MSK buzzwords Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of vitamin D?

A

Increases calcium and phosphate via resorption in kidney

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2
Q

What are the functions of parathyroid hormone?

A
  • Increases calcium via bone & kidney resorption + vitamin D synthesis
  • increases phosphate via bone resorption—> decreased via excretion
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3
Q

What is ergocalciferol?

A

Plant derivative D2

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4
Q

What is cholecalciferol?

A

Animal derivative D3

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5
Q

How is cholecalciferol synthesized?

A

7 dehydrocholesterol —> cholecalciferol via sunlight

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6
Q

How does PTH activation lead to cholecalciferol activation?

A

Cholecalciferol—> 25-hydroxy via 25 hydroxylase —> Dihydroxy via 1 hydroxylase (PTH activation)

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7
Q

What is the purpose of calcitonin?

A

Decrease calcium via osteoclasts activity

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8
Q

What is the result of vitamin D liver disease?

A

Reduce 25-hydroxylase activity

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9
Q

What is the result of vitamin D kidney disease?

A

Reduce 1-hydroxylase activity

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10
Q

What are the effects of Rickets(vit d deficiency)?

A

Bow leg deformity

Rachitic rosary

Pigeon chest

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11
Q

What are the effects of Rickets(vit d resistant )?

A

Alopecia (hair loss)

Elevated 1,25(OH) 2D (decreased Ca. From diet)

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12
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

A disease that causes broken bones and can cause them to break more easily. Leads to frequent fractures

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13
Q

What are the causes of hypocalcemia ?

A

Low PTH —> hypoparathyroidism

High PTH —> Secondary hyperparathyroidism

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14
Q

What is the result of hypervitaminosis?

A

Vit. D toxicity —> enhanced calcium absorption—> hypercalcemia —> soft tissue calcification

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15
Q

What does hypocalcemia (renal insufficiency) lead to?

A

Low 1,25 hydroxyl vitamin D

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16
Q

What does hypocalcemia (parathyroidectomy ) lead to?

A

Low parathormone levels

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17
Q

What does severe hypocalcemia lead to?

A

Tetany—> cardiac arythmas/breathing —> calcium gluconate IV (immediate treatment) or Ca supplement + Vit D

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18
Q

What are the effects of HYPERcalcemia?

A

Excessive PTH —> HIGH PTH HIGH CA LOP PO4

Hypervitaminosis D —> HIGH CA HIGH PO4 HIGH (OH) 2D “Bones, moans, stones, abdominal groans”

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19
Q

What is the result of Hyperphosphatemia ?

A

Poor PO4 Absorption (vitamin D deficiency) + high PO4 Excretion (Excess PTH)

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20
Q

Where is herpes zoster located ?

A

Located at dorsal root ganglion

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21
Q

What is hyper kyphosis?

A

“Hunchback” —> increase in thoracic curvature

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22
Q

What is crush fracture?

A

Compression of vertebral body

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23
Q

What is a wedge fracture?

A

Small fractures around vertebral body

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24
Q

What is spinal canal stenosis syndrome?

A

Hypertrophy of Ligamentum flavum

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25
Q

What are lateral displaced scapula?

A

Damaged dorsal scapular nerve/ rhomboid maj. min.

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26
Q

What causes winged scapula?

A

Long thoracic nerve

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27
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture made?

A

Between L4/L5 (subarachnoid space)(past supraspinous ligament ) (incorrect puncture —> go through posterior longitudinal ligament)

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28
Q

What is the landmark for lumbar puncture?

A

Highest points of iliac crests (tuffier’s line)

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29
Q

What is Disc herniation?

A

Nucleus pulposis protrusion posterolaterally into intervertebral foramen)

30
Q

What is the spina bifida occulta?

A

Tuft of hair + small dimple

31
Q

What is the spina bifida meningocele?

A

Protrusion of meninges through unfused vertebral arch

32
Q

What is a spina bifida myelomeningocoele?

A

Protrusion of meninges and CNS tissue

33
Q

What is spina bifida myeloschisis?

A

Protrusion of spinal cord or spinal nerves and meninges

34
Q

Where is the spinal cord terminated?

A

L1/L2

35
Q

What is a laminectomy?

A

Removed the portion of the vertebra called the Lamina

36
Q

Where is caudal anesthetic given?

A

Sacral hiatus—> epidural space (given during pregnancy)

37
Q

What causes drooping shoulder ?

A

Damage to spinal accessory nerve/ trapezius

38
Q

What is a Hangman’s fracture?

A

Par inter-articularis ~ spondylolysis of C2 (anterior displacement= Spondylolisthesis)

39
Q

What is whiplash?

A

Hyperextension injury + torn anterior longitudinal ligament

40
Q

What is Jefferson?

A

Burst fracture of C1/C2 ONLY —> DAMAGE to anterior/posterior arches

41
Q

What is wedge/compression fracture?

A

Loss of height - vertebral compression

42
Q

What is a chance fracture?

A

Transverse fracture with anterior compression of vertebral body @ T12-L2= forward flexion (lap seatbelt injury)

43
Q

What is a burst fracture?

A

Severe compression + vertebral body spread out all direction s (anything below C2)

44
Q

What is spondylosis ?

A

Fracture of superior/inferior Articular process/pars interarticularis (dog collar)

45
Q

What is spondolysthesis?

A

Vertebra slips anteriorly

46
Q

What controls epidural drainage?

A

Internal vertebral plexus of Batson

47
Q

What are the functions of the dorsal and ventral rami?

A

Dorsal rami: innervation of deep intrinsic back muscles

Ventral rami: mixed spinal nerves to/from all body minus back and head cranial nerves

48
Q

What parts comprise the triangle of petit?

A

Medial border: latissimus dorsi

Lateral border: external abdominal oblique

Inferior border: iliac crest

Floor: internal abdominal oblique

49
Q

What parts comprise the triangle of auscultation?

A

Latimuss dorsi + trapezius + scapula

50
Q

What is the location of indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Located at inguinal canal

51
Q

What is the location of the direct inguinal canal?

A

Located at hesselbach’s triangle

52
Q

Where is the femoral hernia located?

A

Located below inguinal ligament

53
Q

What klippel-feil syndrome?

A

Reduction/ fusion of cervical vertebrae —> stiff neck + limited motion

54
Q

What is Chiari II Malformation?

A

Herniation of medulla and cerebellum into foramen magnum

55
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Over production of CSF / interference with absorption

56
Q

What is tethered cord syndrome?

A

Defective closure of neural tube + low conus medullaris /thick filum terminale

57
Q

What is the artery of Adamkiewicz/ great radical air artery?

A

Blood supply to anterior/posterior spinal arteries

58
Q

What are somites derived from ?

A

Derived from Sclerotome

59
Q

What is the Annulus fibrosis?

A

Sclerotome component is somite

60
Q

What is the Remnant of the Notochord?

A

Nucleus Pulposis

61
Q

What is the nature of slow type 1 muscle fiber?

A

Type 1 slow in nature, high myoglobin, high mitochondria, slow conduction

Slow contraction—> found in long muscles of back

62
Q

What is the nature of the type IIA muscle fibers?

A

Fast oxidative—> high glycogen+ anaerobic glycolysis

63
Q

What is the nature of the type IIB muscle fibers?

A

Fast glycolystic —> low myoglobin + low mitochondria + low oxidative enzyme —> found in extraocular muscles + muscles of digits

64
Q

What is Titin?

A

Anchor thick filament to Z line

65
Q

What is the function of Alpha actinin?

A

Anchor thin filament to Z line

66
Q

What is the function of Nebulin?

A

Anchor THIN Filament to Z-line + Regulate length during development

67
Q

What is the function of Myomesin/ C Protein?

A

Connects THICK Filament to M-line

68
Q

What are the functions of Tropomodulin?

A

Maintain LENGTH of ACTIN filament

69
Q

What is the function of Dystrophin?

A

Link LAMIN of ECM of ACTIN FILAMENT

70
Q

What is the function of Dystroglycan?

A

Link b/w Dystrophin + Laminin

71
Q

What is the sarcoglycan ?

A

Associated w. membrane dystroglycans —> encode 4 different sarcoglycans