Muscle, bone, and fractures Flashcards

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1
Q

Define muscle proprioreceptors

A

specialized sensory receptors that relay info about muscle dynamics

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2
Q

Describe the neuronal pathway in muscle stretch receptors

A
  1. Increased length & speed of stretch
  2. Afferent pathway via dorsal root ganglion
  3. Activation of inhibitory interneuron and alpha motor neuron
  4. Simultaneous inhibition of antagonist muscle (prevents overstretching) & activation of agonist muscle (contraction)
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3
Q

Type of innervation of muscle stretch receptors + location

A

Type Ia and II sensory axons
Located in the body of muscle

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4
Q

What activates muscle stretch receptors

A

Increased muscle stretch
Responsible for deep tendon reflexes

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5
Q

Describe the nerve pathway for Golgi tendon organ

A
  1. Increased tension
  2. Afferent pathway via DRG
  3. Activation of inhibitory interneuron
  4. Inhibition of agonist muscle (reduced tension within muscle and tendon
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6
Q

Type of innervation of Golgi tendon organ + location

A

Type Ib sensory axons
Tendons

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7
Q

What activates Golgi tendon organ

A

Increased muscle tension

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8
Q

Location of endochondral ossification

A

Bones of axial & appendicular skeleton, base of skull

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9
Q

Describe the process of endochondral ossification

A
  1. Cartilagenous model of bone is made by chondrocytes
  2. Osteoblasts/clasts later replace woven bone and remodel to lamellar bone
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10
Q

When does woven bone occur in adults

A

After fractures and in Paget disease

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11
Q

In what disease is endochondral ossification defective

A

Achondroplasia

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12
Q

Where does membranous ossification occur

A

Bones of calvarium, facial bones, clavicle

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13
Q

Describe the process of membranous ossification

A

Woven bone formed directly wo cartilage, then remodeled to lamellar

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14
Q

Describe the function of osteoblasts

A

Builds bone by secreting collagen & catalyzing mineralization in alkaline environments via ALP

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15
Q

Differentiation of osteoblasts

A

From mesenchymal stem cells in periosteum

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16
Q

What factors regulate osteoblast activity

A

Bone ALP, osteocalcin, propeptides of type I collagen

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17
Q

Describe the function of osteoclasts

A

Dissolves bone by secreting protons and collagenases

18
Q

Differentiation of osteoclasts

A

Fusion of monocyte/macrophage lineage precursors

19
Q

How is osteoclast activity regulated

A

RANK receptors on osteoclasts are stimulated by RANKL (RANK ligand, expressed on osteoblasts)
OPG (osteoprotegerin, a RANKL decoy receptor) binds RANKL to prevent RANK-RANKL interaction = reduction in activity

20
Q

Describe the function of PTH in bone formation

A

At low, intermittent levels, exerts anabolic effects (building bone) on osteoblasts and osteoclasts (indirect)

21
Q

What are the chronic effects of high PTH levels

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism
cause catabolic effects (osteitis fibrosa cystica)

22
Q

Function of estrogen in bone formation

A

Inhibits apoptosis in osteoblasts and induces apoptosis in osteoclasts
Causes closure of epiphyseal plate during puberty

23
Q

What does estrogen deficiency cause to bones

A

(Surgical/postmenopausal)
Increases cycles of remodeling and bone resorption = risk of osteoporosis

24
Q

Describe medial epicondylitis

A

Golfer’s elbow
due to repetitive flexion or idiopathic = pain near medial epicondyle

25
Q

Describe lateral epicondylitis

A

Tennis elbow
Repetitive extension (backhand shots) or idiopathic = pain near lateral epicondyle

26
Q

Who are found to commonly have clavicle fractures

A

Children and as birth trauma

27
Q

Causes of clavicle fractures

A

fall on outstretched hand or by direct trauma to shoulder

28
Q

Weakest point of clavicle

A

at the junction of middle and lateral thirds

29
Q

Common location of clavicle fracture

A

middle third segment

30
Q

Presentation of clavicle fracture

A

Presents as shoulder drop, shortened clavicle (lateral fragment is depressed due to arm weight and medially rotated by arm adductors [eg, pectoralis major])

31
Q

Define Guyon canal syndrome and who are they seen in

A

Compression of ulnar nerve at wrist
Classically seen in cyclists due to pressure from handlebars
May also be seen with fracture/dislocation of the hook of hamate

32
Q

Define carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Entrapment of median nerve in carpal tunnel (between transverse carpal ligament and carpal bones) = nerve compression causing paresthesia, pain, and numbness in distribution of median nerve

33
Q

Clinical findings of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Thenar eminence atrophies but sensation spared (bc palmar cutaneous branch enters hand external to carpal tunnel)

34
Q

Tests for carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Tinel sign (percussion of wrist causes tingling) and Phalen maneuver (90° flexion of wrist causes tingling)

35
Q

Associations of carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Pregnancy (due to edema), RA, hypothyroidism, diabetes, acromegaly, dialysis-related amyloidosis
May be associated with repetitive use

36
Q

Define metacarpal neck fracture, seen commonly in which metacarpal

A

Also called boxer’s fracture
Common fracture caused by direct blow with a closed fist (eg, from punching a wall). Most commonly seen in the 5th metacarpal

37
Q

Define iliopsoas abscess and pathology

A

Collection of pus in iliopsoas compartment
May spread from blood (hematogenous) or from adjacent structures (eg, vertebral osteomyelitis, tuberculous spondylitis/Pott disease, pyelonephritis)

38
Q

What is iliopsoas abscess associated with

A

Crohn disease, diabetes, and immunocompromised states

39
Q

Microbiological cause of iliopsoas abscess

A

Staphylococcus aureus most commonly isolated, but may also occur 2° to tuberculosis

40
Q

Clinical (physical) findings of iliopsoas abscess

A

flank pain and bulge, fever, inguinal mass
Positive psoas sign (hip extension exacerbates lower abdominal pain)

41
Q

Lab findings of iliopsoas abscess

A

Imaging (CT/MRI) will show focal hypodense lesion within the muscle plane

42
Q

Tx of iliopsoas abscess

A

Antibiotics based on culture, CT-guided percutaneous drainage (PCD), or surgical drainage