Multisystem disease in ophthalmology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of diabetic eye disease

A

Capillary endothelial change → vascular leak → microaneurysms → capillary occlusion →local hypoxia + ischaemia → new vessel formation. High retinal blood flow caused by hyperglycaemia (and ­ BP and pregnancy) triggers this, causing capillary pericyte damage. Microvascular occlusion causes cotton-wool spots (± blot haemorrhages at interfaces with perfused retina). New vessels form on the disc or ischaemic areas, proliferate, bleed, fibrose, and can detach the retina.

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2
Q

What age does diabetic retinopathy start?

A

12

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3
Q

how often do patients have diabetic retinopathy screening check ups?

A

Once per year

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4
Q

How long after having their eyes checked for diabetic retinopathy should a patient not drive for?

A

6 hours

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5
Q

What are the features of background diabetic retinopathy?

A
  1. microaneurysms
  2. retinal haemmorhages
    3.
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6
Q

What are the features of preproliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A
  • venous beading
  • venous reduplication
  • IRMA-intraretinal microvascular abnormalities
  • multiple deep round haemorrhages
  • cotton wool spots
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7
Q

What are the features of proliferative diabetic nephropathy?

A
  1. New vessels
  2. Pre-retinal or vitreous haemorrhage
  3. preretinal fibrosis or tractional detachment
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8
Q

What are the features of maculopathy?

A
  1. Exudate within one disc diameter of the macula
  2. any microaneurysm near the fovea
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9
Q

Which categories of diabetic retinopathy require referral?

A

preproliferative and above

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10
Q

What is the medical management of clinically significant macular oedema?

A

Eyes with centre-involving CSMO require intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) therapy. Anti-VEGF therapies include the monoclonal antibodies ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and the fusion protein aflibercept.

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11
Q

What is the principle risk of intravitreal injection?

A

The principal adverse effect of intravitreal anti-VEGF therapy is endophthalmitis, which has an incidence of approximately 0.05% to 1%

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12
Q

What is the intervention for high risk proliferative diabetic retinopathy?

A

Pan retinal photocoagulation

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13
Q

If pan retinal photocoagulation can not be attempted for any reason then what can be attempted?

A

vitrectomy

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14
Q

What is the TEARS mnemonic for management of thyroid eye disease?

A
  • tobacco abstinence
  • euthyroid
  • artifical tears
  • referral to specialist centre
  • self help groups
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15
Q

What are the characteristic features of thyroid eye disease?

A

Thyroid eye disease is a condition in which the eye muscles, eyelids, tear glands and fatty tissues behind the eye become inflamed. This can cause the eyes and eyelids to become red, swollen and uncomfortable and the eyes can be pushed forward (‘staring’ or ‘bulging’ eyes).

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16
Q

What are the principles of care for raised intracranial pressure?

what are the principles of care for raised intracranial pressure refractory to initial management?

A
  1. Medical management of increased ICP should include sedation, drainage of CSF, and osmotherapy with either mannitol or hypertonic saline.
  2. For intracranial hypertension refractory to initial medical management, barbiturate coma, hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy should be considered.
17
Q

Which way does a 3rd nerve palsy go?

A

Down and out

18
Q

What is the difference between a medical and a surgical third nerve palsy?

A

“Medical”: pupil sparing (and painless)

“Surgical”: pupil fixed and dilated

Pathology

Parasympathetic fibres are situated on the periphery of the 3rd nerve trunk and so are the first to be affected by compression resulting in a fixed and dilated pupil.

The classic cause of a “surgical” 3rd nerve palsy is a posterior communicating artery aneurysm. The vaso vasorum which supplies the 3rd nerve starts from the centre and supplies out radially.

In “medical” 3rd nerve palsies the centre of the 3rd nerve is affected first leaving the parasympathetic fibres and therefore pupillary constriction intact until the end.

19
Q

Which way does a 4th and 6th nerve palsy go?

A
20
Q

Which cranial palsy is sometimes regarded as a false localising sign? Why?

A
  • VI
  • As the abducens nerve enters the subarachnoid space, other etiologies may arise resulting in palsy. In these cases, the palsy is primarily because of the increased intracranial pressure. As such, other symptoms such as a headache, nausea, vomiting, and papilledema may be noted
21
Q

What are the clinical features of MS related optic neuritis?

A
  • RAPD
  • Loss of central vision
  • pain on moving the eye
22
Q

What is the management of MS related optic neuropathy?

A

Optic neuritis usually improves on its own. In some cases, steroid medications are used to reduce inflammation in the optic nerve. Possible side effects from steroid treatment include weight gain, mood changes, facial flushing, stomach upset and insomnia. Steroid treatment is usually given by vein (intravenously)

23
Q

What eye signs do anterior circulation strokes lead to?

A

homonymous hemianopia

24
Q

what eye signs do posterior circulation strokes lead to?

A

Cranial nerve palsies

25
Q

Which two ocular diseases are commonly associated with HIV?

A

Cytomegalovirus retinitis and mycobacterium-avium complex disease are usually seen in patients with profound reductions of CD4 counts

26
Q

What is the treatment of CMV ocular infection?

A

Treatment of CMV retinitis is with intravenous ganciclovir administered as an initial, high-dose induction therapy (5 mg/kg twice daily for 2 weeks) followed by long-term maintenance therapy (5 mg/kg once daily).

27
Q

Giant cell arteritis is ________ ______ of the ______ artery that risks blindness through ischaemic optic neuropathy

A
  • granulomatous
  • inflammation
  • temporal
28
Q

What are the investigations for GCA?

A

Investigation =CRP ESR, +ve Temporal Artery Biopsy (granulomatous inflammation)

29
Q

What is the management of visually sparing GCA?

What is the management of visually affecting GCA?

A
  1. prednisolone
  2. methylprednisolone
30
Q

Which ocular sign is sarcoidosis associated with?

A

Uveitis

31
Q

Which ocular sign is SLE associated with?

A

ocular vessel constriction

32
Q

What is the number 1 ocular sign seen in RA?

A

keratoconunctivitis sicca

33
Q

What two ocular signs are seen in behcets syndrome?

A

uveitis, and retinal vasculitis

34
Q
A
35
Q
A