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EQUINE II > MT II - PastQ > Flashcards

MT II - PastQ Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is correct

Something about testosterone or hormones?

A

Testosterone <40pg/ml

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2
Q

Which statement is correct

When does the testicle normally decend?

A

Testicle descends into inguinal canal at 300days

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3
Q

Which statement is correct

Which tunic adhering to what?

A

The vaginal tunic visceral wall is adhered to the epididymis

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4
Q

Sand forceps

What does it to? used for?

A

Crush the spermatic cord and castration

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5
Q

Castration method 2yr 550kg

Recomendation?

A

Closed castration

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6
Q

Palpated during rectal exam

A

Ventral taenia of the caecum

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7
Q

Small intestinal distension above 25cm H20

A

Intraabdominal adhesions

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8
Q

Important artery branch

A

Deep circumflex artery

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9
Q

Intestine first explored from abdomen during midline laparotomy

A

Caecum basis

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10
Q

Ultrasound

A

Stenostenotic small intestine transverse section

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11
Q

Bubbly epiglottis pic

A

Dorsal displacement of the soft palate

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12
Q

Grade III

A

Dynamic endoscopic diagnosis

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13
Q

Surgery for dorsal displacement of the soft palate

A

Tie-forward

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14
Q

Brown epiglottis, fallen over

A

Left laryngeal hemiplegia

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15
Q

Which statement is correct

Nerve?

A

Distal axonopathy of recurrent nerve

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16
Q

x-ray teeth

A

Sagittal fracture of tooth 109

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17
Q

Tooth 104 in geldings

A

Right maxillary canine tooth

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18
Q

Buccal surface, tooth dorsal view

A

Right side

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19
Q

Sand accumulation sand impaction

A

Behind the xiphoid cartilage

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20
Q

Number 8 intestinal section

A

Small colon

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21
Q

Development of pain in colic horse

A

Fluid sequestration

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22
Q

Grade of ulceration

A

3

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23
Q

Substances does inhibit HCL

A

Somatostatin

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24
Q

5 year old, acute depression

A

Salmonella can be ruled out

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25
Q

Prox enteritis treatment

A

Repeated NG decompression and IV fluid admin

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26
Q

Instruments intermediate level, intensive care unit

A

IV fluid pump

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27
Q

500kg horse, 8% dehydration

A

100-110L

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28
Q

Which of the following statements is correct

A

Mainly indirect bilirubin

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29
Q

Diseases known aetiology

A

Proliferative enteropathy

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30
Q

Drugs suitable for proliferative enteropathy

A

Azithromycin

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31
Q

Which blood paramenter is suitable for the examination of the LIVER in horse?
* Ammonia
* Creatinine
* Creatinine Kinase
* Lipase

A
  • Ammonia
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32
Q

Which of the following lymph nodes can be palpaded in an normal horse?
* Superficial cervical
* Parotid
* Superficial inguinal
* Lateral retropharyngeal

A

Superficial inguinal

33
Q

What is the percussion sound of a normal guttural pouch?
* Dull
* Bone-like
* Dulled tympanic
* Resonant

A

Resonant

34
Q

Which of the following arteries is suitable for the palpation in normal adult horse?
* External thoracic
* Femoral artery
* Transeverse facial
* Medial artery

A

Trenasverse facial

35
Q

What is the normal percussion in the dorsal third of the abdommen on the rifght side?
* Resonant
* Typanic (caecum always have som gas)

A
  • Typanic (caecum always have som gas)
36
Q

Which cardiac murmur are physiologic in horses?
* There is no physiological murmur in horses
* Grade 2. Pandiastolic murmur
* Grade 3. Early diastolic murmur.
* Grade 3. Hyploosystolic murmur

A
  • Grade 3. Early diastolic murmur.
37
Q

Which location of the mitral valve in a normal horse.
1. Left 3rd intercostal space
2. Left 4th indercostal space
3. Left 5th intercostal space
4. Left 6th intercostal space

A
  1. Left 5th intercostal space
38
Q

The Heartrate of a 24hour old healthy foal is?
1. 40-60 b/m
2. 60-80 b/m
3. 80-100 b/m
4. 100-120 b/m

A
  1. 80-100 b/m
39
Q

Which one of the followinf cardiac murmurs cause a precordial thrill (fremitus)?
1. Grade 2 early systolic
2. Grade 3 late diastolic
3. Grade 4 pansystolic
4. Grade 5 holodiastolic

A
  1. Grade 5 holodiastolic
40
Q

What is the anatomical location of a neurological lesion in a horse if it shows tetraparesis and decreased thoracic limb spinal reflex?
1. Beween the first and fift cervical vertebrae
2. Between the sixt cervical and second thoracic vertebrae
3. Between the third thoracic and third lumbar vertebrae
4. Between the fourth lumbar and third sacral vertebrae

A
  1. Between the sixt cervical and second thoracic vertebrae
41
Q

Which part of the cervical system is affected when a horse show intention tremor?
1. Brain stem
2. Cerebrum
3. Cerebellum
4. Cervical spinal chord

A
  1. Cerebellum
42
Q

Which paranasal sinus is affected most frequently by sinusitis in horses?
1. Maxillary
2. Frontal
3. Conchal
4. Sphenopalatine

A
  1. Maxillary
43
Q

Which of the followinf is a non-musical adventitious sound?
1. Stertor
2. Stridor
3. Wheezing
4. Crackling

A

Crackling

44
Q

How many laterolateral views would be appropriate/enough to see properly one side of the equine thorax?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

A
  1. 4
    Dorsocaudal, Ventrocaudal, Dorsocranial, Ventrocranial
45
Q

Which statement is true?
1. Prognosis is favourable in contused wounds
2. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
3. The underlying tissues have minimal damage in most cases in contused wounds.
4. The anaerobe wound is rare in contused wounds

A
  1. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
46
Q

Which statement is true?
1. Acids can cause coagulation necrosis
2. Alkaline can cause colliquation necrosis
3. Both
4. None

A
  1. Both
47
Q

Which statement is true?
1. Above 50 mA always death
2. Above 100 mA always death
3. Both
4. None

A
  1. Above 100 mA always death
48
Q

The number of the left maxillary permanent first molar tooth in the Triadan system
1. 109
2. 209
3. 309
4. 409

A
  1. 209
49
Q

Which statement is true about MRI examinetion in horse?
1. It can only be performed in standing horse
2. It can only be performed under general anaesthesia
3. The foot is the most commonly examined region
4. The hook is the most commonly examined region

A
  1. The foot is the most commonly examined region
50
Q

The advantege does the CT have when compared to MRI?
1. It provides more detailed information of osseous structures
2. It does not involve ionizinf rediation
3. It provides more detailed information of soft tissue structures
4. Image interpretation doesnt require spesialist knowledge

A
  1. It provides more detailed information of osseous structures
51
Q

How does the amount of X-ray change with distance?
1. It does not change
2. It decreases according to the inverse square law
3. It decreases exponentially
4. It decreases lineary

A
  1. It decreases according to the inverse square law
52
Q

Which projection in showed in the image?
1. Dorsoplantar
2. Dorsolatero-plantaromedial oblique
3. Plantarolatero- dorsomedial oblique
4. Lateromedial

A

Dorsoplantar

53
Q

Which radiological abnormalities can be assosciated with osteoarthriris in the distal interphalangeal joint?
1. Rotation of distal phalanx
2. Sinking of the distal phalanx
3. Fracture of the middle phalanx
4. Periarticular osteophytes

A
  1. Periarticular osteophytes
54
Q

Scintigraphy is particulary useful for diagnosing which injuries
1. Stress fracture
2. Tendon injuries
3. Laminitis
4. Osteochondrosis dissecans

A
  1. Stress fracture
55
Q

Which projection is the best to highlight the dosomedial aspect of carpus
1. Dorsopalmar
2. Dorsolatero-palmaromedial oblique
3. Palmarolatero-dorsomedial oblique
4. Flexed lateromedial

A
  1. Flexed lateromedial
56
Q

What kind of diagnostic procedure should be performed in case of deep melting ulcer?
a. Cytology from cornea
b. Microbiological sampling from the cornea
c. Fluoresceine staining
d. All listed above

A

d. All listed above

57
Q

Which statement is false regarding the slip lamp biomicroscope?
a. Aquous humour transparency or turbidity can be distinguished
b. In a normal eye light bean is not visuable crossing the anterior chamber
c. Tydall effect can be noticed in acute uveitis
d. Width of the anterior chamber cannot be estimated

A

d. Width of the anterior chamber cannot be estimated??

58
Q

Which answer is correct? The shape of a mid wide pupil is..
a. Round in dogs and cats
b. Vertical oval in horses and pigs
c. Round in cats
d. Horizontal oval in horses and cattle

A

d. Horizontal oval in horses and cattle

59
Q

The most significant way of drainage of the aquous humour in horses
a. Uveoscleral outflow
b. Through goblet cells of the conjunctiva
c. Iridocorneal outflow
d. Through the process of cilliary body

A

c. Iridocorneal outflow

60
Q

Which is not an acute sign of uveitis?
a. Blepharospasm
b. Mydriasis
c. Epiphora
d. Bloos aqueous barrier break down

A

b. Mydriasis

Its Miosis?

61
Q

Which statement is true regarding atropine?
a. Effectively gives information about the severity of the uveitis
b. Induces constricted pupils for a couple of days in healty eye
c. Can be induced for pupil dilation at the eye exam
d. It has stronger effect on eyes with blue iris

A

a. Effectively gives information about the severity of the uveitis

b.No, weeks
d. No, Brown eyes

62
Q

Administration of corticosteroids is contraindicated when
a. The pupil is miotic
b. Hyphema is pressent
c. Intraocular pressure is reduced
d. The cornea has fluoresceine stain uptake

A

d. The cornea has fluoresceine stain uptake
CORNEAL ULCER

63
Q

Dazzle reflex is a…
a. Cortical reflex
b. Subcortical reflex
c. Cerebellar reflex
d. Spinal reflex

A

b. Subcortical reflex

64
Q

Which muscle should be biopsed for the diagnosis of equine motor neuron disease?

A

Sacrococcygeal dorsalis muscle

65
Q

List two commonly used drugs for the treatment of congestive heartfailure

A

Digoxin
Furosemide
Potassium chloride

(ACE inhibitors)

66
Q

What drug can be used to decrease insulin resistance in equine metabolic syndrome?

A

Metformin

66
Q

What drug can be used to decrease insulin resistance in equine metabolic syndrome?

A

Metformin

67
Q

What is the cause of pituitary pars inntermedia dysfunction in horses?

A

Adenoma of the pars intermedia

68
Q

What is the aetiology of equine leukoencephalomalacia?

A

Fumonisin B1 toxins
(Fusarium moniliforme)

69
Q

List three clinical signs of heart failure in horses?

A
  • Exercise intolerance
  • Weight loss
  • Cough
  • Tachycardia
  • Tachypnea
  • Ventral edema + distal limb edema
  • Pulmonary congestion
  • Pulmonary edema
  • White foamy discharge from lungs
  • Colic like signs
  • Slow return to resting values
70
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity reaction does play a role in the pathogenesis of drug allergy in horses?

A

Type I, II, IV sensitivity

71
Q

List the abnormality which physically contribute to the development of spinal cord compression in cervical static stenosis?

A
  • Thickening of the dorsal lamina
  • Enlargement of ligamentum flavum
  • Degenerative articular process
  • Thickened joint capsule
72
Q

What is the most importaint pathological feature of post exersise myopathy in horses?

A
  • Cardiac muscle myopathy
  • Tubulonephrosis
  • Myoglobinuria
73
Q

What is the main effect of tetanospasmin, and where does it act?

A

Inhibition of glycine and GABA release, acts in motor neurons in ventral horn

74
Q

How do you have to treat paraphimosis in aute case?

A
  • Mechanical compression (hard),
  • Treat edema and injury,
  • Prevent infection and further injuries,
  • In case of no success surgery
75
Q

Describe the location of spinal needle insertion, when performing epidural anesthesia in the mare?

A

2nd intercoccygeal space (sacrococcygel space)
30 degree angle into the subarachnoideal space

76
Q

Describe briefly, how surgery should be performed in a mare with 8cm in diameter ovarian theca granulosa tumor! You have all the nessesary equipment available

A
77
Q

Describe the 3 clinical signs of uterus rupture in the post-partum mare

A
  • Fever
  • Tachycardia
  • Depression
  • Haemorrhagic shock (long tear)
  • Mild colic symptoms (smaller tear)
78
Q

Describe the definition of paraphimosis

A

Inability to retract the penis back into the prepuce

EQUINE II (4 decks)

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