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MTA Flashcards

1
Q

default port used for SMTP

A

25

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2
Q

ping tool is used to

A
  • self test a host’s own network interface

- determine whether a host is reachable

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3
Q

2 features of DHCP

A
  • address reservation

- ip address exclusion

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4
Q

the command-line tool used to list a host’s active incoming connections is

A

NETSTAT

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5
Q

which network does the ip address

220.100.100.100 belong to

A

220.100.100.0/24

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6
Q

a service that resolves NetBios names to ip addresses is

A

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)

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7
Q

teredo tunneling is a protocol that

A
  • allows ipv6 connectivity through ipv4

- dynamically allocates ipv6 addresses

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8
Q

default port used for telnet

A

23

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9
Q

when a client’s DHCP issued address expires, the client will

A

attempt to obtain a new address by broadcasting

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10
Q

a Media Access Control (MAC) address indentifies

A

a network interface card (NIC)

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11
Q

two companies want to share data by using the internet. which type of network provides the solution

A

Extranet

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12
Q

VPN are implemented to provide

A

a secure connection through public networks

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13
Q

if an 802.llg Internet connection has connectivity poblems, what may be the cause

A

electromagnetic interference (EMI)

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14
Q

a network that separates an organization’s private network from a public network is a

A

Perimeter

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15
Q

which type of network is most vulnerable to intrusion

A

wireless

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16
Q

attenuation in a wireless network signal is a result of

A

Distance from the access point

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17
Q

which type of network covers the broadest area

A

WAN

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18
Q

in LAN topologies, the primary media access methods are

A
  • contention

- token passing

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19
Q

in a physical star topology, the central device is referred to as a

A

Hub

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20
Q

which technology can you use to extend an internal network across shared or public networks

A

VLAN

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21
Q

which two are published IEEE 802.11 wireless transmission standards

A
  1. 11g

802. 11n

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22
Q

what happens when an 802.11b node starts broadcasting within the range of an 802.11g point

A

a connection will be established

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23
Q

which technology provides the highest bit rate

A

DS3

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24
Q

a VPN is an

A

encrypted connection across the internet

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25
Q

a topology of a LAN is defined by the

A

physical an logical characteristics

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26
Q

theaximum throughput of an 802.11g network is

A

54 Mbit/s

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27
Q

a node within a LAN must have a network interface device and a

A

Host address

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28
Q

PPP Layer 2 WAN protocol?

A

yes

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29
Q

woch type of port is used to support VLAN traffic between two switches?

A

Trunk port

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30
Q

the protocol that maps IP adresses to a MAC address is

A

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

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31
Q

the host name of the fully qualified domain (FQDN) mail.exchange.corp.nwtraders.com is

A

mail

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32
Q

to wich IP configuration does the CIDR notation

192.168.1.1/25 refer?

A

192.168.1.1 255.255.255.128

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33
Q

which command is used to verify that a server is connected to the network?

A

PING

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34
Q

which represents the Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) loopback adress?

A

::1

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35
Q

which is a multicast address?

A

224.0.0.1

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36
Q

which uses pointer records and A records?

A

DNS server

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37
Q

the ipconfig command will

A

display a client’s adress

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38
Q

one reason to incorporate VLANs in a network is to

A

reduce the number of nodes in a broadcast domain

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39
Q

FTP application layer protocol

A

yes

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40
Q

top level domain

A

e.g. com

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41
Q

at what layer in the OSI model are hardware adresses referenced?

A

Data Link

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42
Q

you need to devide a network into three subnets. which device would you choose?

A

Router

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43
Q

the type of connector used on a 100 BaseT Ethernet cable is?

A

RJ-45

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44
Q

In addition to switching, multilayer switches also

A

provide layer 3 routing functions

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45
Q

one reason to replace an unamanaged switch with a managed switch is to

A

support multiple VLANS

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46
Q

to directly connect the Ethernet NICs of two computers, you should use a

A

crossover cable

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47
Q

the function of a router is to

A

?

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48
Q

if a router cannot determine the next hop for a packet, the router will

A

forward the packet to the default route

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49
Q

a private network that allows members of an organisation to exchange data is an

A

Intranet

50
Q

security is a concern on wireless networks due to

A

the radio broadcast access method

51
Q

a characteristic of the mesh topology is that it

A

uses redundant paths

52
Q

to protect a network when it is connected to the internet, you should use a

A

Firewall

53
Q

one purpose of a perimeter network is to

A

make resources available to the internet

54
Q

which service masks internal ip addresses from outside the network?

A

NAT

55
Q

the query protocol used to locate resources on a network is

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

56
Q

tracert is used to

A

report the route taken by packets across an IP network

57
Q

in wich OSI layer does routing occur?

A

Network

58
Q

What type of record does DNS use to find a mail service?

A

Mail Exchanger (EX) DNS record

59
Q

the default gateway address indentifies the

A

device that will connect the computer to a remote network

60
Q

how many bits are there in an IPv6 address?

A

128

61
Q

which is a public IP adress?

A

e.g. 68.24.78.221

62
Q

what is the minimum cabling requirement for a 100BaseTX natwork?

A

? category 5 UTP cable

63
Q

Internet Key Exchange (IKE) is responsible for which two funktions?

A
  • establishing network speed parameters

- verifying the client’s patch level

64
Q

which protocol is a transport layer protocol?

A

UDP

65
Q

IPv4 multicast addresses range from … to …

A

224.0.0.0 to 239.225.225.225

66
Q

a university has network links between various lications. where would a T3 connection be appropriate?

A

server to network in the main campus server room

67
Q

which two features of a Windows Server 2008 R2 server should you use install to use that server as a software router?

A
  • Network Policy and Access Services

- Routing and Remote Access Services

68
Q

Which are two characteristics of fiber optic cable?

A
  • support splacing

- requires a polish for end connectors

69
Q

which IEEE 802.11 Wi-Fi networking standard requires dual antennas so it can run in all of its supported frequencies?

A

802.11n

70
Q

what is the bitrate for a North American T3 circuit?

A

44.736 Mbit/s

71
Q

which feature of Category 5e STP cable reduces external interference?

A

shielding

72
Q

what are three advantages of VLANs?

A
  • they coparmentalize a network and isolate traffic
  • they are efficient because a single switch can implement only a single VLAN
  • they act as though they are on the same LAN regardless of physical location
73
Q

forvwhich two reasons should you use IPsec between computers?

A
  • data compression

- data integrity

74
Q

every router today is FTP capable

A

yes

75
Q

which wireless communication problem is caused by electromagnetic waves?

A

interference

76
Q

what are two advantages of using star topology rather than ring topology in a computer lab workgroup?

A
  • a central connection point allows for flexibility and scalability
  • a cable problem within the group affects two nodes, at most
77
Q

what are three characteristics of Ethernet network topology?

A
  • it can be coaxial, twisted pair or fiber optic media
  • it comprises the largest share of the networks in place today
  • it can negotiate different transmission speeds
78
Q

what is a similarity between layer 2 and layer 3 switches?

A

both forward packets onto the network

79
Q

dynamic routing is fault tolerant

A

yes

80
Q

what is an example of a layer 3 device that connects multiple computers and networks?

A

router

81
Q

which meric does Routing Information Protocol use to determine the least costly route?

A

hop count

82
Q

what are two differences between switches and hubs?

A
  • switches send data to all of the computers that are connected to them for efficiency
  • switches are capable of sending and receiving data at the same time
83
Q

what is the DNS record type that specifies an alias name of another address record?

A

CNAME

84
Q

each IPv4 address sonsists of a network ID and a Host ID

A

yes

85
Q

the SOA RR value in a resource record indicates a length of time that other DNS servers use to determine how long to cache information for a record before expiring and discarding it

A

yes

86
Q

connectionless, message based protocol with best effort service

A

UDP

87
Q

connection oriented protocol with guaranteed sevice

A

TCP

88
Q

resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses

A

ARP

89
Q

a network that only allows controlled access fot specific business or educational purposes

A

extranet

90
Q

a network that allows access only to users within an organisation

A

intranet

91
Q

a system of interconnected networks

A

internet

92
Q

allows a remote user to connect to a private network from anywhere on the internet

A

SSL VPN

93
Q

securely connects two portions of a private network or two private networks

A

site to site VPN

94
Q

creates an unencrypted connection between two network devices

A

layer 2 tunneling protocol

95
Q

802.11a

A

frequency range: 5.1-5.8 Ghz

data rate: 54Mbps

96
Q

802.11b

A

frequency range: 2.4-2.485 Ghz

data rate: 11Mbps

97
Q

802.11g

A

frequency range: 2.4-2.485 Ghz

data rate: 54Mbps

98
Q

802.11n

A

frequency range: 2.4-2.485 Ghz or 5.1-5.8 Ghz

data rate: 65-600Mbps

99
Q

star

A
  • each computer is connected by a single cable

- there is a central connectivity device

100
Q

ring

A
  • each workstation acts as a repeater

- each node is connected to exactly two other nodes

101
Q

mesh

A
  • each computer is connected to every othe computer

- the number of connections equals the total number of computers minus one

102
Q

multicast

A

assigned to one or more network interfaces located on various subnets on the network and used fot one-to-many communications

103
Q

broadcast

A

assignes to all network interface located on a subnet on the network and used for one-to-everyone-on-a-subnet communications

104
Q

unicast

A

assigned to a single network interface located on a specific subnet on the network and used for one-to-one communications

105
Q

what is the most common adapter or connector used to connect a computer to a wired network

A

RJ-45

106
Q

what do you use to create VLANs

A

switch

107
Q

what standard describes CSMA/CD

A

802.3

108
Q

what mechanism do wireless networks use to access the network?

A

CSMA/CD

109
Q

what model promises the most processing power?

A

distributive computing

110
Q

what type of server does Active Director run on?

A

network controller

111
Q

what type of communication is sent to a single designated host?

A

unicast

112
Q

a ___ ist a single computer or device that connects to a TCP/IP network

A

host

113
Q

what is the central device used in wireless LANs?

A

wireless access point

114
Q

which layer in the OSI model so MAC addresses and switches use?

A

data link

115
Q

which layer in the OSI model covers routing between networks?

A

network

116
Q

which layer in the OSI model is used to verify that data was delivered without error?

A

network

117
Q

which layer in the OSI model is used to create aconnection so that a host can transfer files?

A

session

118
Q

which layer in the OSI model includes VLANs?

A

data link

119
Q

which protocol do you use as the transport protocol for a video application?

A

UDP

120
Q

which layer in the OSI model is resoinsible for logging on and off?

A

session

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