Musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

pain with a FABER test means there is likely dysfunction in the

A

posterior capsule of the hip, lumbar or SI joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

FABER is a test for what condition

A

FAI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the test to determine SCFE?

A

anterior impingement test which involved hip flexion to 80-90 degrees, ADD and IR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

typical signs of SCFE

A

pain in the groin, a leg length discrepancy, limitations in IR and toeing out during gait. also, you get knee pain too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

as gait matures, velocity

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

as gait matures, cadence

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

as gait develops step length

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

as gait develops, single limb stance time

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Speeds test indicates a

A

SLAP tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Excessive foot pronation during midstance to toe off is the result of a compensated ___ deformity.

A

rear foot (forefoot) varus deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is a hallmark sign of posterior tibial tendon dysfunction

A

“too many toes” sign, where you have hindfoot valgus and forefoot abduction so that you see too many toes when looking at someone from behind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cubital tunnel entraps the ___ nerve

A

ulnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are two MSK conditions that a radial nerve glide can treat

A

lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow) and DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Marked ulnar drift is a hallmark sign of __

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what kinds of ligaments are affected in people with RA

A

cervical spine ligaments. so you must do cervical spine stabilization therex and promote proper alignment and posture for this population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

for a s/p meniscus repair, what do you want to limit and why

A

you want to limit knee flexion to 90 degrees to not increase shear forces on the newly repaired meniscus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a stoppage gait

A

this occurs with weakness in ankle dorsiflexors. The knee or the hip must excessively flex to clear the foot from the ground. Or the lower leg must externally rotate to prevent the foot from dragging on the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what compensation or deviation will you see in someone with a weak glut med during gait

A

lateral trunk lean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gait compensations with someone with a weak quadriceps

A

lateral trunk lean to unweight the weak quad or circumduction of the leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what about gait compensations for someone with a weak glue max

A

they will have a posterior thrust of the trunk to keep the hip in extension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

longus Colli and longus capitis are____ and can be tested with this test

A

deep neck flexors, and the deep neck flexor test.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Scheuermann disease (describe it )

A

this affects teenaged boys, and affects T7-T10 typically. this is increased thoracic kyphosis and lumbar lordosis with pain in the middle to lower thoracic region and pan with rotation side to side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

axillary nerve innervates

A

deltoid and teres minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

long thoracic nerve innervates the

A

SA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

supra scapular nerve innervates the

A

infra and supra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

musculocutaneous nerves innervates the

A

biceps, brachialis, coracobrachialis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how can you differentiate between a functional and structural rib hump

A

a functional rib hump is only present in standing, not in full forward flexion. The structural rib hump will be present in both of those conditions (standing and full forward flexion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what will the rotation and side bending be if there is a right rib hump

A

there will be right rotation and left side bending.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

for scoliosis, describe how the side bending and rotating will be for humps

A

the rotation will be ipsilateral to the hump and the side bending will be contralateral.

30
Q

power requires a combination of ___ and ___

A

strength and speed. To improve power, you must increase speed and strength

31
Q

to improve overall strength, at what levels do untrained individuals/trained need to exercise (what percentage over their 1RM)

A

untrained, over 60%

trained, between 80-100% 1RM

32
Q

Tests for acromioclavicular joint dysfunction include the ___ ___ and ___

A

O’Brien’s
Paxino’s
AC joint palpation.

33
Q

shoulder instability and clicking with repetitive throwing activities is indicative of

A

labral tear.

34
Q

Additional special tests to assess for labral tears including the ___, ____, ___, ___, ___, and ___

A
compression rotation test 
Speed's test 
crank test 
Yergason test 
anterior slide test
active compression test
35
Q

subacromial impingement symptoms include

A

painful arc and pain with overhead activities.

36
Q

tendons injured in De Quervain tenosynovitis are located within the

A

anatomical snuffbox

37
Q

tendons of the anatomical snuffbox

A

APL (abductor pollicus longus)
EPL (extensors pollicus longus)
EPB (extensor pollicus brevis)

38
Q

step off deformity prognosis

A

3 weeks of immobilization and 6 weeks to return to activity.

39
Q

Legg- Calvé- Perthes disease has limitations in which motions of the hip

A

IR and abduction over 50 degrees. (this is the necrosis of the femoral head)

40
Q

most ADLs require how much supination and pronation

A

50 degrees

41
Q

what are some signs and symptoms of CRPS

A
sensitivity to temperatures
increased sweating
burning pain 
sensitive to very light touches 
skin color and texture changes 
changes to the nails, skin, hair (tropic changes)
42
Q

describe the Tinel test and what its function is

A

tapping the median nerve for carpal tunnel to show nerve regrowth by determining where the tapping creates differences. This is done distally to proximally.

43
Q

Finklestein’s is used to test for

A

DeQuervain’s tenosynovitis or Hoffmans disease, which is a paratenoditis of the 1st digit.

44
Q

CTS will present as N/T in which fingers

A

thumb, 1st, 2nd, 3rd and lateral part of 4th.

45
Q

optimal length for finger flexors (to help with grip strength) is at what position of the wrist

A

30 degrees of extension at the wrist, to help with the tenodysis grip.

46
Q

what is tight and what is weak in lower crossed syndrome

A

the erector spinae and the hip flexors are tight in the lower crossed. weak abs and gluteus max.

47
Q

lower crossed syndrome has what kind of tilt in the pelvis

A

anterior

48
Q

reverse TSA will dislocate in which of the following positions and in what direction

A

IR, ADD and extension.

in an anterior/inferior direction.

49
Q

humeroulnar distraction increases…

A

elbow flexion

50
Q

humeroradial posterior glides improve

A

elbow extension

51
Q

radioulnar posterior glide improves

A

pronation

52
Q

radioulnar anterior glide improves

A

supination

53
Q

a talo crural P-A mob improves

A

ankle PF

54
Q

tibiofemoral posterior glide improves

A

knee extension

55
Q

Piriformis O and I

A

S2-4 of sacrum and attaches to greater trochanter of femur.

56
Q

what does the piriformis do

A

ER and ABD of the hip

HOWEVER, above 90 degrees of hip flexion, it will IR and flex the hip.

57
Q

gluteus min actions

A

ABD and ER

58
Q

obturator externus actions

A

ADD and ER

59
Q

obturator internus actions

A

ER if the hip is in neutral
IR of the ilium
ABD if the hip is flexed past 90 degrees

60
Q

GH anterior glide helps improve

A

extension

61
Q

inferior glides of the GH improve

A

abduction and reaching out the side and abduction.

62
Q

posterior glides of GH can improve

A

horizontal adduction

63
Q

describe when you will brace, or do surgery in a scoliosis case

A

bracing occurs when the curve is between 25 and 40 degrees, surgery over 45. Anything less than 25 conservative management

64
Q

when would you notice the iliopsoas tendon snapping? in what position? where would it cause pain

A

pain in the front of the hip, internal pain. when the hip is flexed to 40 degrees in ABD and ER to

65
Q

hone will the ITB snap

A

with activities of hip flexion and extension with IR like running

66
Q

when will the acetabular labrum cause snapping

A

with extension, adduction and IR, but it will be a deep deep snap.

67
Q

how will the iliofemoral ligament make snapping noises when moving

A

with hip flexed to 45 degrees, and the leg moving in and out of flexion and extension with ABD and ER.

68
Q

L1 wedge fracture may indicate that there is

A

osteoporosis

69
Q

concave on convex

A

same

70
Q

convex on concave

A

opposite

71
Q

for people with osteoporosis and compression fractures, what is the likely position they will be in

A

in a flexion based position, so stretch opposite