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Endocrine / MSK / Repro > MSK review > Flashcards

MSK review Flashcards

1
Q

What two tests are for the meniscus?

A

McMurray and Apley

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2
Q

What is the key finding in compartment syndrome?

A

pain with passive movement

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3
Q

What is an important early step in evaluating a knee dislocation?

A

ABIs to rule out vascular injury

knee dislocation can affect the popliteal artery

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4
Q

What two tests are for the biceps?

A

Speed’s test and Yergason test

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5
Q

What is a common stem for biceps problems?

A

softball pitcher

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6
Q

What test is for subacromial bursitis?

A

Neer sign

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7
Q

What is a common inciting event for shoulder dislocation?

A

a fall

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8
Q

What is the test for shoulder dislocation?

A

Apprehension test (or relocation)

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9
Q

What are two tests for subscapularis?

A

Belly press and liftoff

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10
Q

What does a herniated disk cause?

A

radiculopathy –nerve root in spine is compressed or irritated, numbness and pain radiating down extremity

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11
Q

What is pars interarticularis a buzz word for?

A

Spondylolysis

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12
Q

What is “scotty dog” a buzz word for ?

A

Spondylolysis

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13
Q

Patient has wide, wobbly gait and decreased sensation in hand …

A

cervical myelopathy

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14
Q

“Pill-rolling” tremor …

A

Parkinson’s

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15
Q

What is the point of the menisci?

A

to act as shock absorbers

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16
Q

What does the patellar tendon do?

A

extend the knee

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17
Q

Benediction sign …

A

Median nerve palsy

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17
Q

What does the biceps femoris do?

A

flex the knee

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18
Q

What does the median nerve innervate?

A

index and two middle fingers

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19
Q

Clawing …

A

ulnar palsy

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20
Q

Inability to flex the elbow …

A

musculocutaneous palsy

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21
Q

Lack of shoulder flexion …

A

axillary palsy

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22
Q

Inability to extend fingers, wrist and thumb …

A

radial nerve palsy

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23
Q

What does the drop arm test evaluate?

A

rotator cuff tear

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24
Q

What type of tear is associated with a shoulder dislocation?

A

labreal tear

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25
Q

What is a key finding in glenohumeral arthritis?

A

lack of external rotation (and crepitus)

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26
Q

What is affected in medical scapular winging?

A

long thoracic nerve innervating the serratus anterior

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27
Q

What is affected in lateral scapular winging?

A

dorsal scapular nerve innervating the rhomboid muscle

accessory nerve innervating the trapezius

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28
Q

What nerve innervates the pec major?

A

medial pectoral nerve

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29
Q

What nerve is affected by a lower trunk injury?

A

the ulnar nerve which affects the pinky and ring finger interossei muscles (abduction)

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30
Q

Do you normally give steroid injections with trauma?

A

no!

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31
Q

Cubital tunnel syndrome affects …

A

the ulnar nerve which leads to numbness in small and ring fingers

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32
Q

What are 2 exam findings of cubital tunnel syndrome?

A

1) positive elbow flexion test

2) Tinel sign at the elbow

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33
Q

when are symptoms worse in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

worse at night (and with driving)

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34
Q

What are 2 tests seen in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

a) tinel sign

b) Phalen test

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35
Q

What nerve is compressed in Saturday night palsy?

A

the radial nerve

which leads to wrist and finger drop

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36
Q

What does radial tunnel syndrome present with?

A

vague dorsal forearm pain

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37
Q

What nerve innervates the biceps?

A

musculocutaneous

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38
Q

What nerve is injured in carpal tunnel?

A

median nerve

leads to pain in thumb, index and middle finger (sign of benediction)

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39
Q

How would distal biceps rupture present?

A

loud pop when lifting a heavy object

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40
Q

what is affected in tennis elbow (backhand)?

A

lateral epicondylitis

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41
Q

what is affected in golfer’s elbow (forehand)?

A

medial epicondylitis

42
Q

Are ganglion cysts visible on XR?

A

no

43
Q

What is the most commonly affected portion of the scaphoid with avascular necrosis?

A

the proximal portion due to retrograde blood flow

44
Q

Boxer’s fracture

A

small metacarpal neck fracture

45
Q

What is a key feature of ganglion cyst?

A

transilluminates

46
Q

How do lipomas present?

A

soft and spongy masses

47
Q

Varus test …

A

LCL

48
Q

Valgus test …

A

MCL

49
Q

What are the 4 main characteristics of osteoarthritis?

A

1) Joint space narrowing

2) Osteophyte formation

3) Subchondryl cyst

4) Sclerosis

50
Q

When are epidural steroid injections useful?

A

when there is radiculopathy

51
Q

What Cobb’s angle is considered scoliosis?

A

> 10 º

52
Q

What Cobb’s angle is associated with CV and respiratory problems / death?

A

> 90º

53
Q

L2 controls …

A

hip flexion

54
Q

L3 controls …

A

knee extension

55
Q

L4 controls …

A

ankle dorsiflexion

56
Q

L5 controls …

A

extensor hallucis longus

57
Q

S1 controls …

A

ankle plantar flexion

58
Q

L3 controls …

A

patellar reflex

59
Q

S3 / S4 control …

A

bowel and bladder function

60
Q

What spinal level controls toe walking? How about heel walking?

A

Toe walking: S1

Heel walking: L4-L5

61
Q

What spinal level controls the achilles reflex?

A

S1

62
Q

Straight leg test

A

patient lies down and you push their leg up like in gym class stretching

test is positive when there is pain in same distribution as lower radicular nerve roots (L5 or S1)

63
Q

What 2 signs of cauda equina require immediate surgery?

A

urinary retention and saddle anasthesia

64
Q

Spondylosis

A

Degeneration of the spinal column due to osteoarthritis

65
Q

Spondylolysis

A

stress fracture through the pars interarticularis of the lumbar vertebrae

66
Q

What does a young gymnast with back pain during reptitive extension activities most likely have?

A

spondyloysis

67
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

displacement of one spinal vertebra compared to another

68
Q

What helps you differentiate between neurological claudication and vascular?

A

shopping cart sign is positive in neuro

69
Q

How do you treat cervical myelopathy?

A

immediate surgery

70
Q

UTIs in men from urinary retention indicates …

A

cervical myelopathy when you also see upper and lower neuro signs (Babinski and Hoffman reflex)

71
Q

When do you see a PCL tear?

A

occurs often due to trauma when knee slams into the dashboard

72
Q

What is the unhappy triad?

A

ACL, MCL and meniscus

73
Q

Hoffman sign

A

shows cervical trauma

flick middle finger and see if thumb moves

74
Q

Name the 3 breaks of the arm and the nerves affected (work high to low)

A

Head of humerus: axillary

Midshaft: Radial

Distal RADIUS: median nerve

75
Q

What two muscles does the femoral nerve innervate?

A

quadriceps and sartorius

76
Q

What does obturator nerve innervate?

A

adductor longus

77
Q

What innervates biceps femoris?

A

common peroneal nerve

78
Q

What is true when ordering imaging of the hip?

A

should always order bilateral pelvis films to compare

79
Q

What are the positions of club foot?

A

Cavus, adductus, varus and equinus

80
Q

Paget disease of bone signs

A

Slow onset swelling

Arthritic pain in knee

Increased radiodensity

Elevated ALP

81
Q

Perthes disease causes …

A

loss of blood to supply the femoral head

82
Q

How does Perthes disease present?

A

limp and “one leg longer than other” in younger child

83
Q

Transient / toxic synovitis presents as ..

A

acute pain that improves with NSAID use

84
Q

What cancers (5) are most likely to metastasize to the bone?

A

breast, kidney, lung, thyroid and prostate

metastasize through Batson’s venous plexus

85
Q

Nursemaid’s elbow

A

Pulled elbow in young children that affects the annular ligament of the elbow

86
Q

What nerve can be injured in Nursemaid elbow?

A

radial nerve

87
Q

What is first line testing if you suspect a malignancy?

A

plain films

88
Q

Supracondyl humerus fractures affect which nerve and artery?

A

median nerve – more specifically AIN branch!

brachial artery

89
Q

What is breech presentation a risk factor for?

A

hip dysplasia

90
Q

Maintains existing bone

A

osteocyte

91
Q

Produces and maintains connective tissue

A

fibroblast

92
Q

Secrete immunoglobins

A

plasma cells

93
Q

What is mutated in osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

collagen type I

94
Q

What does a mutation in Vitamin D hydroxylase cause?

A

vitamin D-dependent rickets

95
Q

WBC > 200 k, abundant cocci, no crystals

A

septic arthritis

96
Q

WBC = 3k, no organisms, no crystals

A

Normal

97
Q

WBC = 12k, no organisms, negative birefringent crystals

A

gout

98
Q

WBC = 110k, spirochetes, no crystals

A

lyme

99
Q

Benign bone lesion

A

round and well-demarcated

100
Q

What is the most common place to see a metastasis from the BONE?

A

lung

101
Q

Popcorn cancer

A

Chondrosarcoma

102
Q

Osteochondroma

A

single outcropping of bone

103
Q
A

Endocrine / MSK / Repro (8 decks)

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