Musculoskeletal Flashcards

0
Q

T2 MRI demonstrates what and is best used for what structures?

A

Demonstrates high water content (WWII)

Best for soft tissue structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

T1 MRI demonstrates what and is best used for what structures?

A

Demonstrates fat within tissues

Best for bony anatomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe s/s with DJD

A
  1. Pain stiffness rising
  2. Pain eases through morning (4-5hrs)
  3. Pain increases with repetitive act
  4. Pain is “soreness an nagging”
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe facet joint dysfunction s/s

A
  1. Stiff upon rising
  2. Loss of motion accompanied by pain
  3. Pain is sharp with certain mvmt
  4. Stationary positions increase s/s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe s/s of discal, with nerve root involvement

A
  1. No pain in reclined/semi reclined position
  2. Pain increases with WB activities
  3. Pain is shooting, burning, stabbing
  4. May have altered strength
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe s/s of spinal stenosis

A
  1. Pain is related to position
  2. Flexed position decreases pain
  3. Extended increases pain
  4. Pain as numbness, tightness, cramping
  5. Walking any distance causes s/s
  6. Pain may persist for hours after assuming Reston position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe s/s of vascular claudication

A
  1. Pain is consistent in all spinal positions
  2. Pain brought on by exertion
  3. Relieved promptly c rest
  4. Pain described as numbness
  5. Usually has decreased/absent pulses
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe s/s of neoplastic disease

A
  1. Describes pain as gnawing, intense, penetrating
  2. Pain not resolved by changes in position, time of day or activity level
  3. Pain will wake patient
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many degrees of elevation happen at GH vs scapulothoracic?

A

GH: 120 deg of elevation (abd or flex)
ST: 60 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Compression of what nerve and artery is involved in “crutch palsy?”

A

Radial nerve and ancillary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe Yergason’s test

A
  1. Tests integrity of transverse lig
  2. May also identify bicipital tendonosis/tendonopathy

*sitting, shldr neutral, elbow 90, 4arm pronated

**resist supination, and shldr ER

***long head biceps will pop out of groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe Speed’s test

A
  1. IDs bicipital tendonosis/opathy
  • arm extended and supinated
  • *resisted shldr flexion
  • **reproduces pain in long head of biceps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What special tests, test bicipital tendonosis/opathy?

A
  1. Yergason’s
  2. Speed’s
  3. Neer’s (long head biceps & supraspinatus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What special tests, test tear/impingement of supraspinatus?

A
  1. Empty can (supraspinatus & possible supra scapular nerve)

2. Neer’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What special tests, tests full rotator cuff tear?

A
  1. Drop Arm Test

**slowly passively abducted to 120 deg; pt to slowly lower arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What special tests, tests the labrum?

A
  1. Clunk test (push GH ant while ER)

2. Scour

16
Q

Froment’s sign tests what?

A

Identifies ulnar nerve dysfunction.

  • grasps paper between 1-2nd digits
  • *look for IP flexion which indicated weak adductor pollicis
17
Q

What is the normal amount that can be discriminated with the two point discrimination test?

A

6mm

18
Q

Ely’s tests what?

A

Identifies tight rectus femoris

*prone c knee at 90. Observe hip

19
Q

Craig’s tests what?

A

Abnormal femoral antetorsion angle

  • normal 8-15 deg of hip IR
    15 indicated anteverted
20
Q

Pivot shift tests what?

A

ACL, anterolateral rotary instability

  • hip flex abd to 30 c slight IR, knee ext
  • *place vagus force through knee while flexing knee
  • **tibia relocating at ~30-40deg “clunk” (reduced by IT Band)
21
Q

How do you test the lateral meniscus with Mcmurray’s?

A
  • Supine, knee max flex
  • *IR and extend knee
  • **click pop
22
Q

How do you test the medial meniscus with Mcmurray’s?

A
  • supine, knee max flex
  • *ER and Ext knee
  • **click/pop
23
Q

Apley’s tests what?

A

Helps differentiate between meniscus or ligament involvement

24
Q

Hughston’s tests what?

A

Plica syndrome

  • supine, knee flexed, tibia IR, patella passive medial glide
  • *flex an extend knee
  • **popping over medial fem condyle
25
Q

What’s the normal Q angle measurement?

A

13 deg for men

18 deg for women

26
Q

Noble compression tests what?

A

IT band friction syndrome

***pain over lateral fem condyle at ~30 deg flexion

27
Q

Thompson’s tests what?

A

Integrity of Achilles’ tendon

28
Q

Describe arthrogryposis multiplex congenita

A

Congenital
Limitation in joint motion
“Sausage-like” appearance of limbs

29
Q

Describe Osteogenesis imperfecta

A
  1. Inherited; autosomal dominant
  2. Abnormal collagen synthesis
  3. Unbalanced bone deposition/absorption
  4. Cortical/cancellous bone very thin & brittle
30
Q

Describe Osteochondritis Dissecans

A

Separation of articular cartilage from underlying bone

*usually medial fem condyle near inter condylar notch

31
Q

Describe Myositis Ossificans

A
  1. Abnormal calcification within muscle belly

2. Can be induced by trauma (also, early mobilization and stretching following trauma)

32
Q

Describe CRPS 1

A
  1. Triggered by tissue injury

2. No underlying nerve injury

33
Q

Describe CRPS 2

A
  1. Clearly associated with nerve injury
34
Q

Describe Paget’s disease

A
  1. Thought to be linked to viral inf
  2. Metabolic bone disease
  3. Abnormal bone formation
  4. CRI spinal stenosis, facet arthropathy, spinal fractures