MSRA Revision Gold Flashcards
Which pneumonia is usually preceded by recent influenza infection?
Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia
What type of organism is pneumocystis jirovecii?
Fungus
Which pneumonia is commoner in people with COPD?
Hemophilus influenza pneumonia
In which of the pneumonias can autoimmune hemolytic anemia and erythema multiforme be seen?
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What are the atypical pneumonias?
✓ Mycoplasma pneumoniae
✓ Legionella pneumophila
Which pneumonia is usually associated with infected air conditioning units?
Legionella pneumophila pneumonia
Which of the pneumonias is usually associated with lymphopenia and hyponatremia?
Legionella pneumophila pneumonia
Which of the pneumonias is classically seen in alcoholics?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Which of the pneumonias usually has no chest signs?
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
Describe idiopathic interstitial pneumonia?
Non-infective pneumonias
Common example of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is?
Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
What is a possible lung complication of rheumatoid arthritis?
Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
What is a possible lung complication of amiodarone therapy?
Cryptogenic organising pneumonia
Timeframe of hospital-acquired pneumonia?
Developing 48hours or more after admission
Classical X-ray finding in pneumonia?
Consolidation
What defines confusion in the CURB-65 assessment?
Abbreviated mental test score of <= 8/10
What defines Respiratory abnormality in the CURB-65 assessment?
Respiratory rate > 30
Which CURB-65 value is treated at home?
0
Is there a difference between severe asthma and life-threatening asthma?
Yes
Give one feature of life-threatening asthma?
Silent chest
What are the classification of acute asthma exacerbation?
✓ Moderate
✓ Severe
✓ Life-threatening
What are the PEFR classes of acute asthma exacerbation?
✓ 50-75% best or predicted
✓ 33-50%
✓ <33%
In which acute asthma exacerbation is SPO2 less than 92%?
Life-threatening
In which acute asthma exacerbation category is pCO2 normal?
Life-threatening
Which vaccinations are given to COPD patients?
✓ Influenza vaccine
✓ Pneumococcal vaccine
What are the general management choices for COPD?
✓ Smoking cessation
✓ Vaccination protection
✓ Pulmonary rehabilitation
✓ Bronchodilator therapy
What is the first line medical treatment for COPD?
Short acting beta2 agonist (SABA) or Short acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA)
What are the features that suggest steroid responsiveness in COPD?
✓ History of atopy or asthma
✓ Raised eosinophil count
✓ Substantial variation in FEV1 (at least 400ml)
✓ Substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow (at least 20%)
Investigation of choice for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis?
High resolution CT scan
Which ICS is used in the classification of steroid dose in asthma?
Budesonide
What is MART in asthma therapy?
Maintenance and reliever therapy that is combined (ICS + LABA).
What is the acronym for the treatment steps in asthma?
SILL
✓ SABA
✓ ICS
✓ LTRA
✓ LABA
✓ MART
What are the features of Churg-Strauss syndrome?
✓ Sinusitis
✓ Asthma
✓ Hematuria
✓ Eosinophilia
What features are common to Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome) and Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegenger’s granulomatosis)?
✓ Vasculitis
✓ Sinusitis
✓ Dyspnoea
Diagnostic modality for COPD?
Spirometry
Red-currant jelly sputum in an alcoholic/diabetic is seen in which pneumonia type?
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell lung carcinoma?
Hyponatremia from SIADH
Bupropion is contraindicated in what condition?
Epilepsy
What are the nicotine replacement medications?
✓ Bupropion
✓ Varenicline
What are the common side effects of nicotine replacement therapy?
Nausea, vomiting, headache and flu-like symptoms
How does Varenicline work?
Nicotine receptor partial agonist
When should nicotine replacement therapy medication be started?
1-2 weeks before target date to stop
How long should Varenicline treatment continue?
12 weeks
Which of the nicotine replacement therapy medications has been shown to be more effective?
Varenicline
In what situations should Varenicline be used with caution?
History of depression or self harm
Are the nicotine replacement medications (Varenicline and bupropion) contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding?
Yes
Which of the nicotine replacement medications is relatively contraindicated in patients with eating disorders?
Bupropion
What is Bupropion mechanism of action?
NDRI (Norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor) and nicotinic antagonist
Which of the nicotine replacement medications has some risk of causing seizures?
Bupropion
How are pregnant women tested for smoking?
CO (Carbon monoxide) detectors
What is the first line intervention for pregnant women to quit smoking?
Cognitive behavioural therapy, motivational interviewing or structured self help
Regarding paraneoplastic syndromes, what are the usual lung syndromes?
✓ Hyponatremia from SIADH (small cell)
✓ Hypercalcemia from PTH-rp (squamous cell)
What are the key treatment modalities for Granulomatosis with polyangiitis?
✓ Steroids
✓ Cyclophosphamide
✓ Plasma exchange
Which of the vasculitides is associated with a saddle-shape nose deformity?
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
What is the usual cause of palpable purpuric rash over the buttocks?
Henoch-Schonlein purpura
What are the key question points for silicosis?
✓ Foundry worker
✓ Upper zone interstitial lymph nodes
✓ ‘Egg-shell’ calcification of the hilar lymph nodes
What is the normal PaO2 on air?
> 10kPa
Which nerve supplies the deltoid muscle?
Axillary nerve
Which nerve supplies serrratus anterior?
Long thoracic nerve
Damage of which nerve results in winged scapula?
Long thoracic nerve
What are the LOAF muscles?
✓ Lateral two lumbricals
✓ Opponens pollis
✓ Abductor pollis brevis
✓ Flexor pollis brevis
What nerve supplies the LOAF muscles?
Median nerve
What is the function of musculocutaneous nerve?
Elbow flexion and supination
What injury commonly damages the axillary nerve?
Humeral neck fracture
Which nerve flexes the wrist?
Ulnar nerve
Which nerve supplies the thenar muscles?
Median nerve
Which nerve extends the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb?
Radial nerve
Which of the brachial plexus palsies is associated with Horner’s syndrome?
Klumpke’s palsy
What is the feared complication of displaced fractures of the femoral neck?
Avascular necrosis
What are the usual tests for development dysplasia of the hip?
Barlow’s test and Ortolani’s test
What are the possible causes of hip problems in children?
✓ DDH
✓ Transient synovitis
✓ Perthes disease
✓ Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis (obese boys 10-15)
✓ JIA
✓ Septic arthritis
Which of the childhood hip conditions commonly affects obese boys in their early teenage years?
Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis
Which of the hip conditions affecting children is a degenerative condition due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head?
Perthes disease
What ages are usually affected by Perthes disease?
4-8 years
Which hip condition affecting children commonly follows a viral infection?
Transient synovitis (irritable hip)
What is the commonest cause of hip pain in children?
Transient synovitis
Which nerve adducts the thigh?
Obturator nerve
What is the preferred treatment for undisplaced intracapsular hip fracture?
Internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if unfit
Positive Trendelenburg test is usually found in which nerve injury of the leg?
Superior gluteal nerve
Which nerve injury causes ‘can’t rise from a seat, can’t climb stairs’?
Inferior gluteal nerve
What are the 4 As of ankylosing spondylitis?
✓ Anterior uveitis
✓ Apical fibrosis
✓ Aortic regurgitation
✓ Achilles tendonitis
Which medications cause rhabdomyolysis?
Statins
What type of crystals is normal in urine?
Hyaline cast
What type of cast is seen in chronic kidney disease?
Granular casts
Which kind of casts indicate glomerular inflammation?
White and red cell casts
Describe the crystals in pseudogout?
Weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals
Which age group does pseudogout affect predominantly?
Elderly
What are the risk factors for pseudogout in the young? (<60)
✓ Acromegaly
✓ Hyperparathyroidism
✓ Wilson’s disease
✓ Hemochromatosis
✓ Low magnesium, low phosphate
What are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout?
✓ Knee
✓ Wrist
✓ Shoulder
X-ray finding of chondrocalcinosis or linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage of the knee is seen in?
Pseudogout
What is the treatment of pseudogout?
NSAIDS or steroids as for gout (intra-articular, intramuscular, oral)
Which arthritis affects large weight bearing joints as well as DIP & PIP joints?
Osteoarthritis
Does osteoarthritis have a sex predilection?
No. Similar incidence in men and women
What are the x-ray findings common to both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
Loss of joint space
What are the key question features in Paget’s disease of the bone?
✓ Elderly man
✓ Bone pains
✓ Deaf
✓ Raised ALP
✓ Skull x-ray shows thickened vault
Summarily, what happens in Paget’s disease of the bone?
Increased and uncontrolled bone turnover
Is Paget’s disease of the bone primarily a disorder of osteoblasts or osteoclasts?
Osteoclasts
Which bones are most commonly affected in Paget’s disease of the bone?
Skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities
Which sex has a higher incidence of Paget’s disease of the bone?
Males
Which condition presents with morning stiffness involving the muscles?
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Two closely related inflammatory disorders to remember?
✓ Polymyalgia rheumatica
✓ Temporal arteritis
Which muscle region does polymyalgia rheumatica commonly affect?
Proximal limb muscles
The antibody most associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody
Bamboo spine is seen in what condition?
Ankylosing spondylitis
Which type of glands does Sjogren’s syndrome affect?
Exocrine glands
Sjogren’s syndrome increases the risk for which malignancy?
Lymphoid malignancy
What is the classic triad of symptoms in Behcet’s syndrome?
✓ Anterior uveitis
✓ Mucosal ulcers
✓ Genital ulcers
Which autoimmune disease is commoner in males?
Behcet’s syndrome
What is the biochemical findings in osteomalacia?
✓ Low calcium
✓ Low phosphate
✓ High ALP
✓ High PTH
Medications known to cause pulmonary fibrosis include?
✓ Methotrexate
✓ Bleomycin
What enzyme does methotrexate inhibit its action?
Dihydrofolate reductase
Which enzyme is essential for synthesis of purines and pyrimidines?
Dihydrofolate reductase
What are the side effects of methotrexate?
✓ Mucositis
✓ Myelosuppression
✓ Pneumonitis
✓ Pulmonary fibrosis
✓ Liver fibrosis
How frequently is methotrexate taken?
Weekly
How long after methotrexate use can pregnancy be considered for both sexes?
6 months
HLA B27 is associated with which conditions?
✓ Ankylosing spondylitis
✓ Anterior uveitis
✓ Reactive arthritis
Which HLA is associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
HLA-DR4
Which chromosomes gene code for HLA antigens?
Chromosome 6
What type of hypersensitivity is anaphylaxis?
Type 1
Important side effect of bisphosphonate?
Osteonecrosis of the jaw
What exactly does bisphosphonates do?
Inhibits osteoclast activity thereby decreasing demineralisation activities
What is the usual cause of granulomatous thickening of the aortic arch?
Takayasu’s arteritis
Which antibody is commonly associated with ulcerative colitis?
P-ANCA
List the conditions associated with ANA antibody?
✓ Sjogren’s syndrome
✓ SLE
✓ Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis (also anti-scl-70 antibodies)
✓ Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (anti-centromere antibodies)
What medications are known to cause reactivation of tuberculosis?
✓ Infliximab
✓ Corticosteroids
What is the current guidance on treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?
DMARD monotherapy ± short course of bridging prednisolone
What type of hypersensitivity is graft versus host disease?
Type IV (delayed hypersensitivity)
What is the treatment of choice in chronic fatigue syndrome?
Graded exercise therapy
Which of the bone disorders have the four usual lab parameters (calcium, phosphate, ALP, PTH) normal?
✓ Osteoporosis
✓ Osteopetrosis
✓ Osteogenesis imperfecta
Which of the bone disorders have only one abnormal value (elevated ALP)
Paget’s disease of the bone
The important conditions associated with HLA-DR4 are?
✓ Rheumatoid arthritis
✓ Type 1 DM
How is osteogenesis imperfecta inherited?
Autosomal dominant
What is the treatment of choice for Raynaud’s disease?
Nifedipine
An important correlation of polyarteritis nodosa?
Positive hepatitis B serology
Is azathioprine safe to use in pregnancy?
Yes
How is low vitamin D level (leading to decreased bone mineral content/bone softening) called in adult and growing children?
✓ Osteomalacia (adults)
✓ Rickets (growing children)
What is the primary issue in osteomalacia?
Vitamin D deficiency
What is the primary treatment for osteomalacia?
Vitamin D supplementation
What is the commonest ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis?
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Which eye condition primarily affects the peripheral retina resulting in tunnel vision?
Retinitis pigmentosa
Conditions in children causing strawberry tongue?
✓ Scarlet fever
✓ Kawasaki disease
One indication for use of aspirin in children?
Kawasaki disease
What type of viruses cause croup?
Parainfluenza viruses
What causes scarlet fever?
Erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes)
What is the treatment for scarlet fever?
Oral penicillin V
Is scarlet fever a notifiable disease?
Yes
How bad are the complications of scarlet fever?
✓ Acute glomerulonephritis
✓ Otitis media
✓ Rheumatic fever
✓ Invasive complications
What endocrine disorder is associated with cystic fibrosis?
Diabetes mellitus
Causes of a marfanoid habitus include?
✓ Homocystinuria
✓ Marfan syndrome
What causes Homocystinuria?
Deficiency of cystathione beta synthase
Cystic fibrosis is associated with short stature?
True
Is Down’s syndrome associated with Hirschprung disease?
Yes
Which syndrome is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve?
Turner’s syndrome
Conditions that cause recurrent chest infections include?
✓ Cystic fibrosis
✓ Down syndrome
An omphalomesenteric band is associated with what condition?
Meckel’s diverticulum
What is the mode of inheritance of Duchene muscular dystrophy?
X-linked recessive
A cause of coronary artery aneurysm to remember is?
Kawasaki disease
Another name for hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism is?
Kallman syndrome
Why are statins not coprescribed with macrolides (such as clarithromycin)?
Increased risk of rhabdomyolysis
Which breast cancer medication is a monoclonal antibody directed against the HER2/neu receptor?
Trastuzumab
Common side effects of Trastuzumab are?
✓ Flu-like symptoms
✓ Diarrhoea
Why is an echocardiogram usually performed before starting patients on Trastuzumab?
Because of its cardiotoxicity
How does Ciprofloxacin affect the QT interval?
Lengthens it
Both loop and thiazide diuretics cause hypokalemia?
True
The calcium channel blockers Diltiazem and Verapamil cause heart failure true or false?
True
Which of the calcium channel blockers have more peripheral vascular effects than cardiac?
Dihidropyridines (Nifedipine, Amlodipine)
The calcium channel blockers Diltiazem and Verapamil are negatively inotropic?
True
What is the antidote for aspirin poisoning?
Bicarbonate
Which medications precipitate digoxin toxicity?
Loop diuretics
What are the two types of heparin?
✓ Unfractionated heparin
✓ Low molecular weight heparin
Does protamine sulfate reverse the effect of LMWH?
Partially
Which medication is known to reduce seizure threshold?
Ciprofloxacin
Which antituberculous drug can cause gout?
Pyrazinamide
List three medications that can cause gout?
✓ Loop diuretics
✓ Thiazide diuretics
✓ Pyrazinamide
Medications to avoid in the setting of a recent myocardial infarction include?
✓ Metformin
✓ Sildenafil
Which overdose has IV bicarbonate as antidote?
✓ Tricyclic antidepressants
✓ Salicylate
What is the risk with the use of Flumazenil (the antidote for benzodiazepines)?
Risk of seizures
What poison is hydroxycobalamine its antidote?
Cyanide
What is the antidote for lead poisoning?
Dimercaprol, calcium edetate
What medication causes yellow-green vision?
Digoxin
What medications can cause gynecomastia?
✓ Digoxin
✓ Spironolactone
The poisoning agent that causes hyperpyrexia is?
Carbon monoxide
Four drugs that precipitate digoxin toxicity include?
✓ Amiodarone
✓ Spironolactone
✓ Verapamil
✓ Diltiazem
List medications that can cause tremor?
✓ Lithium
✓ Ciclosporin
✓ Sodium valproate
Which medication is known to cause non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy?
Sildenafil
Indications for the use of phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors?
✓ Erectile dysfunction
✓ Pulmonary hypertension
What cancer does tamoxifen predispose to?
Endometrial cancer
How does alcohol intake affect P450?
✓ Acute intake (inhibitor)
✓ Chronic intake (inducer)
What ABG result is typical of aspirin poisoning?
Mixed metabolic acidosis and respiratory alkalosis
What is the effect of heparin on potassium levels?
Hyperkalemia
Two medications that can cause depression include?
✓ Corticosteroids
✓ Isotretinoin
List the medications that can cause pulmonary fibrosis?
✓ Methotrexate
✓ Amiodarone
✓ Nitrofurantoin
✓ Sulfasalazine
What is the treatment of choice for generalized anxiety disorder?
Sertraline
Examples of serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors include?
✓ Duloxetine
✓ Venlafaxine
How is the half-life of lithium?
Long, being primarily excreted by the kidney
How does lithium affect the thyroid?
Hypothyroidism with thyroid enlargement
How does lithium affect the parathyroid gland?
Hyperparathyroidism and resultant hypercalcemia
Which medications increases the risk of ischaemic stroke?
✓ COCPs
✓ Antipsychotics
How does anastrozole affect the bone?
Osteoporosis
When is tamoxifen indicated in breast cancer?
Pre- and peri-menopausal women if ER positive
Which of the female reproductive cancers have incidence increased by early menarche?
✓ Breast cancer
✓ Ovarian cancer
✓ Endometrial cancer
What is the treatment of choice for chronic anal fissure?
Topical glyceryl trinitrate
Why are small bowel stomas spouted?
So that their irritant contents are not in contact with the skin
Which of the breast cancer medications is used in post-menopausal women if ER positive?
Anastrozole
An example of an aromatase inhibitor?
Anastrozole
Which cancers do COCPs predispose to?
✓ Breast cancer
✓ Cervical cancer
What hormone does nexplanon release?
Etonogestrel (a progestogen)
What is the most effective form of contraception?
Nexplanon. A form of implantable contraceptive
What is the failure rate of nexplanon?
0.07/100 women-years
Which of the contraceptive pills takes only 2 days to become effective?
Progestogen only pill
Which of the contraceptive pills has no pill free days?
Progestogen only pill
What is the mode of action of the progestogen only pill (except desogestrel)?
✓ Thickens cervical mucus
Which of the contraceptives inhibit ovulation and thickens cervical mucus?
✓ Implantable contraceptive (etonogestrel)
✓ Injectable contraceptive (depo povera)
✓ Desogestrel only pill
What is the primary mechanism of action of intrauterine system (levonorgestrel)
Prevents endometrial proliferation
What is the mechanism of action of COCP?
Inhibits ovulation
Hormone replacement therapy increases the risk of which cancer?
Breast cancer
Unopposed estrogen action predisposes to which cancer?
Endometrial cancer
Which female reproductive cancer has smoking and COCP as protective factors?
Endometrial cancer
Mutations to the BRCA2 gene predisposes to which cancer?
✓ Breast cancer
✓ Ovarian cancer
How does COCP help in reducing ovarian cancer risk?
By reducing the number of ovulations
What is the mechanism of action of oxybutynin?
Antimuscarinic
Which of the female reproductive cancers is high parity a risk factor for?
Cervical cancer
Which female reproductive cancer does PCOS predispose to?
Endometrial cancer
What causes tender erythematous lesions on the shins?
Erythema nodosum
What are the four major causes of erythema nodosum?
✓ Infections (TB)
✓ Systemic disease (Sarcoidosis, IBD, Behcet’s)
✓ Malignancy
✓ Drugs
Which of the tender leg lesions is associated SLE?
Pyoderma gangrenosum
Which antibodies are usually used to look for SLE?
ANA
Is pyoderma gangrenosum associated with rheumatoid arthritis?
Yes
Does the lesion of erythema nodosum heal with scarring?
No
What is the key physical characteristic of basal cell carcinoma?
Rolled edges
What is the size cut-off point for differentiating nodule from papule
5mm
Lupus pernio is seen in what condition?
Sarcoidosis
What is the character monicker for basal cell carcinoma?
Rodent ulcer
With regards to growth and metastasis, what is the characteristic of basal cell carcinoma?
Slow growth and rarely metastatic
What is the most common type of cancer in the western world?
Basal cell carcinoma
What type of referral is made for suspected BCC?
Routine referral
What topical cream options are there for BCC treatment?
✓ Imiquimod
✓ Fluorouracil
Does psoriatic nail changes reflect severity of the disease?
No
What is the first line treatment for hyperhidrosis?
Topical aluminium chloride
Which medications are options for treatment of hyperhidrosis in secondary care?
✓ Topical glycopyrrolate
✓ Botulinum toxin injections
What class of medications is glycopyrrolate?
Antimuscarinic
What parts of the body are most affected by vitiligo?
Peripheries
What is the phenomenon of new vitiligo lesions secondary to trauma called?
Koebner phenomenon
Which of the alopecia types is associated with vitiligo?
Alopecia areata
How useful is topical corticosteroids in vitiligo?
May reverse changes if applied early
What is the phototherapy of choice in the secondary care of Psoriasis?
Narrowband ultraviolet B light
What is the commonest body site for keloid scars?
Sternum
What category of disease is erythema multiforme?
Hypersensitivity reaction
What is the common trigger for erythema multiforme?
Infections
What is the common trigger for erythema multiforme?
Infections
Which condition has target lesions as a feature?
Erythema multiforme
What is erythema multiforme major?
Erythema multiforme with mucosal involvement
Which type of hair loss is caused by severe stress?
Telogen effluvium
What is a possible cause for telogen effluvium?
Pregnancy
Which type of hair loss causes well-circumscribed areas of total hair loss?
Alopecia areata
What defines scarring or non-scarring alopecia?
Destruction or preservation of the hair follicle
Common causes of erythema nodosum in females include?
✓ Pregnancy
✓ COCP use
Purple painful lesions on the shin should elicit possible diagnosis of?
Erythema nodosum
What are the usual inflammatory associations of Ulcerative colitis?
✓ large joint arthritis
✓ sacroilitis
✓ Pyoderma gangrenosum
What is pathergy?
Hyper reactivity of the skin in response to trauma
What condition commonly exhibits pathergy?
Pyoderma gangrenosum
What condition can cause both erythema nodosum and erythema gangrenosum?
Inflammatory bowel disease
What are the risk factors for capillary hemangiomas?
✓ Female infants
✓ Premature infants
✓ Infants of mother that had chorionic villus sampling
A brown nodule with a fissured greasy surface, well demarcated against the skin, and exhibiting the stuck-on appearance is classical of?
Seborrheic keratosis
What cancers can actinic keratoses predispose to?
Squamous cell carcinoma
What is the usual first symptom of rosacea?
Flushing of the skin
In what condition is rhinophyma seen?
Rosacea
What is the indication for dermatology referral in rosacea?
Presence of rhinophyma
What is the treatment for mild rosacea?
Topical metronidazole
What is the treatment for severe rosacea?
Oxytetracycline (systemic)
Does HIV predispose to seborrheic dermatitis?
Yes
Which fungus is typically taught to be the cause of seborrheic dermatitis?
Malassezia furfur
What conditions are usually associated with seborrheic dermatitis?
✓ HIV
✓ Parkinson’s disease
Which seborrheic dermatitis subtype does not have topical ketoconazole as the first line treatment?
Scalp seborrheic dermatitis (use preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar)
Which skin condition is usually associated with coeliac disease?
Dermatitis herpetiformis
Are dermatitis herpetiformis lesions commoner in flexor or extensor surfaces?
Extensor surfaces
Are keloid scars commoner in flexor or extensor surfaces?
Extensor surfaces
What is the pathophysiologic cause of dermatitis herpetiformis?
Deposition of IgA in the dermis
Which ulcer types are amenable to compression bandaging?
Venous ulcers
What is a normal ABPI index reading?
0.9 - 1.2
What ABPI value reflects arterial disease?
< 0.9
(Also > 1.2 in arterial calcification such as in diabetics) false negative
