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Instrument Phase > MST Phase > Flashcards

MST Phase Flashcards

1
Q

What is METTTC

A 
Mission
Enemy
Terrain and Weather
Troops
Time
Civil Considerations
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2
Q

Noise Avoidance Procedures

A

avoid residence by 500 feet slant range

avoid towns by 1000 meters laterally and/or 1,500 feet vertically

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3
Q

alternate route marked with

A
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4
Q

Local planning restrictions

A

do not plan a route that will parallel wires within 100 meters

avoid towers by 500 meters

course heading changes not exceed 60 degrees
avoid Res by 1000 meters or over fly at least 800 ft msl or make radio calls

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5
Q

route planning

A

reverse planning technique

ground tactical plan, landing, air movement, loading, staging

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6
Q

acp selection

A

acp 5 to 20 km
sp 3 to 8 km
rp 3 to 8 km

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7
Q

contingency planning

A

should begin at an easily identifiable point
3-8 km
minimum of one contingency will be planned for each objective
record time and heading to objective

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8
Q

route timing

A

go on right side
minimum every 2 minutes
1 minute recommended for training
in ground speed

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9
Q

altitude selection

A

lateral distance of 500 m on each side of course for each route leg/segment

identify highest elevation and convert to feet (multiply by 3.28)

round up to next higher 50 foot increment

add 100 feet for vegetation

add 50 feet for obstacle clearance on route segment

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10
Q

doghouses

A 
designation to next waypoint
magnetic heading
distance to next waypoint
ETE
altitude for the segment
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11
Q

Air assault purpose

A

army aviation conducts Ari assaults in support of offensive, defensive, and stability operations throughout the depth and breath of the AO

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12
Q

Air Assault

A

is the movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or the seize and hold key terrain. It is a precisely planned and vigorously executed combat operation

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13
Q

air movement

A

is air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment including airdrops and air landings.

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14
Q

vulnerabilities

A

attack by aircraft/air defense weapons during movement phase

small arms fire

electronic warfare

attack by air/ground/artillery during loading/unloading phases

air strikes

attack by CBRN

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15
Q

what is a temporary group of integrated forces tailored to a specific mission under the command of a single headquarters called

A

air assault task force

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16
Q

what is the aviation mission during which airlift assists are used to transport units, personnel, supplies and equipment including airdrops and air landings

A

air movement

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17
Q

what are some of the capabilities of an air assault task force

A

attack enemy positions from any direction
overfly/ bypass barriers/ obstacles/ enemy
positions and strike objectives in inaccessible areas
rapidly place forces at decisive points/reinforce committed units
secure and defend key terrain and objectives
conduct fast paced operations over extended distances

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18
Q

primary mission

A

the primary mission of army assault helicopters in air assault operations is to move troops and equipment

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19
Q

air assault enables

A

the ground movement commander to overcome the effects of terrain to rapidly mass combat power, achieve surprise, and destroy the enemy or seize key objectives

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20
Q

integration and synchronization

A

the effective integration and synchronization of aviation and ground units is paramount to the execution of air assaults

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21
Q

Air assault task force commander (AATFC)

A

approves, disapproves, or modifies all components of the assault plan

plan and synchronize the air assault timeline

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22
Q

ground tactical commander

A

usually one of the AATFC’s subordinate maneuver commanders

develop the ground tactical plan

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23
Q

air mission commander

A

responsible for the all aviation operations

subordinate to AATFC

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24
Q

The reverse planning sequence

A 
ground tactical plan
landing plan
air movement plan
loading plan
staging plan
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25
Q

who is responsible for the overall planning and execution of an air assault mission to include the ground tactical plan

A

air assault task force commander

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26
Q

who is the AMC’s representative that advises the AATFC and his staff in aviation matters

A

aviation liaison officer

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27
Q

what is the standard timeline for a deliberate air assault mission

A

96 hours

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28
Q

cold and hot LZ

A

cold or ice LZ
no enemy activity is observed

hot or cherry LZ
enemy activity is occurring on or near the LZ

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29
Q

when designing a multi ship route you should avoid turns in excess of how many degrees

A

60

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30
Q

AMP: schedules the movement of troops, equipment, and supplies from PZ to HLZ. Also Provides:

A 
ingress and egress routes
aircraft speeds
altitudes
en route formations
actions on enemy contact
fire support
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31
Q

Load

A

personnel and sling load configuration

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32
Q

is return flight a lift

A

No

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33
Q

air movement table

A

detailed informational document that regulates the sequence of flight operations from pick up zone to landing zone

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34
Q

loading table

A

the air-loading table assigns personnel and major items of equipment or supplies to a specific aircraft (chalk) at the company and below level. The air loading table is an accountability tool, a loading manifest for each aircraft

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35
Q

what are some of the events that take place during the staging plan

A

pre-mission planning, rehearsals, AMB, final, wx call

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36
Q

what is the primary execution document at the user level that is derived from the AMT

A

the execution checklist

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37
Q

air ground operations definition

A

the simultaneous or synchronized employment of ground forces with aviation maneuver and fires to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative

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38
Q

core competencies of army aviation

A

provide accurate and timely information collection (recon)

provide reaction time and maneuver space (security)

destroy, defeat, disrupt, divert, or delay enemy forces (security/attack)

air assault ground maneuver forces (air assault)

air movement of personnel, equipment, and supplies (air movement)

evacuate wounded or recover isolated personnel (medieval/caseevac/PR)

enable mission command over extended ranges and complex terrain

close combat attack is not a competency

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39
Q

List some traditional threats to army aviation operations

A

unguided projectiles

AAA

MANPADs

SAMs

EW capabilities

Aircraft

40
Q

what is the publication for general aviation operations outlining their functions of aviation units

A

FM 3-04 army aviation

41
Q

what is DART and what is it’s purpose

A

Downed aircraft recovery team

the intent is to recover aircraft with minimal risk to soldiers and equipment involved in the operation

42
Q

What is a ROZ and how can it affect aviation operations

A

restricted operations zone can impact flight operations and planning by changing routes or coordination required to enter

43
Q

who would provide current and accurate A2C2 information to the cells

A

air defense and airspace management cell (ADAM cell)

AMB-back brief to the air assault task force commander for approval

Offensive operations

  • FM 3-04 army aviation
  • ATP 3-04.1 aviation tactical employment
  • ADRP 1-02 terms and military symbols
  • ATP 3-09.32 JFIRE
44
Q

attack by fire

A

a tactical, mission task in which a commander uses direct fires supported by indirect fires to engage an enemy force without closing with the enemy to destroy suppress fix or deceive that enemy

  • positioned outward
45
Q

support by fire

A

a tactical task In which a maneuver force moves to a position where it can engage the enemy y direct fire in support of another maneuvering force

has more support; position to flank

restrictive = boundaries
permissive = allow to move
46
Q

what is a holding area

A

the last covered and concealed position prior to the objective used for a final recon and coordination of assets by the commander

47
Q

what is not a consideration for fire position selection

A

Ammunition

48
Q

what is defined as massing overwhelming effects of —-

power to achieve a single purpose

A

concentration

49
Q

how to make contact with enemy???
once we make contact we ______
once we have them on the run we ____

A

movement to contact

attack ; attack forms, hasty attack-fast, deliberate attack

pursuit

50
Q

CCA is not a docturnuraly correct to, who controls me?

A

ground force commander when working with friendly forces

enemy forces will be AMC he controls all aviation assets. all the time

51
Q

what are the two attack form

A

hasty and deliberate

52
Q

what offensive task is used to develop the situation, establish contact, or regain contact

A

movement to contact

53
Q

who synchronizes aviation assets during attack against enemy forces in close friendly contact

A

ground maneuver commander

54
Q

timing is critical to the successful employment of the battalion

A

continuous - constant same company
phased - attack = two companies increased initial firepower
maximum destination - all three companies simultaneously

55
Q

recommended weapon delivery

A

hover fire
running fire
diving fire

56
Q

what are the three employment methods for an attack

A

maximum destruction, posed, and continuous

57
Q

which of the following best describes the continuous attack method

A

applies constant pressure on the enemy

58
Q

what is the consideration of the appropriate munitions for the target referred to as

A

weaponeering

59
Q

air check is with

A

ground

60
Q

station time is

A

1 hour and 30 minutes play time

61
Q

what for the aviation call for fires gives you clearances to engage

A

transmission of the brief

62
Q

the direct fire plan is developed by the BN planners from

A

input of the company planner

63
Q

airspace deconflict

A

time
altitudes
corridors
anchor points

64
Q

______ are not an example of airspace deconfliction used in the JAAT

A

observer/gun target lines

65
Q

references

A

ATP 3-04.1 aviation tactical employment

ADRP 1-02 Terms and military symbols

66
Q

army aviation reconnaissance

A

forces conduct combined arms reconnaissance operations to determine enemy composition and disposition as well as to gather combat information on terrain and population

67
Q

reconnaissance operations are

A

conducted in support of the ground maneuver commander

68
Q

composition =

disposition =

A

what the force is made up of

how thy are laid out

69
Q

reconnaissance is

A

performed before during and after each mission all airframes

70
Q

maintain enemy contact

A

locates the enemy and maintains contact with smallest force possible to prevent initial decisive engagement

aviation - contact is most often gained visually through the use of sensors or direct viewing

71
Q

orient on recon obj

A

a recon force tailors the scheme of maneuvers to focus on the recon objective without becoming decisively

Engaged
Fixed
Delayed
or 
Distracted
72
Q

Reporting

A

early and accurate reporting is critical to the successful execution of all recon ops

73
Q

retain freedom to maneuver

A

mobility and maneuver are essential to successful aviation recon operations

74
Q

Don’t keep recon assets in reserve

A

position recon assets at the appropriate time, place and in the right combination to maximize capabilities

75
Q

recon operations are conducted in support of who

A

ground commander

76
Q

during what phase of the mission is reconnaissance conducted

A

all the time

77
Q

True or false negative contact at the NAI does not need to be reported

A

FALSE

78
Q

In aviation contact is most often gained visually though the use of

A

visually and sensors

79
Q

tempo refers to

A

the level of detail and covertness required of the recon unit to best accomplish the mission

80
Q

displacement =

A

when can I displace to do something else, not retrograde. Leave and follow on. Mission with someone else

81
Q

what are the commanders reconnaissance guidance elements

A

focus

tempo of reconnaissance

engagement/ disengagement bypass criteria

displacement battle handover criteria

82
Q

what are the 4 types of tempo

A

rapid
forceful
deliberate
stealthy

83
Q

what are the three conditions under displacement criteria that triggers planned withdrawal, passage of lines, or reconnaissance hand over

A

event driven
time driven
threat driven

84
Q

zone =

area =

A

restrictive

permissive

85
Q

meterological conditions

A

ceiling and visibility

density altitude

wind

86
Q

what are the types of control measures a commander uses to define a zone reconnaissance

A

commandos defines the zone by establishing control measures such as:

lateral boundaries, LD, LOA

87
Q

what are the tactical considerations when conducting an LZ/PZ reconnaissance

A

Mission
Security
Location

88
Q

What are the four forms of reconnaissance

A

route recon
zone recon
area recon
reconnaissance in force

89
Q

which form of reconnaissance is the most time consuming

A

zone

90
Q

are boundaries restrictive

A

yes

91
Q

security operations are typically _____ and provide the combined arms team _____ of enemy activities ______ to prevent surprise and the ability to rapidly develop the situation upon gaining enemy contact

A

defensive in nature
early and accurate warning
reaction time and maneuver space

92
Q

are security operations offensive in nature

A

no defensive

93
Q

fundamentals of security ops

A 
maintain threat contact
orient on the protected force area or facility
provide early and accurate warning
provide reaction time and maneuver space
perform continuous reconnaissance
94
Q

forms of security

A

screen - early warning. Reaction time. can’t in front of moving force

guard - moving or stationary, need fires from the ground (rear, flank, adnate guard)

cover

area - aerial, convoy, route for the air

local

95
Q

what is the single most important factor in regards to graphics

A

common graphic

96
Q

why is distance from the FARP to the OPs important

A

ensure the main body has time / space to maneuver

Instrument Phase (5 decks)

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