissions and exacerbations. More common in African American and Hispanic women. Organ systems affected are the skin, kidneys, heart, and blood vessels. Milder form of is called (1)

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

cutaneous lupus erythematosus

67
Q

Classic Case of Systemic Lupus Erythematous

Typical patient is a (1) gender between ___ and ___ years of age. Classic rash is the maculopapular _____-shaped rash on the middle of the face (m____rash). May have nonpruritic thick scaly red rashes on sun-exposed areas (d_____ rash). Urinalysis (UA) is positive for ______.

A

Typical patient is a woman between 20 and 35 years of age. Classic rash is the maculopapular butterfly-shaped rash on the middle of the face (malar rash). May have nonpruritic thick scaly red rashes on sun-exposed areas (discoid rash). Urinalysis (UA) is positive for proteinuria.

68
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus Treatment Plan

Refer to (1)

  • N_____
  • analgesics
  • st_____
  • antimalarial (1),
  • immune modulators [(1), biologics]
  • (1) antibodies
A

Refer to rheumatologist

  • NSAIDs
  • analgesics
  • steroids
  • antimalarial [Plaquenil],
  • immune modulators [methotrexate, biologics]
  • monoclonal antibodies
69
Q

SLE Patient Education

Avoid ____ between __ a.m. and __ p.m. (causes r____ to break out).

Cover skin with high sun protection factor (1) sunblock.

Wear sun-protective clothing, such as ___ with wide brims and _____-sleeved shirts.

Use _______ light bulbs (more sensitive to indoor fluorescent lighting).

A

Avoid sun between 10 a.m. and 4 p.m. (causes rashes to break out).

Cover skin with high sun protection factor (SPF; UVA and UVB) sunblock.

Wear sun-protective clothing, such as hats with wide brims and long-sleeved shirts.

Use nonfluorescent light bulbs (more sensitive to indoor fluorescent lighting).

70
Q

(1)

Systemic autoimmune disorder that is more common in women (8:1). Mainly manifested through systemic inflammation of multiple joints and other parts (skin, heart, blood vessels, kidneys, GI, brain/nerves, eyes). The goal of treatment is to prevent joint and organ damage. Patients are at higher risk for other autoimmune disorders, including Graves’s disease and pernicious anemia.

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

71
Q

Classic Case of Rheumatoid Arthritis

Adult, commonly ____-aged, (1) complains of gradual onset of symptoms over months with daily f____, low-grade ____, g______ body aches, and myalgia.

Complains of g______ joint pain, which usually involves multiple joints __laterally. It usually starts with what (2) joints?

Commonly reports early-_____stiffness/pain and warm, tender, and swollen fingers in the DIP/PIP joints (also called “_____ joints”). It eventually involves the maj_____ of joints in the body ___laterally.

A

Adult, commonly middle-aged, woman complains of gradual onset of symptoms over months with daily fatigue, low-grade fever, generalized body aches, and myalgia.

Complains of generalized joint pain, which usually involves multiple joints bilaterally. It usually starts on the fingers/hands (PIP and metacarpophalangeal [MCP] joints) and the wrists.

Commonly reports early-morning stiffness/pain and warm, tender, and swollen fingers in the DIP/PIP joints (also called “sausage joints”). It eventually involves the majority of joints in the body bilaterally.

72
Q

Objective Findings of RA

Joint involvement is more _____ with more joints involved compared with DJD

Most common joints affected =

“S______ joints”

Morning stiffness occurs for at least how long (1) and has been present for >__ weeks.

Rheumatoid n_____ present (chronic disease)

A

Joint involvement is more symmetric with more joints involved compared with DJD

Most common joints affected: Hands, wrist, elbows, ankles, feet, and shoulders

“Sausage joints”

Morning stiffness occurs for at least 1 hour and has been present for >6 weeks.

Rheumatoid nodules present (chronic disease)

73
Q

Objective Findings of RA

  • (1) deformity:* Flexion of the DIP joint with hyperextension of the PIP joint (Figure 1A)
  • (1) deformity:* Hyperextension of the DIP with flexion of the PIP joint (Figure 1B)
A
  • Swan neck deformity (50%):* Flexion of the DIP joint with hyperextension of the PIP joint (Figure 1A)
  • Boutonniere deformity:* Hyperextension of the DIP with flexion of the PIP joint (Figure 1B)
74
Q

RA Labs

  • (1) rate:* Elevated
  • CBC:* Mild microcytic or normocytic _____ common
  • (1) factor:* Positive in 70% to 80% of patients
  • Radiographs:* Bony er____, joint space _____, sub______ (or dislocation)
  • Serology/antibodies:* Anti-(1) peptide/protein (anti-CCP), others
A
  • Sedimentation rate:* Elevated
  • CBC:* Mild microcytic or normocytic anemia common
  • Rheumatoid factor (RF):* Positive in 70% to 80% of patients
  • Radiographs:* Bony erosions, joint space narrowing, subluxations (or dislocation)
  • Serology/antibodies:* Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide/protein (anti-CCP), others
75
Q

RA Treatment Plan

Refer to (1) for e____ agg_____ management to minimize joint damage.

  • Surgery:* Joint ______ (hip, knees) ameliorates RA
  • Careful assessment is necessary:* Never prescribe a biologic or anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) medication if signs and symptoms of _____ (e.g., fever, sore throat) are present. Tub______ testing should be ordered prior to start of anti-TNF therapy.
A

Refer to rheumatologist for early aggressive management to minimize joint damage.

  • Surgery:* Joint replacement (hip, knees) ameliorates RA
  • Careful assessment is necessary:* Never prescribe a biologic or anti–tumor necrosis factor (anti-TNF) medication if signs and symptoms of infection (e.g., fever, sore throat) are present. Tuberculosis (TB) testing should be ordered prior to start of anti-TNF therapy.
76
Q

Pain Medications for RA

(1) (e.g., ibuprofen, naproxen sodium) help to relieve inflammation and pain.
* (1):* Systemic oral doses

Steroid joint ______ (synovial space)

A

NSAIDs (e.g., ibuprofen, naproxen sodium) help to relieve inflammation and pain.

Steroids: Systemic oral doses

Steroid joint injections (synovial space)

77
Q

Antirheumatic Drugs

(1) First Line
(1) Second Line

Give examples of each

A

Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)

methotrexate, sulfasalazine, cyclosporine, and hydroxychloroquine (an antimalarial drug)

Anti-TNF biologics

Adalimumab (Humira), etanercept (Enbrel), infliximab (Remicade)

78
Q

Warning with Anti-TNF Biologics

Anti-TNFs increase risk of infections, squamous cell skin cancer, lymphoma.

A

Anti-TNFs increase risk of infections, squamous cell skin cancer, lymphoma.

79
Q

Complications of RA

Increases risk of? (2)*

A

Anterior Uveitis, scleritis, vasculitis, pericarditis.

Malignancies such as Lymphoma

80
Q

Uveitis in RA

Uveitis (eyes): Inflammation of the uvea (_____ layer eyeball). Sudden onset of eye ___ness, pain, bl____ vision. Can cause vision l____. Refer to ophthalmologist ____!

When prescribing P_____, all patients must have an ____ exam prior to starting the medication.

How often for eye exams?

A

Uveitis (eyes): Inflammation of the uvea (middle layer eyeball). Sudden onset of eye redness, pain, blurred vision. Can cause vision loss. Refer to ophthalmologist stat.

When prescribing Plaquenil, all patients must have an eye exam prior to starting the medication.

Frequent eye-exam monitoring should be performed every 6 months or as recommended by the ophthalmologist to assess and prevent retinal damage, which can lead to blindness.

81
Q

Exam Tips

Swan neck deformity and boutonniere deformity are signs of?

Which node only occurs in OA vs. which one can occur in both OA and RA?

Distinguish between RA and OA in terms of classic presentation.

Joint stiffness duration, distribution, and number of joints in RA vs. OA?

Systemic symptoms in RA vs. OA?

A

Swan neck deformity and boutonniere deformity are signs of late and/or severe RA disease.

Bouchard’s nodes can occur in both OA/DJD and RA (located on PIP). Heberden’s nodes are seen only with OA/DJD (located on DIP).

Distinguish between RA and OA in terms of classic presentation.

With RA, joint stiffness lasts longer. It involves multiple joints and has a symmetric distribution.

RA is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fatigue, fever, normocytic anemia.

82
Q

Exam Tips

Uveitis: Swelling of the uvea, the ____ layer of the eye that supplies blood to the r_____ (refer to ophthalmologist ___). Patient treated with high-dose ______ for several weeks. Higher risk of uveitis with in_______ disease (e.g., ankylosing spondylitis, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease).

Plaquenil is an anti______.

Methotrexate is a ______. It is contraindicated for use during pregnancy. When prescribing methotrexate to childbearing women, ______ must be prescribed and adhered to while taking methotrexate.

A

Uveitis: Swelling of the uvea, the middle layer of the eye that supplies blood to the retina (refer to ophthalmologist stat). Patient treated with high-dose steroids for several weeks. Higher risk of uveitis with inflammatory disease (e.g., ankylosing spondylitis, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease).

Plaquenil is an antimalarial.

Methotrexate is a DMARD. It is contraindicated for use during pregnancy. When prescribing methotrexate to childbearing women, contraception must be prescribed and adhered to while taking methotrexate.

83
Q

Exam Tips

Know the presentation of RA and lab findings. Distinguish between presentation of OA and RA =

NSAIDs injure the GI tract by blocking (2), resulting in lower levels of systemic (1).

(1) (acetylsalicylic acid) is a type of NSAID. It affects platelets and clotting permanently, but it will resolve once the affected platelets (life span about ___ days) resolve (if not on chronic NSAIDs).

A

Know the presentation of RA and lab findings. Distinguish between presentation of OA and RA = OA more localized, RA has systemic symptoms and bilateral joints involvement

NSAIDs injure the GI tract by blocking cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) and cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2), resulting in lower levels of systemic prostaglandins.

Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) is a type of NSAID. It affects platelets and clotting permanently, but it will resolve once the affected platelets (life span about 10 days) resolve (if not on chronic NSAIDs).

84
Q

(1)

Deposits of uric acid crystals (monosodium urate) inside joints and tendons due to genetic excess production or low excretion of purine crystals (by-product of protein metabolism). High levels of uric acid can crystallize in the peripheral joints such as the first joint of large toe (metatarsophalangeal [MTP] joint), ankles, hands, and wrists. More common in middle-aged males older than 30 years of age.

A

Gout

85
Q

Gout Gold Standard Diagnosis

=

Recurrent _____ + Serum Uric Acid > ____ mg/dL

A

Aspiration of the synovial fluid of the joint

Microscopy exam using a polarized light is used to identify uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid to diagnose gout.

Recurrent flares + elevated serum uric acid >6.8 mg/dL

86
Q

Classic Case of Gout

Middle-aged man presents with painful, hot, red, and swollen (1) joint of (1) toe (podagra). Patient is l_____ due to severe pain from weight bearing on affected toe. History of previous attacks at same site. Precipitated by ingestion of al____, m___, or s___food. Chronic gout has (1) (small white nodules full of urates on ears and joints). History of recurrent inflammatory arthritis (gout fl_____).

A

Middle-aged man presents with painful, hot, red, and swollen MTP joint of great toe (podagra). Patient is limping due to severe pain from weight bearing on affected toe. History of previous attacks at same site. Precipitated by ingestion of alcohol, meats, or seafood. Chronic gout has tophi (small white nodules full of urates on ears and joints). History of recurrent inflammatory arthritis (gout flare).

87
Q

Uric Acid Labs in Gout

Uric acid level: Elevated >____ mg/dL

Treatment target is

During the acute phase, uric acid level is _____; uric acid level does not begin to rise until after the acute phase.

Test uric acid level ___ weeks after acute attack.

  • Other conditions that increase serum uric acid:* Ch_____/R______ therapy
  • Medications that increase uric acid:* (2) diuretics
A

Uric acid level: Elevated >6.8 mg/dL

Treatment target is <6 mg/dL

During the acute phase, uric acid level is normal; uric acid level does not begin to rise until after the acute phase.

Test uric acid level 2 weeks after acute attack.

  • Other conditions that increase serum uric acid:* Chemotherapy, radiation therapy
  • Medications that increase uric acid:* Hydrochlorothiazide, furosemide
88
Q

Gout Labs

  • CBC:* (1) level elevated
  • ESR =*
  • CRP =*
A
  • CBC:* WBC level elevated
  • ESR:* Elevated
  • CRP:* Elevated
89
Q

Gout Acute Phase Treatment

1st goal = (1) - with (3)Rx

During flares if patient is taking urate-lowering therapy such as? Should you dc it?

A

1st goal = PAIN RELIEF with

Oral Steroids, NSAIDs, or Colchicine

During flares, if patient is taking daily urate-lowering therapy (e.g., allopurinol, probenecid, febuxostat, lesinurad, pegloticase), do not discontinue it. Can continue taking these meds with gout flare meds.

90
Q

Steroids for Acute Gout

(2)

Prednisone or prednisolone 30 to 40 mg given once a day or divided into BID dosing; taper the dose over the next 7 to 10 days. or

(1)

Shorter duration (5 days) or tapered packs are also effective.

A

Prednisone or prednisolone

30 to 40 mg given once a day or divided into BID dosing; taper the dose over the next 7 to 10 days. or

Medrol Dosepak

Shorter duration (5 days) or tapered packs are also effective

91
Q

NSAIDs for Acute Gout

NSAIDs if patient refuses steroids (and does not have renal or active GI disease).

  • In_____ BID
  • _______ sodium BID
  • D______ BID
  • Cel______ BID
  • I________ (800 mg TID)

When should you discontinue the NSAIDS?

What about narcotics?

A

NSAIDs if patient refuses steroids (and does not have renal or active GI disease).

  • Indomethacin BID
  • naproxen sodium BID
  • diclofenac BID
  • celecoxib BID
  • or ibuprofen (800 mg TID).

Can discontinue NSAIDs after 2 to 3 days of complete resolution.

Do not use narcotics (not effective for gout pain).

92
Q

Colchicine for Acute Gout

Two tablets (1.2 mg) at the onset of pain and then one tablet (0.6 mg) in 1 hour. Do not take more than ______ tablets per gout flare episode. Advise to avoid eating/drinking (1) with colchicine.

  • Common side effects =*
  • Drug interactions: =*
  • Contraindications:* Any degree of (1) or (1) impairment
  • Serious and life-threatening effects:* Blood cyto_____, _____myolysis, l____ failure, n____pathy
A

Two tablets (1.2 mg) at the onset of pain and then one tablet (0.6 mg) in 1 hour. Do not take more than three tablets per gout flare episode. Advise to avoid eating grapefruit or drinking grapefruit juice with colchicine.

  • Common side effects:* Diarrhea, abdominal pain, cramps, nausea, and vomiting
  • Drug interactions:* Macrolides, azole antifungals, some antivirals, calcium channel blockers (CCBs), cyclosporine, tacrolimus, others
  • Contraindications:* Any degree of renal or hepatic impairment
  • Serious and life-threatening effects:* Blood cytopenias, rhabdomyolysis, liver failure, neuropathy
93
Q

Gout Maintenance-Urate Lowering Medications

  • Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (XOI):* (2)
  • Uricosoric agents:* (2)
  • Uricase:* (1) IV can cause anaphylaxis and infusion reactions; premedicate with antihistamines and corticosteroids
A
  • Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (XOI):* Allopurinol (Zyloprim), febuxostat (Uloric)
  • Uricosoric agents:* Probenecid, lesinurad (Zurampic)
  • Uricase:* Pegloticase IV can cause anaphylaxis and infusion reactions; premedicate with antihistamines and corticosteroids
94
Q
  • Black box warning for febuxostat (Uloric)*
  • =*
A

Gout patients with heart disease have higher rate of CV death compared with CV patients with gout treated with allopurinol.

95
Q

Urate-Lowering Therapy

(1) What is the preferred urate-lowering agent (well tolerated)? What is the initial dose and treatment target uric acid level?

Anything you should monitor with this drug?

Wait for several _____ after acute gout flare before starting on urate-lowering therapy (ULT).

  • Indications for ULT:* Tophus or t____, frequent attacks (≥__ per year)
  • Check CBC (affects bone marrow), renal function, liver function at baseline, then periodically. Preferred urate-lowering agent and generally well tolerated.
A

Allopurinol (Zyloprim) initial dose is 100 mg daily; increase dose until serum uric level is <6 mg/dL.

Check CBC (affects bone marrow), renal function, liver function at baseline, then periodically. Preferred urate-lowering agent and generally well tolerated.

Wait for several weeks after acute gout flare before starting on urate-lowering therapy (ULT).

Indications for ULT: Tophus or tophi, frequent attacks (≥2 per year)

96
Q

Allopurinol Hypersensitivity

If _____ disease, at higher risk. Manifests as fever, rash (toxic epidermal necrolysis), and hepatitis. Stop allopurinol immediately if it occurs and refer.

Consider (1) if allergic to allopurinol. Alternative med is probenecid.

____style changes and d_____ education important part of treatment.

  • Patients should be instructed to avoid/minimize (1) (<2 servings for males/<1 serving for females).
  • If overweight or obese, lose weight. Avoid fructose- or corn syrup–_____ beverages (increase uric acid). Remain well h______.
  • Reduce high protein/dietary _____ intake (red meat, shellfish, protein shakes, high dairy, organ meats).

Alternative medicine: ch_____ juice, vitamin __

A

If renal disease, at higher risk. Manifests as fever, rash (toxic epidermal necrolysis), and hepatitis. Stop allopurinol immediately if it occurs and refer.

Consider febuxostat (Uloric) if allergic to allopurinol. Alternative med is probenecid.

Lifestyle changes and dietary education important part of treatment.

  • Patients should be instructed to avoid/minimize alcohol (<2 servings for males/<1 serving for females).
  • If overweight or obese, lose weight. Avoid fructose- or corn syrup–sweetened beverages (increase uric acid). Remain well hydrated.
  • Reduce high protein/dietary purine intake (red meat, shellfish, protein shakes, high dairy, organ meats).

Alternative medicine: Cherries or red cherry juice, vitamin C

97
Q

Complications of Gout

=

A

Joint Destruction, Joint Deformity, Tophi

98
Q

(1)

More common in males (two or three times) and those who are HLA-B27 positive. Average age of onset is 20 to 40 years. Chronic inflammatory disorder (seronegative arthritis) that affects mainly the spine (axial skeleton) and the sacroiliac joints (axial spondylarthritis). Other joints affected include the shoulders, hips, knees, and sternoclavicular joints. A few develop diffuse swelling of the fingers (dactylitis). Pain is diminished with exercise and is not relieved by rest.

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

99
Q

Classic Case of Ankylosing Spondylitis

(1) age -(1) gender complains of a chronic case of _____ pain (>3 months) that started at the ___ and progressed down to the ____.

Neck pain is an ____ symptom. Reports that the pain gradually progressed from the neck to the upper back (thoracic spine) and then the lower back. Impaired spinal mobility. Joint pain keeps him awake at ____.

Associated with generalized symptoms such as low-grade f____ and f_____. May have chest pain with respiration (costo_____) and costo_____ tenderness. Long-term stiffness improves with _____. Some may have midbuttock pain (sc_____ indicates sacroiliac spine is involved).

A

Young adult male complains of a chronic case of back pain (>3 months) that started at the neck and progressed down to the spine.

Neck pain is an early symptom. Reports that the pain gradually progressed from the neck to the upper back (thoracic spine) and then the lower back. Impaired spinal mobility. Joint pain keeps him awake at night.

Associated with generalized symptoms such as low-grade fever and fatigue. May have chest pain with respiration (costochondritis) and costovertebral tenderness. Long-term stiffness improves with activity. Some may have midbuttock pain (sciatica indicates sacroiliac spine is involved).

100
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis Objective Findings

(1) Up to 40% of patients have this

How is the young male’s ROM?

Respiratory excursion =

What can happen with their back after a long time (10 years) =

A

Uveitis (up to 40% patients): Complains of eye irritation, photosensitivity, and eye pain. Scleral injection and blurred vision occur. Unilateral eye involvement is common (25%–35%). Refer to ophthalmologist as soon as possible (treated with steroids).

Causes a marked loss of ROM of the spine such as forward bending, rotation, and lateral bending.

Decreased respiratory excursion down to <2.5 cm (normal 5 cm).

Some have lordosis. Hyperkyphosis (hunchback) occurs after 10 years or more with disease.

101
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis Labs

  • ESR and CRP:* Slightly _____ ; RF is ____.
  • Spinal radiograph:* Classic (1)**
A
  • ESR and CRP:* Slightly elevated; RF is negative.
  • Spinal radiograph:* Classic “bamboo spine”** (resembles bamboo; Figure 1).
102
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis Treatment Plan

Refer to (1).

(1) cessation. Screen for a___- and d_____

Refer for (1) therapy for initial evaluation and training, including postural training, ROM, stretching.

(1) therapy combined with _____therapy is more effective than exercise alone.

Advise patient to buy a matt_____ with good support.

A

Refer to rheumatologist.

If smoker, advise smoking cessation. Screen for anxiety and depression.

Refer for physical therapy for initial evaluation and training, including postural training, ROM, stretching.

Exercise therapy combined with hydrotherapy is more effective than exercise alone.

Advise patient to buy a mattress with good support.

103
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis Treatment Plan

1st line treatment =

For severe cases =

A

1st line initial treatment

NSAIDs such as naproxen twice a day, celecoxib twice a day, ibuprofen 800 mg three times a day, or other NSAID. Usually need the maximum dose to control pain.

If high risk of bleeding, prescribe PPI with NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitor (celecoxib twice a day).

For severe cases

TNF inhibitors, biologics (e.g., etanercept), DMARDs (methotrexate), spinal fusion.

104
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis Complications

Anterior _____

____ (inflammation of the aorta)

F____ of the spine with significant loss of ROM

Spinal st_____, hyperky_____

A

Anterior uveitis

Aortitis (inflammation of the aorta)

Fusing of the spine with significant loss of ROM

Spinal stenosis, hyperkyphosis

105
Q

(1)

Very common disorder with a lifetime incidence of 85%. Usually due to soft-tissue inflammation, sciatica, sprains, muscle spasms, or herniated discs (usually on L5–S1). The majority of patients seen in primary care have nonspecific low-back pain, which is usually self-limited. Rule out fracture and other serious etiology.

A

Low-Back Pain

106
Q

Low-Back Pain

  • Acute back pain:* Up to __ weeks
  • Subacute back pain:* 4 to __ weeks
  • Chronic back pain:* Persists for __ weeks or longer
A
  • Acute back pain:* Up to 4 weeks
  • Subacute back pain:* 4 to 12 weeks
  • Chronic back pain:* Persists for 12 weeks or longer
107
Q

Low Back Pain Risk Factors

  • Ob____
  • A___
  • (1) gender
  • Sm______
  • An____, Dep______
  • Psychologically str_____ work, Physically strenuous or sed_____ work,
  • Workers’ compensation insurance, job dis______
A
  • Obesity
  • Age
  • Female
  • Smoking
  • Anxiety, Depression
  • Psychologically strenuous work, Physically strenuous or sedentary work,
  • Workers’ compensation insurance, job dissatisfaction
108
Q

Low-Back Pain Recommended Further Eval

  • History of significant tr____
  • Suspect cancer m______
  • Suspect in______ (osteomyelitis)
  • Suspect spinal/vertebral fr_____ (elderly with osteopenia/osteoporosis, chronic steroid use)
  • Patient age older than 50 with new onset of back pain (rule out ____) or pain that wakes patient from ____
  • Suspect spinal st_____ (rule out ankylosing spondylitis)
A
  • History of significant trauma
  • Suspect cancer metastases
  • Suspect infection (osteomyelitis)
  • Suspect spinal/vertebral fracture (elderly with osteopenia/osteoporosis, chronic steroid use)
  • Patient age older than 50 with new onset of back pain (rule out cancer) or pain that wakes patient from sleep
  • Suspect spinal stenosis (rule out ankylosing spondylitis)
109
Q

Low-Back Pain Recommended Further Eval

  • Suspect (1) syndrome or spinal cord compression
  • Suspect r____pathy (spinal nerve root inflammation such as sciatica)
  • Suspect ank______ s_______
  • Fevers, night sweats, weight loss, or signs of s______ illness
  • Symptoms worsening despite usual treatment
  • Herniated disc with symptoms: Common site is at L__ to S__ (buttock/leg pain)
A
  • Suspect cauda equina or spinal cord compression
  • Suspect radiculopathy (spinal nerve root inflammation such as sciatica)
  • Suspect ankylosing spondylitis
  • Fevers, night sweats, weight loss, or signs of systemic illness
  • Symptoms worsening despite usual treatment
  • Herniated disc with symptoms: Common site is at L5 to S1 (buttock/leg pain)
110
Q

Low Back Pain Imaging

Imaging of choice (1)

Best method for diagnosing a ______ disc. Bone scan may be helpful in identifying occult, lytic lesions.

What is the risk with imaging?

A

MRI

Best method for diagnosing a herniated disc. Bone scan may be helpful in identifying occult, lytic lesions.

Imaging for low-back pain without other symptoms increases risk of additional or invasive procedures.

111
Q

Low Back Pain Treatment Plan

Treatment depends on etiology. For uncomplicated back pain, use _____ (naproxen sodium); apply ____ packs if muscle spasms.

(1) if associated with muscle spasms (causes drowsiness; warn patient)

Abdominal and core-______exercises after acute phase

Consider ch_____ for uncomplicated low-back pain

NOTE: what about bed rest?

A

Treatment depends on etiology. For uncomplicated back pain, use NSAIDs (naproxen sodium); apply warm packs if muscle spasms.

Muscle relaxants if associated with muscle spasms (causes drowsiness; warn patient)

Abdominal and core-strengthening exercises after acute phase

Consider chiropractor for uncomplicated low-back pain

Bed rest is not recommended except in severe cases of low-back pain, because it will cause deconditioning (loss of muscle tone and endurance) and increased risk of pneumonia.

112
Q

Low Back Pain Complication

(1) Syndrome

Acute pressure on a s___ n____root results in inflammatory and ischemic changes to the nerve. Sacral nerves innervate p_____ structures such as the sph______ (anal and bladder). Considered a surgical ______. Needs spinal and/or nerve root _______. Refer to ___.

A

Cauda Equina Syndrome

Acute pressure on a sacral nerve root results in inflammatory and ischemic changes to the nerve. Sacral nerves innervate pelvic structures such as the sphincters (anal and bladder). Considered a surgical emergency. Needs spinal and/or nerve root decompression. Refer to ED.

113
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome Signs

Bladder incontinence is ____ common than bowel incontinence

______ anesthesia

Bilateral _____ symptoms such as paresthesias on mid______ radiating down back of the ____

A

Bladder incontinence is more common than bowel incontinence

Saddle anesthesia

Bilateral sciatica symptoms such as paresthesias on midbuttock radiating down back of the leg

114
Q

(1)

The muscle (and accompanying syndrome) is located in the buttocks, and it can compress, irritate, and entrap the sciatic nerve between its muscle layers. It is responsible for 0.3% to 6% of all cases of low-back pain.

A

Piriformis Syndrome

The piriformis muscle is located in the buttocks, and it can compress, irritate, and entrap the sciatic nerve between its muscle layers. It is responsible for 0.3% to 6% of all cases of low-back pain.

115
Q

Classic Case of Piriformis Syndrome

Patient usually complains of (1) symptoms. Sciatica symptoms may include pain and numbness of the buttocks, which may radiate down the leg.

Reports that the pain is worsened by pro_____ sitting, driving. Pain can be episodic. History of running, lifting heavy objects, falls, or excessive stair climbing.

There are maneuvers that can be done to irritate the piriformis muscle, such as (1) (flexion, adduction, internal rotation) maneuvers.

Obtain history of injury. Perform physical examination of the hip and groin, which includes inspection, palpation, ROM testing, pulses, deep tendon reflexes, and strength testing.

A

Patient usually complains of sciatica symptoms. Sciatica symptoms may include pain and numbness of the buttocks, which may radiate down the leg.

Reports that the pain is worsened by prolonged sitting, driving. Pain can be episodic. History of running, lifting heavy objects, falls, or excessive stair climbing.

There are maneuvers that can be done to irritate the piriformis muscle, such as FAIR (flexion, adduction, internal rotation) maneuvers.

Obtain history of injury. Perform physical examination of the hip and groin, which includes inspection, palpation, ROM testing, pulses, deep tendon reflexes, and strength testing.

116
Q

Piriformis Syndrome Imaging

  • (1):* Consider if limited hip ROM or chronic groin pain. Can help diagnose osteoarthritis of hip.
  • (1):* Can help diagnose tendon and soft-tissue injury around the hip and groin.
  • (1):* Can help diagnose sciatic nerve compression, stress fracture of femoral neck, cartilage tears, tendon ruptures.
A
  • Radiograph (x-ray):* Consider if limited hip ROM or chronic groin pain. Can help diagnose osteoarthritis of hip.
  • Ultrasound:* Can help diagnose tendon and soft-tissue injury around the hip and groin.
  • MRI:* Can help diagnose sciatic nerve compression, stress fracture of femoral neck, cartilage tears, tendon ruptures.
117
Q

Piriformis Syndrome Treatment Plan

Avoid pos_____ that trigger pain. Follow (1) (rest, ice, compression, elevation) guide; cold packs or heat can be used.

W____ up and st_____ before sports or exercises. Rest, cold packs, and heat may help symptoms.

Medications: N____ and muscle _____ are the most common method of treatment.

Refer for ______ therapy for stretching and exercises.

A

Avoid positions that trigger pain. Follow RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation) guide; cold packs or heat can be used.

Warm up and stretch before sports or exercises. Rest, cold packs, and heat may help symptoms.

Medications: NSAIDs and muscle relaxants are the most common method of treatment.

Refer for physical therapy for stretching and exercises.

118
Q

Piriformis Syndrome Muscle Relaxants

C______ active skeletal muscle relaxant

Side effects =

  1. ________ (Flexeril)
  2. Met______ (Skelaxin)
  3. Tiz______ (Zanaflex)
  4. Carisoprodol (Soma) can be _____; it is a Food and Drug Administration (FDA) schedule ___ substance.
A

Centrally active skeletal muscle relaxant

Side effects: Drowsiness, dizziness, nervousness, reddish-purple urine, hypotension; do not mix muscle relaxants with sedating drugs or alcohol

  1. Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
  2. Metaxalone (Skelaxin)
  3. Tizanidine (Zanaflex)
  4. Carisoprodol (Soma) can be addicting; it is a Food and Drug Administration (FDA) schedule IV substance.
119
Q

Exam Tips

Ankylosing spondylitis: Know signs and symptoms so you are able to diagnose it on the exam. (1) spine is pathognomonic for ankylosing spondylitis.

Name of cast for fractures of the wrist is “___-____ cast” (also available as a splint).

Learn how to treat gout flare-up =

Learn signs/symptoms of cauda equina = (1)

If suspected, refer to ____.

A

Ankylosing spondylitis: Know signs and symptoms so you are able to diagnose it on the exam. Bamboo spine is pathognomonic for ankylosing spondylitis.

Name of cast for fractures of the wrist is “thumb spica cast” (also available as a splint).

Learn how to treat gout flare-up = goal is pain relief with NSAIDS, steroids, or colchicine

Learn signs/symptoms of cauda equina = bladder/bowel incontinence, saddle anesthesia, bilateral sciatica sx such as parasthesia on midbuttock radiating back of leg

If suspected, refer to ED.

120
Q

Clinical Pearls

(1) is the NSAID with the fewest (1) effects, but it has the same (1) adverse effects as other NSAIDs. It can, however, increase (1), so this should be monitored.

The innervation of the bladder and anal sphincter comes from the _____ nerves and, with cauda equina, symptoms include new-onset ______ of urine (and/or bowel), ______-pattern paresthesia, sc_____.

A

Naproxen is the NSAID with the fewest CV effects, but it has the same GI adverse effects as other NSAIDs. It can, however, increase BP, so this should be monitored.

The innervation of the bladder and anal sphincter comes from the sacral nerves and, with cauda equina, symptoms include new-onset incontinence of urine (and/or bowel), saddle-pattern paresthesia, sciatica.

121
Q

Acute Musculoskeletal Injuries Treatment

=

  • Ice is best during first ___ hours postinjury.
    • 15 to ___ minutes per hour several times/day (frequency varies)
  • R____ and E_____ affected joint to help decrease swelling.
  • Compress joints as needed. Use elastic b______ wrap (joints most commonly compressed are knees and ankles); helps with swelling and provides stability.
  • Administer N_____ (naproxen BID, ibuprofen QID) for pain and swelling PRN.
A

RICE (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation)

  • Ice is best during first 48 hours postinjury.
    • 15 to 20 minutes per hour several times/day (frequency varies)
  • Rest and elevate affected joint to help decrease swelling.
  • Compress joints as needed. Use elastic bandage wrap (joints most commonly compressed are knees and ankles); helps with swelling and provides stability.
  • Administer NSAIDs (naproxen BID, ibuprofen QID) for pain and swelling PRN.
122
Q

(1)

Microtears on a tendon(s) cause inflammation, resulting in pain. Usually due to repetitive microtrauma, overuse, or strain. Gradual onset. Follow RICE mnemonic (rest, ice, compression, elevation) for acute injuries.

A

Tendinitis

123
Q

Rotator Cuff Disease

Rotator cuff disease usually involves damage to the _______ muscle, which helps move the shoulder during ___duction and _____ rotation. Caused by micro_____ that cause inflammation of the supraspinatus tendon. Jobs or sports with repetitive ____head activity, such as swimming, tennis, golf, weightlifting, gymnastics, and volleyball, increase risk for rotator cuff disease.

A

(Supraspinatus Tendinitis)

Rotator cuff disease usually involves damage to the supraspinatus muscle, which helps move the shoulder during abduction and external rotation. Caused by microtears that cause inflammation of the supraspinatus tendon. Jobs or sports with repetitive overhead activity, such as swimming, tennis, golf, weightlifting, gymnastics, and volleyball, increase risk for rotator cuff disease.

124
Q

Classic Case of Supraspinatus Tendinitis

Patient with history of _____ over____ activity (sport or job). Complains of shoulder pain with overhead movements such as brushing ___ or putting on a _____. There is local p____ tenderness over the tendon located on the ____rior area of the shoulder. May have pain at night when sleeping on the side of the affected shoulder.

A

Patient with history of repetitive overhead activity (sport or job). Complains of shoulder pain with overhead movements such as brushing hair or putting on a shirt. There is local point tenderness over the tendon located on the anterior area of the shoulder. May have pain at night when sleeping on the side of the affected shoulder.

125
Q

Maneuvers to test Rotator Cuff Disease (Supraspinatus Tendinitis)

(2)

A
  • Painful arc test*
  • Jobe’s test (empty can test)*
126
Q
  • Painful arc test*
  • =*
  • Positive result =*
A

Starting with both arms down at the sides, ask patient to raise both arms (abduction) up towards head in an arch

Positive: Shoulder pain that occurs between 60 and 120 degrees of active abduction

127
Q
  • Jobe’s test (empty can test)*
  • =*

Positive results =

A

This is a test for the strength of the supraspinatus muscle. Instruct patient to straighten arm at 90 degrees of abduction with 30 degrees of forward flexion, then internally rotate the shoulder. Tell patient to resist when examiner attempts to adduct the arm

Positive: Shoulder pain without weakness (tendinopathy), shoulder pain with weakness (suggests tendon tear)

128
Q

Rotator Cuff Disease Imaging

(1) is useful for initial evaluation of tendon tears.
(1) can identify rotator cuff tear(s).

A

Musculoskeletal ultrasound is useful for initial evaluation of tendon tears.

MRI can identify rotator cuff tear(s).

129
Q

Rotator Cuff Disease Treatment

Initial treatment: ____ affected shoulder and apply _____ packs (15 minutes cold pack, repeated about two to four times per day), especially during acute phase for 24 to __ hours.

Rx (1) for pain as needed.

(1) therapy to rehabilitate shoulder.

Refer to (1) specialist if inadequate or poor response to conservative management.

A

Initial treatment: Rest affected shoulder and apply cold packs (15 minutes cold pack, repeated about two to four times per day), especially during acute phase for 24 to 48 hours.

NSAIDs for pain as needed.

Physical therapy to rehabilitate shoulder.

Refer to orthopedic specialist if inadequate or poor response to conservative management.

130
Q

(1)

Common cause of elbow pain. Lateral epicondyle tendon pain (_____-elbow) or medial epicondyle tendon pain (_____-elbow). Usually caused by overuse injury. Most cases not due to sports.

A

Epicondylitis

Common cause of elbow pain. Lateral epicondyle tendon pain (tennis elbow) or medial epicondyle tendon pain (golfer’s elbow). Usually caused by overuse injury. Most cases not due to sports.

131
Q

Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis Elbow) Classic Case

Gradual onset of pain on the ____side of the elbow that sometimes r_____ to the ____arms. Pain worse with tw____ or gr_____ movements (opening jars, shaking hands). Physical exam will show local ______ness over the _____ epicondyle.

A

Gradual onset of pain on the outside of the elbow that sometimes radiates to the forearms. Pain worse with twisting or grasping movements (opening jars, shaking hands). Physical exam will show local tenderness over the lateral epicondyle.

132
Q
Medial Epicondylitis (Golfer’s Elbow)
 *Classic Case*

Gradual onset of aching pain on the ____ area of the elbow (the side of the elbow that is touching the body), which can last a few weeks to months. Pain can be mild to severe. More common in (1) gender age 45 to 64 years. Occurs in the part of the elbow also called the “_____ bone” (ulnar nerve). Physical exam will show localized tenderness over the _____ epicondyle.

A

Gradual onset of aching pain on the medial area of the elbow (the side of the elbow that is touching the body), which can last a few weeks to months. Pain can be mild to severe. More common in women age 45 to 64 years. Occurs in the part of the elbow also called the “funny bone” (ulnar nerve). Physical exam will show localized tenderness over the medial epicondyle.

133
Q

Lateral Epicondylitis (Tennis Elbow) Complication

(1)

Patient will complain of? On what fingers?

What is the worst case scenario (“___ hand”)

Refer to (1) if you suspect this condition

A

Ulnar nerve neuropathy and/or palsy

(long-term pressure/damage).

Complaint of numbness/tingling on the little finger and the lateral side of the ring finger and weakness of the hand.

Worst-case scenario is development of a permanent deformity called “claw hand.”

Refer to neurologist if suspect ulnar nerve palsy.

134
Q

Hamstring Muscle Injury

Hamstring is composed of how many muscles? Located where?

Hamstring muscles are used for what movements (2)?

Refer to (1) specialist

A

The hamstring is composed of three muscles and is located in the posterior thigh.

The hamstring muscles are used for knee flexion and hip extension.

Refer patients to orthopedic specialist.

135
Q

Classic Case of Hamstring Muscle Injury

Most hamstring injuries are?

The patient will report hearing a _____ noise accompanied by the sudden onset of ____erior thigh _____ while performing activities such as r_____ at a fast pace or sprinting.

On physical exam, there may be? A muscular _____ might be palpable.

A

Most hamstring injuries are acute.

The patient will report hearing a popping noise accompanied by the sudden onset of posterior thigh pain while performing activities such as running at a fast pace or sprinting.

On physical exam, there may be swelling, bruising, and tenderness on the posterior thigh. A muscular mass might be palpable.

136
Q

Hamstring Muscle Injury Imaging

=

A

Musculoskeletal ultrasonography and MRI are the best methods of assessing hamstring injuries.

137
Q

Sprains

=

Most common type of ankle sprain?

Most common cause of ankle sprains?

A

Sprains are overstretching or tearing of a ligament

(can be partial or complete rupture of ligament)

Lateral ankle sprains are the most common type.

Ankle sprains are usually due to sports participation. The most common sports that cause ankle injuries are basketball, indoor volleyball, track and field, and climbing.

138
Q

Lateral and Medial Ankle Sprains

Most common mechanisms

  • Lateral ankle sprain:*
  • Medial ankle sprain:*
  • It can cause an ______ fracture of the medial ______ due to pulling by the ruptured ____ ligament.
A
  • Lateral ankle sprain:* The most common mechanism of injury is inversion of the plantar-flexed foot.
  • Medial ankle sprain:* The most common cause is forced eversion of the ankle
  • It can cause an avulsion fracture of the medial malleolus due to pulling by the ruptured deltoid ligament.
139
Q

Ottawa Rules (of the Ankle)

What is the purpose of these rules?

In mild-to-moderate sprains during acute phase, use (1) mnemonic and apply (1)

For pain and swelling, recommend Rx(1) for pain as needed.

A

Ottawa rules are used to determine whether a patient needs radiographs of the injured ankle in the ED. The Ottawa ankle rules are highly sensitive (96%–99.6%) for excluding ankle fracture.

In mild-to-moderate sprains during acute phase, use RICE and elastic bandage wrap.

For pain and swelling, recommend NSAIDs for pain as needed.

140
Q

Grading of Sprains

Grade I Sprain

Grade II Sprain

Grade III Sprain

A

Grade I Sprain = Mild sprain (slight stretching and some damage to ligament fibers); patient is able to bear weight and ambulate. There is no joint instability present during the ankle evaluation

Grade II Sprain = partial tearing of ligament, Moderate sprain; ecchymoses, moderate swelling, and pain are present. Joint tender to palpation. Ambulation and weight bearing are painful. Mild-to-moderate joint instability occurs. Consider x-ray, referral.

Grade III Sprain = complete rupture of ligament Severe pain, swelling, tenderness, and ecchymosis. Significant mechanical ankle instability and significant loss of function and motion. Unable to bear weight or ambulate. Refer to ED for ankle fracture.

141
Q

Grade III (Complete Rupture of Ligaments) X-ray

Ankle x-ray series is required if there is pain in the _____ zone and

  • Inability to (1) immediately after the injury or
  • Inability to ambulate at least ____ steps or
  • Bone _____ over the ____rior edge or tip of the ____ malleolus or
  • Bone ______ over the _____rior edge or tip of the _____ malleolus
A

Ankle x-ray series is required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and

  • Inability to bear weight immediately after the injury or
  • Inability to ambulate at least four steps or
  • Bone tenderness over the posterior edge or tip of the medial malleolus or
  • Bone tenderness over the posterior edge or tip of the lateral malleolus
142
Q

Ankle Sprain Physical Exam

First, ask about the mech_____ of the injury along with symptoms.

Look for sw____ and ecc______.

_____ the entire ankle (lateral side and medial side), Achilles tendon, and the foot.

Check for ____ bearing, R_ _, ability to amb_____, pedal and posterior tibial p_____.

G_____ the sprain.

A

First, ask about the mechanics of the injury along with symptoms.

Look for swelling and ecchymosis.

Palpate the entire ankle (lateral side and medial side), Achilles tendon, and the foot.

Check for weight bearing, ROM, ability to ambulate, pedal and posterior tibial pulses.

Grade the sprain.

143
Q

Ankle Sprain Treatment Plan

(1) the sprain and determine if (1) series is needed or refer to orthopedics.

Oral or topical (1) for pain

Follow the (1) mnemonic

When to start rehab?

A

Grade the sprain and determine if ankle x-ray series is needed or refer to orthopedics.

NSAIDs (oral) and topical NSAIDs (e.g., Voltaren gel, diclofenac patches) can be used to treat pain and swelling. Can use combination topical and PO NSAIDs.

Follow the RICE guide (rest, ice, compression, elevation).

Early rehabilitation important. Refer for physical therapy after initial swelling and pain have decreased so that the patient can tolerate simple exercises.

144
Q

Ankle Sprain Grade based Treatment

Grade (1) do not require immobilization. Use elastic wrap (ACE bandage) for a few days.

Grade (1) sprains are managed by an orthopedic or sports specialist.

Grade (1) sprains (moderate sprain) may need more support. Use ACE and an Aircast or similar splint for a few weeks.

A

Grade I sprains (mild sprains) do not require immobilization. Use elastic wrap (ACE bandage) for a few days.

Grade III sprains are managed by an orthopedic or sports specialist.

Grade II sprains (moderate sprain) may need more support. Use ACE and an Aircast or similar splint for a few weeks.

145
Q

Meniscus Tear (Knees)

Meniscus =

How do meniscus tears happen?

A

Meniscus = cartilaginous lining between certain joints that is shaped like a crescent, helps to cushion joints (act as shock absorbers and stabilizes the knee)

Tears in the meniscus result from trauma and/or overuse. Sports with higher risk are soccer, basketball, and football.

146
Q

Classic Case of Meniscus Tear (Knees)

Patient may complain of cl____, l_____, or b_____ of the knee(s). Some patients are unable to fully _____ affected knee. Patient may l____. Complains of knee pain and difficulty walking and bending the knee. Some complain of joint l____ pain. Decreased ROM. Certain movements aggravate symptoms.

A

Patient may complain of clicking, locking, or buckling of the knee(s). Some patients are unable to fully extend affected knee. Patient may limp. Complains of knee pain and difficulty walking and bending the knee. Some complain of joint line pain. Decreased ROM. Certain movements aggravate symptoms.

147
Q
Meniscus Tear (Knees)
*Physical Examination*

Assess for joint ____ tenderness and knee ROM. Look for l____ or inability to fully ____ or straighten the leg. Will be unable to sq___ or kneel. Knee may be s_____ (joint effusion). Observe patient’s g___.

A

Assess for joint line tenderness and knee ROM. Look for locking or inability to fully extend or straighten the leg. Will be unable to squat or kneel. Knee may be swollen (joint effusion). Observe patient’s gait.

148
Q

Meniscus Tear Maneuvers

(2)

A

McMurray’s Test

Apley’s Test

149
Q

McMurray’s Test

=

Positive Test =

A

Pain is supine. The examiner holds the knee and palpates the joint line with one hand. The other hand holds the sole of the foot. Perform internal rotation of tibia and apply varus stress, then return the knee to maximal flexion, then extend the knee with external rotation of the tibia and apply valgus stress

Positive: Pain, clicking, or if the knee locks

150
Q

Apley’s Test

=

Positive test =

A

Patient is prone with affected knee flexed at 90 degrees. Stabilize patient’s thigh (with examiner’s knee or hand). Press the patient’s heel downward (push heel toward the floor) while the foot is internally and externally rotated. The examiner is compressing the meniscus between the tibia and femur while twisting the foot.

Positive: Pain is elicited with the compression of the knee.

151
Q

Meniscus Tear (Knees) Best Diagnostic

(1)*

Refer to (1) specialist for repair

A

MRI*

Refer to orthopedic specialist for repair.

152
Q

Meniscus Tear (Knees) Treatment Plan

Follow the (1) rules.

  • Rest the knee and avoid or minimize positions that overstress the knees, such as sq_____, kn____, climbing s_____.

Apply (1) pack for ___ minutes every to 6 hours, el___ the limb. Many need cr_____.

(1)* strengthening exercises - When the pain and swelling are resolved.

  • The quadriceps are the largest muscles of the body; they will help to stabilize the knees. Sw______, water aerobics, and light jogging are possible exercises.

(1) or (1) for pain as needed.

L_____ or unstable knees need to be referred to (1); many need _____scopy to repair menisci.

A

Follow the RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation) rules.

  • Rest the knee and avoid or minimize positions that overstress the knees, such as squatting, kneeling, climbing stairs.

Apply ice/cold pack for 15 minutes every 4 to 6 hours, elevate the limb. Many need crutches.

Quadriceps-strengthening exercises - When the pain and swelling are resolved

  • The quadriceps are the largest muscles of the body; they will help to stabilize the knees. Swimming, water aerobics, and light jogging are possible exercises.

NSAIDs or acetaminophen for pain as needed.

Locking or unstable knees need to be referred to orthopedist; many need arthroscopy to repair menisci.

153
Q

(1)

Condition where a type of bursitis that is located behind the knee (popliteal fossa) ruptures. The bursae are protective, fluid-filled synovial sacs located on the joints that act as a cushion and protect the bones, tendons, joints, and muscles. Sometimes when a joint is damaged and/or inflamed, synovial fluid production increases, causing the bursa to enlarge.

A

Ruptured Baker’s Cyst (Popliteal Cyst)

154
Q

Classic Case of Ruptured Baker’s Cyst (Popliteal Cyst)

Physically active patient (jogs or runs) or older patient with history of knee pain from DJD complains of _____-like mass ______ one knee that is s___ and sm_____.

(1) Sign = The mass will soften when the knee is ____ at 45 degrees because there is less tension.

__symptomatic or will have symptoms such as pressure sensation, posterior knee pain, and stiffness.

If cyst ruptures, will complain of ____ pain, er_____, and tenderness of the ___. It is an inflammatory reaction resembling cell_____, deep vein ______, popliteal artery aneurysm, ganglion cyst, tumors.

A

Physically active patient (jogs or runs) or older patient with history of knee pain from DJD complains of ball-like mass behind one knee that is soft and smooth.

Foucher’s sign = The mass will soften when the knee is bent at 45 degrees because there is less tension.

Asymptomatic or will have symptoms such as pressure sensation, posterior knee pain, and stiffness. If cyst ruptures, will complain of severe pain, erythema, and tenderness of the calf. It is an inflammatory reaction resembling cellulitis, deep vein thrombosis (DVT), popliteal artery aneurysm, ganglion cyst, tumors.

155
Q

Baker’s Cyst (Popliteal Cyst) Workup

Diagnoses usually made by?

(1) as initial testing if DVT is suspected or uncertain of diagnosis
(1) test if diagnosis is uncertain

Rule out plain bursitis from bursitis with _____ (“____ joint”).

If imaging desired or diagnosis in question, initial test is (1) and plain (1) of the knee and calf.

A

Diagnosed by clinical presentation and history.

Ultrasound as initial testing if DVT is suspected or uncertain diagnosis, initial testing is the ultrasound, which can show the ruptured cyst or venous compression.

MRI if diagnosis is uncertain.

Rule out plain bursitis from bursitis with infection (“septic joint”).

If imaging desired or diagnosis in question, initial test is ultrasound and plain radiography of the knee and calf.

156
Q

Baker’s Cyst (Popliteal Cyst) Treatment Plan

(1) mnemonic and (1) with elastic bandage wrap

(1) as needed for pain

(1) if large bursa causing pain

Warn patient that the cyst can ____ in the future. Most popliteal cysts are __symptomatic and do not require intervention.

A

Follow RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation) procedures. Gentle compression with elastic bandage wrap.

Administer NSAIDs as needed.

Large bursa can be drained with syringe using 18-gauge needle if causing pain.

Warn patient that the cyst can recur in the future. Most popliteal cysts are asymptomatic and do not require intervention.

157
Q

Aspiration of Baker’s Cyst Synovial Fluid

What is the normal color of synovial fluid?

If it looks cloudy and joint is red, swollen, and hot, what should you do?

After it is drained, what can you give to decrease inflammation?

A

Synovial fluid is a clear, golden color.

If cloudy synovial fluid is present and the joint is red, swollen, and hot, order a C&S to rule out a septic joint infection.

After it is drained, an intraarticular injection of a glucocorticoid (triamcinolone acetonide) can decrease inflammation.

158
Q

Exam Tips

Recognize Baker’s cyst presentation =

Plain radiograph of a joint (such as x-ray of knee) will show bony changes or narrowing of joint space (OA), but not soft tissue such as the meniscus or ligaments. The best imaging test for cartilage, meniscus, or tendon damage is ____.

The gold-standard test for assessing any joint damage is ____.

A

Recognize Baker’s cyst presentation = Soft, smooth mass behind knee that gets softer with bending knee (bc decreases tension)

Plain radiograph of a joint (such as x-ray of knee) will show bony changes or narrowing of joint space (OA), but not soft tissue such as the meniscus or ligaments. The best imaging test for cartilage, meniscus, or tendon damage is MRI.

The gold-standard test for assessing any joint damage is MRI.

159
Q

Clinical Pearls

Do not forget that NSAIDs increase (3)

The best imaging test for suspected stress fractures is?

A

Do not forget that NSAIDs increase CV risk, renal damage, and GI bleeding.

The best imaging test for suspected stress fractures is MRI. Plain radiographs do not show stress fractures.