MSK and rheumatology Flashcards

1
Q

what are types of macro bone structure?

A

cortical and trabecular

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2
Q

what are features of cortical bone?

A
  • compact
  • dense, solid
  • only spaces are for cells and blood vessels
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3
Q

what are features of trabecular bone?

A
  • cancellous (spongy)
  • network of bony struts (trabeculae)
  • looks like sponge, many holes filled with bone marrow
  • cells reside in trabeculae and blood vessels in holes
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4
Q

what are types of micro bone structure?

A

woven and lamellar bone

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5
Q

what are features of woven bone?

A
  • made quickly
  • disorganised
  • no clear structure
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6
Q

what are features of lamellar bone?

A
  • made slowly
  • organised
  • layered structure
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7
Q

how does whole bone structure contribute to function?

A
  • hollow long bone: keeps mass away from the neutral axis and minimised deformation
  • trabecular bone: gives structural support while minimising mass
  • wide ends: spreads load over weak, low friction surface
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8
Q

what is the bone composition in adults?

A

• 50-70% mineral:
- hydroxyapatite: crystalline form of calcium phosphate
• 20-40% organic matrix:
- type 1 collagen: 90% of all protein
- non-collagenous proteins: 10% of all protein
• 5-10% water

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9
Q

what is osteoarthritis?

A
  • type of joint disease that results from breakdown of joint cartilage and underlying cartilage
    • cartilage loss with accompanying periarticular bone response
    • inflammation of articular and periarticular structures and alteration in cartilage structure
    • non-inflammatory degenerative arthritis
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10
Q

what is the epidemiology of osteoarthritis?

A
  • an age-related, dynamic reaction pattern of a joint in response to insult or injury
  • all tissues of the joint are involved
  • articular cartilage is the most affected
  • most common joint condition affecting the synovial joint
  • the most common types of arthritis
  • the most common cause of disability in the Western world in older adults
  • majority is primary with no obvious factor causing it
  • secondary OA occurs in joint disease or other conditions e.g. haemochromatosis, obesity and occupational
  • prevalence increases with age; uncommon before the age of 50
  • beyond 55 it is more common in females than males
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11
Q

what are risk factors for osteoarthrtitis?

A
  • joint hypermobility
  • insufficient joint repair
  • diabetes
  • increasing age
  • more common in females
  • genetic predisposition
  • obesity
  • occupation
  • local trauma
  • inflammatory arthritis e.g. RA
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12
Q

what is a genetic risk factor for osteoarthritis?

A

COL2A1 collagen type 2 gene

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13
Q

how can occupation act as a risk factor for osteoarthritis?

A
  • manual labour associated with OA of the small joints of the hand
  • farming is associated with OA of the hips
  • football is associated with OA of the knees
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14
Q

what is cartilage?

A

cartilage is a matrix of collagen fibres, enclosing a mixture of glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, collagen fibres, elastin and water; it has a smooth surface and is shock-absorbing

  • resilient and smooth elastic tissue, a rubber-like padding
  • composed of chondrocytes that produce a large amount of collagenous extracellular matrix
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15
Q

what is the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis?

A
  • progressive destruction and loss of articular cartilage with an accompanying periarticular bone response
  • under normal circumstance, there is a dynamic balance between cartilage degradation and production by chondrocytes
  • early in the development of OA this balance is lost and despite the increased synthesis of extracellular matrix, the cartilage becomes oedematous
  • focal erosion of cartilage develops and chondrocytes die and, although repair is attempted from adjacent cartilage, the process is disordered, leading to a failure of synthesis of extracellular matrix so that the surface becomes fibrillated and fissured
  • cartilage ulceration exposes the underlying bone to increased stress, producing micro-fractures and cysts
  • the bone attempts repair but produces abnormal
    sclerotic subchondral bone and overgrows at the joint margins which become calcified (osteophytes)
  • secondary inflammation
  • exposed bone becomes sclerotic, with increased vascularity and cyst formation
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16
Q

what are osteophytes? how are they formed?

A
  • exostoses (bony projections) that form along joint margins
  • typically intraarticular
  • form due to increase in a damaged joint’s surface area
  • limit joint movement and typically cause pain
  • bone attempts repair but produces abnormal sclerotic subchondral bone and overgrowths at the joint margins which become calcified
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17
Q

what are the different mechanisms for pathogenesis of osteoarthritis?

A
  • metalloproteinases e.g. stomelysin and collagenase, secreted by chondrocytes degrade the collagen and proteoglycan
  • IL-1 and TNFalpha stimulate metalloproteinase production and inhibit collagen production
  • deficiency of growth factors impairs matrix repair
  • gene susceptibility (35-60% influence) from multiple genes rather than a single gene defect - mutations in the gene for type II collagen have been associated with early polyarticular OA
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18
Q

what is the clinical presentation of osteoarthritis?

A
  • affects many joints, typically causing mechanical pain with movement and/or loss of function
  • symptoms are usually gradual in onset and progressive
  • joint pain made worse by movement and relieved by rest
  • joint stiffness after rest (gelling)
  • in contrast to RA, there is only transient morning stiffness
  • limited joint movement
  • muscle wasting of surrounding muscle groups
  • crepitus
  • joint effusions
  • Heberden’s nodes are bone swellings at the DIPJs
  • Bouchard’s occur at the PIPJs
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19
Q

what are the joints most commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

A
  • DIPJs (Herbeden’s nodes) and the first carpometacarpal joints of the hands
  • first metatarsophalangeal joint of the foot
  • weight-bearing joints: vertebra, hips and knees
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20
Q

what are Herbeden’s nodes?

A

bone swellings at the DIPJs

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21
Q

what are Bouchard’s nodes?

A

bone swellings at the PIPJs

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22
Q

what are differential diagnoses of osteoarthritis? how can it be differentiated from RA?

A
  • OA is differentiated from RA by the pattern of joint
    involvement and the absence of systemic features and absence of marked early morning stiffness that occurs in RA
  • chronic tophaceous gout and psoriatic arthritis affecting the DIPJs may mimic OA
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23
Q

what is used to diagnose OA?

A
  • deformity and bony enlargement of joints
  • CRP may be slightly elevated
  • rheumatoid factor and antinuclear antibodies are negative
  • X-rays
  • MRI to see early cartilage injury and subchondral bone marrow changes
  • aspiration of synovial fluid if there is a painful effusion - this shows viscous fluid with few leucocytes
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24
Q

what is seen on X-rays in OA?

A
• LOSS:
- Loss of joint space
- Osteophytes
- Subarticular sclerosis
- Subchondral cysts
• abnormalities of bone contour
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25
Q

what is the non-medical treatment of OA?

A
  • exercise to improve local muscle strength, improve mobility of weight bearing joints and general aerobic fitness
  • lose weight if obese
  • local heat or ice packs applied to affected joint
  • bracing devices, joint supports, insoles for joint stability and footwear with shock-absorbing properties for lower limb OA
  • acupuncture, physiotherapy and occupational therapy
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26
Q

what is pharmacological treatment for OA?

A

• paracetamol prescribed before NSAIDs
• can take weak opioids alongside paracetamol
• intra-articular corticosteroid injections produce short-term improvement when there is a painful joint effusion:
- systemic corticosteroids not used
- do not administer if joint is going to be replaced

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27
Q

what types of surgery can be used to treat OA?

A
  • arthroscopy
  • arthroplasty
  • osteotomy
  • fusion
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28
Q

how is arthroscopy used to treat OA?

A

endoscope inserted into joint through small incision to assess damage and remove loose bodies; this is the only indication for arthroscopy in osteoarthritis

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29
Q

how is arthroplasty used to treat OA? what are the indications for it?

A
  • articular surface of a MSK joint is replaced, remodelled or realigned by osteotomy
  • indications: uncontrolled pain and significant limitation of function
  • prosthetic joint has lifespan of 10-15 years and will need replacement, in a young person it could be done up to 3 times
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30
Q

how is osteotomy used to treat OA?

A

surgical operation whereby a bone is cut to shorten or lengthen it or to change its alignment

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31
Q

how is fusion used to treat OA?

A
  • usually of ankle and foot to prevent painful grinding of bones
  • loss of mobility
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32
Q

what is rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • long-term, chronic systemic autoimmune disorder that primarily affects joints
  • causes symmetrical deforming polyarthropathy
  • disease of the synovial joints
  • inflammatory autoimmune arthritis
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33
Q

what is the epidemiology of RA?

A
  • it is common affecting 1% of the population worldwide with a peak prevalence between 30-50 yrs
  • prevalence is increased in smokers
  • not seen as much in the elderly in contrast to OA
  • more common in females than males
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34
Q

how can genetic factors act as risk factors for RA?

A

HLA-DR4 and HLA-DRB1 confer susceptibility to RA and are associated with development of more severe erosive disease

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35
Q

how can the immune system act as a risk factor for RA?

A

• triggering antigen in RA is unknown but factors are produced by activated:
- T cells: interferon, IL-2 and IL-4
- macrophages: IL-1, IL-8 and TNF-alpha
- mast cells: histamine and TNF-alpha
- fibroblasts: IL-6
• these cause/contribute the ongoing synovial inflammation
• local production of rheumatoid factor (autoantibodies directed against the Fc portion of immunoglobulin) by B cells and formation of immune complexes with complement activation maintains the chronic inflammation

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36
Q

what are risk factors for RA?

A
  • gender
  • family history
  • genetic factors
  • smoking
  • immune system
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37
Q

what is the pathophysiology of RA?

A
  • over-production of TNF-alpha leads to synovitis
    and joint destruction - the interaction of macrophages, T and B lymphocytes drives this overproduction
  • in RA the synovium becomes greatly thickened and becomes infiltrated by inflammatory cells
  • generation of new synovial blood vessels is induced by angiogenic cytokines and activated endothelial cells produce adhesion molecules which force leucocytes into the synovium where they can trigger inflammation
  • the synovium proliferates and grows out over the surface of the cartilage past the joint margins, producing a tumour-like mass called ‘pannus’
  • this pannus of inflamed synovium damages the underlying cartilage by blocking its normal route for
    nutrition and by direct effects of cytokines on the chondrocytes
  • the cartilage becomes thin and the underlying bone exposed
  • the pannus destroys the articular cartilage and subchondral bone, resulting in bony erosions
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38
Q

what is a pannus? what is its role in RA?

A
  • the inflamed synovium proliferates and grows out over the surface of the cartilage past the joint margins, producing a tumour-like mass called ‘pannus’
  • this pannus of inflamed synovium damages the underlying cartilage by blocking its normal route for
    nutrition and by direct effects of cytokines on the chondrocytes
  • the cartilage becomes thin and the underlying bone exposed
  • the pannus destroys the articular cartilage and subchondral bone, resulting in bony erosions
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39
Q

what joints are usually affected by RA?

A
  • small joints of the hand; MCP and PIP joints
  • usually the DIPs are spared
  • MTP joints of the feet
  • wrists, elbows, shoulders, knees and ankles
  • in most cases, many joints are involved
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40
Q

what is the clinical presentation of RA?

A
  • slowly progressive, symmetrical swollen, painful, tender, warm and stiff joints
  • symptoms worse in the morning and in the cold
  • morning stiffness lasting more than 30 minutes
  • symmetrical peripheral polyarthritis
  • movement limitation and muscle wasting
  • fatigue and disturbed sleep
  • shoulder and elbows may become swollen and stiff
  • feet pain in MTP joints, foot becomes broader and hammer toe deformity leading to ulcers and callouses
  • synovitis and effusions in the knees
  • tenosynovitis
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41
Q

what are hand deformities that are seen in RA?

A
  • ulnar deviation
  • swan neck/Z thumb
  • Boutonniere deformity
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42
Q

what are extra-articular manifestations of RA in the lungs?

A

pleural effusions, fibrosing alveolitis, pneumoconiosis (Caplan’s syndrome, especially in miners), interstitial lung disease, bronchiectasis

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43
Q

what are extra-articular manifestations of RA in the eyes?

A

dry eyes, episcleritis (non severe mild redness of eyes), scleritis (severe pain, can’t look at bright lights)

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44
Q

what are extra-articular manifestations of RA in the neurological system?

A
  • peripheral sensory neuropathies
  • compression/entrapment neuropathies
  • cord compression due to instability of the cervical spine; occurs in severe RA, presents with sensory loss, weakness and disturbed bladder function
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45
Q

what are extra-articular manifestations of RA in the kidneys?

A

amyloidosis, nephrotic syndrome and CKD

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46
Q

what are extra-articular manifestations of RA in the skin?

A

subcutaneous nodules

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47
Q

how is RA diagnosed via the blood?

A
  • normocytic normochromic anaemia
  • ESR and/or CRP raised in proportion to the activity of the inflammatory process; useful for monitoring treatment
  • positive rheumatoid factor in 80%
  • positive anti cyclic citrullinated peptide in 30% (indicates likelihood of progression to RA, those positive have worse prognosis)
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48
Q

what is seen on an X-ray in RA?

A
  • soft tissue swelling in early disease
  • joint space narrowing in late disease
  • periarticular erosions
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49
Q

what is seen on MRI and ultrasound in RA?

A

erosions at joint margins and bones

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50
Q

what is seen on aspiration of joint in RA?

A

if effusion present then do an aspiration of joint; will be cloudy due to high white cells

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51
Q

what is general treatment of RA?

A
  • no cure
  • smoking cessation to reduce risk of CV disease
  • reduce weight
  • exercise
  • surgery e.g. synovectomy to reduce bulk of inflamed tissue and prevent damage
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52
Q

what is done in pain management for RA?

A
  • NSAIDs and COX inhibitors

- paracetamol with/without opioids

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53
Q

how are corticosteorids used to treat RA?

A
  • suppress disease activity but risk of long term toxicity
  • can cause osteoporosis (most common cause of secondary osteoporosis) and increase risk of fracture
  • oral corticosteroids have many side effects
  • IM injection of depot for those waiting for DMARDs to work
  • intra-articular injection; semicrystalline steroid (rapid but short-lived effect)
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54
Q

what are DMARDs? how are they used to treat RA?

A

Disease-Modifying Anti-Rheumatic drugs
• inhibit inflammatory cytokines
• used early to reduce inflammation and slow development of joint erosions and irreversible damage
• take 6 weeks to start working
• all have serious side effects so monitoring with blood tests is required

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55
Q

what are examples of DMARDs?

A
  • methotrexate (oral)
  • sulfasalazine (oral)
  • leflunomide (oral)
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56
Q

how is methotrexate used in RA? what is the mechanism and side effects?

A
  • csDMARD
  • gold standard drug used for more active disease
  • purine metabolism inhibitor
  • contraindicated in pregnancy
  • side effects: nausea, mouth ulcers, diarrhoea, abnormal LFTs, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, renal impairment
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57
Q

how is sulfasalazine used in RA? what is its mechanism and side effects?

A
  • csDMARD
  • for mild/moderate disease
  • used in young people and women
  • suppression of IL-1 and TNF-alpha; induces apoptosis of inflammatory cells and increases chemotactic factors
  • side effects: nausea, skin rashes, mouth ulcers, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, abnormal LFTs
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58
Q

how is leflunomide used in RA? what is its mechanism and side effects?

A
  • csDMARD
  • pyrimidine synthesis inhibitor
  • block T cell proliferation
  • side effects: diarrhoea, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, alopecia, hypertension
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59
Q

what are types of biological therapy used for RA?

A
  • very expensive
  • TNF-alpha blockers
  • B cell inhibitors
  • interleukin blockers
  • T cell activation blockers
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60
Q

what are TNF-alpha blockers? how are they used for RA? what is their mechanism of action?

A
  • first line biological treatment
  • slows/halts erosion formation
  • given alongside methotrexate
  • TNF is produced early on to initiate the immune response
  • TNF levels are raised in the synovial fluid and synovium; this leads to local inflammation through signalling of synovial cells to produce metalloproteinases and collagenase
  • TNF regulates other cytokines, it also stimulates osteoclast development
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61
Q

what are some examples of TNF-alpha blockers?

A
  • infliximab (IV)
  • etanercept (SC)
  • adalimumab (SC)
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62
Q

what is infliximab? what is its mechanism of action and its side effects?

A
  • chimeric monoclonal antibody biologic used in RA
  • binds to TNF-alpha and prevents it from binding to its receptor
  • side effects: demyelination and autoimmune syndromes
  • IV
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63
Q

what is etanercept? what is its mechanism of action and its side effects?

A
  • fusion protein produced by recombinant DNA
  • used in RA
  • fuses the TNF receptor to the constant end of the IgG1 antibody; reduces the effects of naturally present TNF
  • side effects: hypersensitivity reactions, infection
  • SC
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64
Q

what is adalimumab? what is its mechanism of action and its side effects?

A
  • monoclonal antibody used in RA
  • inactivates TNF-alpha
  • side effects: hypersensitivity reactions, heart failure
  • SC
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65
Q

what are B-cell inhibitors? how are they used in RA? what is an example?

A
  • B cells produce rheumatoid factor (binds to Fc portion of IgG forming immune complex)
  • rituximab
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66
Q

what is rituximab? what is its mechanism and side effects?

A
  • monoclonal antibody used in RA
  • B cell inhibitor
  • destroys normal and malignant B cells that have CD20 on their surfaces
  • IV
  • used in patients that have failed to respond to anti-TNF agents
  • side effects: hypo/hypertension, skin rash, nausea, pruritus, back pain
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67
Q

what are examples of interleukin blockers?

A
  • tocilizumab

- anakinra

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68
Q

what is tocilizumab? what is its mechanism and side effects?

A
  • monoclonal antibody that binds to IL-6 cytokine before it reaches target receptor; used in RA
  • IL-6 and IL-1 are the most important in joint inflammation
  • used alongside methotrexate
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69
Q

what is anakinra? what is its mechanism?

A
  • used in RA
  • a recombinant and slightly modified version of the human IL-1 receptor antagonist protein
  • SC
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70
Q

what is an example of T cell activation blockers? what does it do?

A

abatacept
• blocks T cell activation which means macrophages and B cells cannot be activated, which reduces inflammation
• fusion protein composed of the Fc region of the immunoglobulin IgG1 fused to the extracellular domain of CTLA-4
• abatacept binds to the CD80 and CD86 molecule, and prevents the signal required to activated the T cell

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71
Q

what are the differences in pain in RA vs OA?

A

RA: pain eases with use
OA: pain increases with use, and there are clicks/clunks

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72
Q

what are the differences in stiffness in RA vs OA?

A

RA

  • significant (>30 mins)
  • early morning/at rest

OA

  • not prolonged (<30 mins)
  • morning/evening or after periods of activity
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73
Q

what are the differences in joint symptoms in RA vs OA?

A

RA

  • synovial and/or bony swelling
  • hot and red
  • painful, swollen and stiff joints

OA

  • joints ache and may be tender but have little or no swelling
  • not clinically inflamed
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74
Q

what are differences in the patient demographics in RA vs OA?

A

RA

  • young, psoriasis, family history
  • can begin any time in life
  • relatively rapid onset, over weeks to months

OA

  • older, prior occupation/sport
  • usually begins later in life
  • slow onset, over years
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75
Q

what are differences in the joint distribution in RA vs OA?

A

RA

  • hands and feet
  • often affects small and large joints on both sides of the body (symmetrical)

OA

  • 1st CMCJ, DIPJ, knees
  • often begin on one side of the body and may spread to other side
  • symptoms begin gradually and are often limited to one set of joints
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76
Q

what are differences in presence of systemic symptoms in RA vs OA?

A

RA

  • frequent fatigue and a general feeling of being ill
  • systemic symptoms

OA
- whole-body symptoms are not present

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77
Q

what is the definition of osteoporosis?

A
  • asystemic skeletal disease characterised by low bone mass and a microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue, with an increase in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture
  • defined as bone mineral density (BMD) more than 2.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean value (T score < 2.5)
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78
Q

what is osteopenia?

A
  • precursor to osteoporosis characterised by low bone density
  • defined as BMD between 1-2.5 standard deviations below the young adult mean value (-1 < T score < 2.5)
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79
Q

what is osteomalacia?

A

poor bone mineralisation leading to soft bone due to lack of Ca2+ (adults form of Ricket’s)

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80
Q

what is the T score?

A
  • standard deviation score ascertained using a Dual Energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan
  • compared with the gender-matched young adult average (peak bone mass)
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81
Q

what is the epidemiology of osteoporosis?

A
  • in those over 50 it is more common in females than males due to women losing trabeculae with age, whereas men, have stable numbers of trabeculae and reduced lifetime fracture risk
  • Caucasian and Asian races at risk
  • risk increases with age
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82
Q

what are risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • old age
  • women
  • family history of osteoporosis or fracture
  • previous bone fracture
  • smoking/alcohol
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83
Q

what is SHATTERED in relation to osteoporosis?

A

risk factors

  • Steroid (prednisolone) use and other drugs e.g. heparin, ciclosporin, PPIs, anticonvulsants, GnRH analogues, SSRIs, androgen deprivation
  • Hyperthyroidism and Hyperparathyroidism
  • Alcohol and tobacco: bad for bones
  • Thin: BMI <22
  • Testosterone decreased; leads to increased bone turnover
  • Early menopause: oestrogen drop leading to increased bone turnover
  • Renal or liver failure
  • Erosive/inflammatory bone disease e.g. RA/myeloma; cytokines (TNF alpha and IL6) increase bone turnover
  • Dietary calcium decrease/malabsorption, DMT1
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84
Q

how can hyperthryoidism and hyperparathyroidism cause osteoporosis?

A
  • other endocrine diseases e.g. Cushing’s (high cortisol)
  • thyroid hormone and parathyroid hormone increase bone turnover
  • cortisol increases bone resorption via osteoclasts and induces osteoblast apoptosis
  • oestrogen/testosterone control bone turnover
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85
Q

what is the pathophysiology of osteoporosis? what affects peak bone mass? what are genetic components?

A
  • peak bone mass is at around 25 yrs, then you start losing bone mass
  • osteoporosis results from increased bone breakdown by osteoclasts and decreased bone formation by osteoblasts, leading to loss of bone mass
  • bone mass decreases with age, but will depend on the ‘peak’ mass attained in adult life and on the rate of loss in later life
  • multiple genes are involved, including collagen type 1A1, vitamin D receptor and oestrogen receptor genes
  • nutritional factors, sex hormone status and physical activity also affect peak bone mass
  • oestrogen deficiency
  • changes in trabecular architecture with ageing
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86
Q

how does BMD determine bone strength?

A
  • says how much mineral is in bone

- determined by the amount gained during growth and amount lost during ageing

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87
Q

how does bone size determine bone strength?

A
  • short and fat is stronger than long and thin

- distribution of cortical bone

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88
Q

how does bone quality determine bone strength?

A
  • bone turnover, architecture and mineralisation affect bone strength
  • if there is not enough mineralisation then bone breaks, but if too much then bones are stiff and will shatter
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89
Q

how does oestrogen deficiency affect osteoporosis?

A
  • results in increased numbers of osteoclasts, premature arrest of osteoblastic synthetic activity and perforation of trabeculae with a loss of resistance to fracture
  • high bone turnover
  • predominantly cancellous bone loss
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90
Q

how do changes in trabecular architecture affect osteoporosis?

A
  • decrease in trabecular thickness; as we age the strain is felt on bones from head to tail and in response we tend to preferentially preserve vertical trabeculae and lose horizontal trabeculae
  • decreased trabecular strength and increased susceptibility to fracture
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91
Q

what is the clinical presentation of osteoporosis?

A
  • fracture is the only cause of symptoms in osteoporosis
  • vertebral crush fracture:
    • sudden onset of severe pain in the spine, often radiating to the front
    • thoracic vertebral fractures may lead to kyphosis
  • Colles’ fracture of the wrist follows a fall on an outstretched arm
  • fractures of the proximal femur usually occur in older individuals that fall on their side or back
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92
Q

what is kyphosis?

A
  • abnormally excessive convex curvature of the spine as it occurs in the thoracic and sacral regions
  • occurs in osteoporosis
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93
Q

what is seen on X-ray in osteoporosis?

A

demonstrates fractures but is insensitive for osteopenia

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94
Q

what is seen on a DEXA scan in osteoporosis?

A

dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
• low radiation dose and measures important fracture sites (lumbar spine and proximal femur)
• gold standard for measuring bone density and diagnosing osteoporosis
• generates T scores

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95
Q

what are lifestyle measures used to treat osteoporosis?

A
  • quit smoking and reduce alcohol consumption
  • increase weight-bearing exercise
  • calcium and vitamin D rich diet
  • balance exercises to reduce falls
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96
Q

what are examples of anti-resorptive drugs used to treat osteoporosis?

A
  • bisphosphonates (1st line treatment)
  • strontium renelate
  • denosunab
  • HRT
  • raloxifene
  • testosterone (for men)
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97
Q

what are features of bisphosphonates given to treat osteoporosis? what is their mechanism of action and side effects?

A
  • inhibit bone resorption through the inhibition of enzyme farnesyl pyrophosphate synthase, which is in the cholesterol pathway; this reduces osteoclast activity by removing their ruffled border
  • encourage osteoclasts to undergo apoptosis
  • prevent the loss of bone density
  • increases bone mass at hip and spine
  • reduce incidence of fracture and are cheap and effective
  • e.g. oral aldendronate (most common), oral risedronate, IV zoledronate (once yearly)
  • oral bisphosphonates should be taken fasting, with a large drink of water while standing or sitting upright
  • associated with oesophagitis
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98
Q

what is the mechanism of action of strontium renelate? how is it used to treat osteoporosis?

A
  • helps reduce fracture rates

* alternative for those who are intolerant to bisphosphonates

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99
Q

what is the mechanism of action of denosumab? how is it used to treat osteoporosis?

A
  • osteoblasts produce RANKL to activate osteoclasts and thus bone resorption
  • denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits RANKL signals
  • reduces fracture risk
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100
Q

what is the mechanism of action of HRT? how is it used to treat osteoporosis?

A

• 2nd line for osteoporosis; used in menopausal women
• reduces fracture risk and stops bone loss
• prevents hot flushes and other menopausal symptoms, also reduces colon cancer
• side effects; breast cancer, stroke and cardiovascular
disease

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101
Q

what is the mechanism of action raloxifene?

A
  • selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM); activates oestrogen receptor on bone whilst having no stimulatory effect on endometrium (similar to HRT)
  • side effects; increased risk of thrombus formation, cramps and stroke
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102
Q

what is a recombinant human parathyroid peptide? what is its action and side effects? what is an example?

A

• increases osteoblast activity and bone formation
• reduce fracture risk
• improves bone density, improves trabecular structure
• useful in those who suffer further fractures despite treatment with other agents
• side effects; increased risk of renal malignancy and
hypercalcaemia
• e.g. teriparatide

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103
Q

what is the ESR? what can it indicate?

A

erythrocyte sedimentation rate

  • rises with inflammation/infection
  • the rate at which RBCs in anticoagulated whole blood descend in standardised tube over a period of one hour
  • increased fibrinogen makes RBCs ‘stick together’ and thus fall faster (fall is measured in mm)
  • thus if ESR rises the rate of fall is faster
  • ESR rises and falls slowly (days to weeks)
  • false positives i.e. falsely high: females, age, obesity, SE asians, hypercholesterolaemia, high immunoglobulins
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104
Q

what is CRP? what can it indicate?

A

C-reactive protein
- acute phase protein
- released in inflammation/infection
- produced by the liver in response to IL-6
- rises and falls rapidly:
• high at 6 hours and peaks at 48 hours
• so if patients has infection in 24 hours, the ESR won’t have risen yet since it rises slowly but CRP would have!

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105
Q

what are some autoimmune diseases?

A
  • SLE
  • antiphospholipid syndrome
  • Sjogrens syndrome
  • systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
  • CREST syndrome
  • polymyositis and dermatomyositis
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106
Q

what is systemic lupus erythematosus?

A

an inflammatory, multisystem autoimmune disorder where healthy tissues in the body are attacked, with arthralgia and rashes as the most common clinical features, and cerebral and renal disease as the most serious problems

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107
Q

what is the epidemiology of SLE?

A
  • more common in females than males
  • peak age of onset between 20-40 yrs; typically women of childbearing age
  • commoner in African-Caribbeans and Asians
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108
Q

what are risk factors/aetiology of SLE?

A
  • cause unknown
  • family history
  • HLA genes have been linked to SLE
  • pre-menopausal women are most affected
  • drugs: hydralazine, isoniazid, procainamide and penicillamine
  • UV light can trigger flares of SLE
  • Epstein-Barr virus is a potential trigger for SLE
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109
Q

what is the pathophysiology of SLE?

A
  • immune complex mediated tissue damage
  • when cells die by apoptosis, the cellular remnants appear on the cell surface as small blebs that carry self antigens
  • these antigens include nuclear constituents such as DNA and histones, which are normally hidden from the immune system
  • in SLE, removal of these blebs by phagocytes is inefficient, so that they are transferred to the lymphoid tissues, where they can be taken up by APCs
  • these self-antigens from the blebs can then be presented to T cells, which stimulate B cells to produce autoantibodies directed against the antigens
  • can be years before clinical features develop
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110
Q

what are the consequences of SLE for the body?

A

the combination of availability of self antigens and failure of the immune system to inactivate the B cells and T cells that recognise these self antigens as foreign, and thus target them, leads to the following:
• development of autoantibodies that either from circulating complexes or deposit by binding directly to tissues
• activation of complement and influx of neutrophils, causing inflammation in those tissues
• abnormal cytokine production; increased IL-10 and interferon-alpha resulting in inflammation

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111
Q

what are effects of SLE on the body?

A
  • SLE of the skin and kidneys is characterised by deposition of complement and IgG antibodies, and by influx of neutrophils and lymphocytes
  • biopsies of other tissues show vasculitis affecting capillaries, arterioles and venules
  • the synovium of joints can be oedematous and may contain immune complexes
  • haematoxylin bodies (rounded, blue) are seen in inflammatory infiltrates and result form the interaction of antinuclear antibodies and cell nuclei
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112
Q

what is the clinical presentation of SLE?

A
  • most patients suffer fatigue, fever, arthralgia and/or skin poblems
  • joint involvement in more than 90%
  • skin involvement in 85%
  • lung involvement in 50%
  • heart involvement in 25%
  • kidney involvement in 30%
  • CNS involvement in 60%
  • eyes
  • GI
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113
Q

what are features of joint involvement in SLE?

A
  • more than 90% of cases
  • symptoms similar to RA*: symmetrical small joint arthralgia
  • joints are painful sometimes with soft tissue swelling
  • avascular necrosis of hip and knee rarely
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114
Q

what are features of skin involvement in SLE?

A
  • 85% of cases
  • erythema in a butterfly distribution* on the cheeks and across the bridge of the nose
  • vasculitis lesions on the fingertips and nails
  • photosensitive rash*
  • alopecia
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon
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115
Q

what are features of lung involvement in SLE?

A
  • 50% of cases
  • recurrent pleural effusions and pleurisy, pneumonitis and atelctasis
  • pulmonary fibrosis rarely
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116
Q

what are features of heart involvement in SLE?

A
  • 25% of cases
  • pericarditis and pericardial effusions
  • myocarditis
  • arrhythmias
  • arterial and venous thromboses
  • increased frequency of ischaemic heart disease and stroke
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117
Q

what are features of kidney involvement in SLE?

A
  • 30% of cases

- glomerulonephritis with persistent proteinuria*

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118
Q

what are features of CNS involvement in SLE?

A
  • 60% of cases
  • depression
  • epilepsy
  • migraines
  • cerebellar ataxia
  • seizures* (with no causative agent)
  • psychosis*
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119
Q

what are features of eye involvement in SLE?

A
  • retinal vasculitis
  • episcleritis
  • conjunctivitis
  • Sjorgren’s (15% of cases)
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120
Q

what are features of GI involvement in SLE?

A

mouth ulcers* - very common

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121
Q

what are differential diagnoses of SLE?

A
  • acute pericarditis
  • antiphospholipid syndrome
  • B-cell lymphoma
  • fibromyalgia
  • scleroderma
  • Sjogren’s
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122
Q

what are features of blood in SLE?

A
  • raised ESR
  • normal CRP
  • may show leucopenia, lymphopenia and/or thrombocytopenia
  • anaemia of chronic disease or autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  • urea and creatinine only raised if renal disease is advanced
  • autoantibodies
  • serum complements C3 and C4 are reduced due to consumption
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123
Q

what are features of autoantibodies in SLE?

A
  • anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) - 95% positive
  • a raised anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60%
  • anti-Ro, anti-Sm and anti-La
  • 40% are rheumatoid factor (RhF) positive
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124
Q

what is used to diagnose SLE?

A
  • think SLE if ESR is raised but CRP is normal
  • think infection, serositis or arthritis if CRP is raised
  • blood
  • histology to see deposition of IgG and complement
  • MRI and CT for lesions in brain
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125
Q

what is the treatment of acute SLE?

A

IV cyclophosphamide and high dose prednisolone

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126
Q

what are general treatments of SLE to prevent symptoms?

A
  • reduce sunlight exposure
  • reduce CVD risk factors
  • prevent rashes with high-factor sunblock
  • treat BP and give statins to control CVD risk
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127
Q

what is treatment of symptomatic SLE?

A
  • NSAIDs for arthralgia, fever and arthritis

* oral/IM corticosteroids for severe flares of arthritis, pleuritis and pericarditis

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128
Q

what is pharmacological treatment of SLE?

A
  • topical corticosteroids for rashes
  • antimalarial drugs e.g. chloroquine or hydroxychloroquine help mild skin disease, fatigue and arthralgia that cannot be controlled by NSAIDs, but watch for retinal toxicity
  • corticosteroids in moderate to severe disease
  • immunosuppressives e.g. oral azathioprine, oral methotrexate
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129
Q

what is treatment of severe SLE?

A

• e.g. renal or cerebral disease and severe haemolytic anaemia or thrombocytopenia
• immunosuppressives e.g. oral aziroprine, oral methotrexate
• high dose oral corticosteroid e.g. prednisolone and oral cyclophosphamide or mycophenolate mofetil (fewer side effects)
• biologicals - target B cells via CD20 on B cells:
- e.g. rituximab (anti-CD20)

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130
Q

what is the definition of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A

syndrome characterised by thrombosis (arterial or venous) and/or recurrent miscarriages with positive blood tests for antiphospholipid antibodies (aPL)

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131
Q

what is the epidemiology of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
  • associated with SLE in 20-30% of cases
  • more often occurs as a primary disease
  • more common in females than males
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132
Q

what is the pathophysiology of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
  • antiphospholipid antibodies (aPL) play a role in thrombosis by binding to phospholipid on the surface of cells such as endothelial cells, platelets and monocytes
  • once bound, this change alters the functioning of those cells leading to thrombosis and/or miscarriage
  • antiphospholipid antibodies cause CLOTs
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133
Q

what are CLOTs in relation to antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
antiphospholipid antibodies cause:
• Coagulation defect
• Livedo reticularis; lace-like purplish discolouration of skin
• Obstetric issues i.e. miscarriage
• Thrombocytopenia
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134
Q

what is the clinical presentation of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
  • thrombosis
  • miscarriage
  • ischaemic stroke, TIA, MI
  • deep vein thrombosis, Budd-chiari syndrome
  • thrombocytopenia
  • valvular heart disease, migraines, epilepsy
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135
Q

what tests are used to diagnose antiphospholipid syndrome? what do they detect?

A
  • anticardiolipid test: detects IgG or IgM antibodies that bind the negatively charged phospholipid cardiolipin
  • lupus anticoagulation test: detects changes in the ability of the blood to clot
  • anti-B2-glycoprotein I test: detects antibodies that bind B2-glycoprotein I, a molecule that interacts closely with phospholipids
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136
Q

what is the treatment of antiphospholipid syndrome?

A
  • long term warfarin to minimise thrombosis
  • oral aspirin and SC heparin early on in pregnancy; reduces chance of miscarriage but pre-eclampsia and poor fetal growth remain common
  • prophylaxis: aspirin or clopidogrel
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137
Q

what is Sjogren’s syndrome?

A
  • chronic autoimmune disease that affects the body’s moisture producing glands
  • characterised by immunologically mediated destruction of epithelial exocrine glands, especially the lacrimal and salivary glands
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138
Q

what is the epidemiology of primary Sjogren’s syndrome?

A
  • syndrome of dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) in the absence of RA or any other autoimmune diseases
  • more common in female than males
  • associated with HLA-B8/DR3
  • onset in 40s-50s; thus mainly affects middle-aged women
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139
Q

what is the epidemiology of secondary Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

associated with connective tissue disease e.g. RA, SLE and systemic sclerosis

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140
Q

what is the pathophysiology of Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

lymphocytic infiltration and fibrosis of exocrine glands, especially the lacrimal and salivary glands

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141
Q

what is the clinical presentation of Sjogren’s syndrome?

A
  • dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) due to decrease in tear production
  • dry mouth due to decreased saliva production (xerostomia)
  • salivary and parotid gland enlargement
  • dryness of the skin and vagina
  • dryness and fatigue may be the only symptoms
  • systemic symptoms in a minority
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142
Q

what are some systemic symptoms that may be seen in Sjogren’s syndrome?

A
  • arthralgia and occasional non-progressive polyarthritis
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon
  • dysphagia and abnormal oesophageal motility
  • other organ specific autoimmune diseases including thyroid disease, myasthenia gravis, primary biliary cirrhosis, autoimmune hepatitis and pancreatitis
  • renal tubular defects (uncommon) causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus and renal tubular acidosis
  • pulmonary diffusion defects and fibrosis
  • polyneuropathy; fits and depression
  • vasculitis
  • increased incidence of non-Hodgkin’s B-cell lymphoma
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143
Q

what is used to diagnose Sjogren’s syndrome?

A
  • Schirmer tear test
  • Rose-Bengal staining
  • lab tests
  • salivary gland biopsy shows lymphocytic infiltration
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144
Q

how is Schirmer tear test used to diagnose Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

strip of filter paper is placed on the inside of the lower eyelid; wetting of <10 mm in 5 mins indicates defective tear production and thus Sjogrens

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145
Q

how is Rose Bengal staining used to diagnose Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

staining of the eyes shows punctate or filamentary keratitis

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146
Q

what are some laboratory tests used to diagnose Sjogren’s syndrome? what is seen in them?

A
  • raised immunoglobulin levels
  • rheumatoid factor is usually positive
  • antinuclear antibodies (ANA) usually found in 80%
  • anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies are found in 60-90%
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147
Q

what does salivary gland biopsy show in Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

lymphocytic infiltration

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148
Q

what is treatment of Sjogren’s syndrome?

A
  • artificial tears and saliva replacement
  • NSAIDs and hydroxychloroquine for fatigue and arthralgia
  • corticosteroids are rarely needed, used to treat persistent salivary gland swelling or neuropathy
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149
Q

what is systemic sclerosis?

A
  • autoimmune rheumatic disease characterised by excessive production and accumulation of collagen in the skin and internal organs
  • multisystem disease with involvement of skin and Raynauds phenomenon
  • distinct from localised scleroderma such as morphea, that do not involve internal organ disease and are rarely associated with vasospasm
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150
Q

what is the epidemiology of systemic sclerosis?

A
  • has the highest case-specific mortality of any autoimmune rheumatic disease
  • occurs worldwide
  • more common in females than males
  • peak incidence is between 30 and 50 years of age
  • rare in children
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151
Q

what are risk factors and aetiology of systemic sclerosis?

A
  • exposure to vinyl chloride, silica dust, adulterated rapeseed oil and trichloroethylene
  • drugs such as bleomycin
  • genetic
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152
Q

what is the pathophysiology of systemic sclerosis?

A
  • widespread vascular damage involving small arteries, arterioles and capillaries is an early feature
  • there is initial endothelial cell damage with release of cytokines, including endothelin-1, causing vasoconstriction
  • continued vascular damage and increased vascular permeability and activation of endothelial cells
  • production of cytokines and growth factors mediate the proliferation and activation of vascular and connective tissue cells
  • fibroblasts activated by mediators (IL-1, -4, -6 and -8, TGF-B and PDGF synthesise) increase collagen type 1 and 2, producing fibrosis in the lower dermis of the skin and internal organs
  • the end result is uncontrolled and irreversible proliferation of connective tissue and thickening of vascular walls with narrowing of the lumen
  • damage to small blood vessels produces widespread obliterative arterial lesions and subsequent chronic ischaemia
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153
Q

what does continued vascular damage and increased vascular permeability and the activation of endothelial cells in systemic sclerosis lead to?

A
  • upregulation of adhesion molecules - E-selectin, VCAM and intracellular adhesion molecule 1 (ICAM-1)
  • cell adhesion - T and B cells, monocytes and neutrophils
  • migration of cells through leaky endothelium and into the extracellular space
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154
Q

what is the clinical presentation of systemic sclerosis?

A
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon is seen in almost 100% of cases and can precede the onset of the full-blown disease by many years
  • limited cutaneous scleroderma (LcSSc)/crest syndrome; 70% of cases
  • diffuse cutaneous scleroderma (DcSSc); 30% of cases
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155
Q

what is the clinical presentation of limited cutaneous scleroderma (LcSSc)?

A
  • starts with Raynaud’s phenomenon many years (up to 15) before any skin changes
  • skin involvement is limited to the hands, face, feet and forearms
  • skin is tight over the fingers and often produces flexion deformities of the fingers
  • face and skin involvement produces characteristic ‘beak’-like nose and a small mouth (microstomia)
  • painful digital ulcers and telangiectasia
  • GI tract involvement is common; oesophageal dysmotility or strictures
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156
Q

what is CREST in relation to limited cutaneous scleroderma (LcSSc)?

A

previously known as CREST syndrome:

  • Calcinosis; calcium deposition in subcutaneous tissue
  • Raynauds
  • Eosophageal dysmotility or strictures
  • Sclerodactyly - local thickening/tightness of skin on fingers/toes
  • Telenagiectasia
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157
Q

what is diffuse cutaneous scleroderma (DcSSc)? how are other organs involved?

A

• skin changes develop more rapidly and are more widespread than in limited cutaneous scleroderma/CREST
• there is early involvement of other organs:
- GI involvement with dilation and atony in:
• oesophagus, resulting in heartburn and dysphagia
• small intestine, resulting in bacterial overgrowth and
malabsorption
• colon, resulting in pseudo-obstruction
- renal involvement:
• acute and chronic kidney disease
• acute hypertensive crisis is a complication of the renal
involvement
- lung disease:
• fibrosis and pulmonary vascular disease resulting in
pulmonary hypertension
- myocardial fibrosis leads to arrhythmias and conduction disturbances

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158
Q

how are bloods used to diagnose systemic sclerosis?

A
  • normochromic, normocytic anaemia
  • microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia is seen in some people with renal disease
  • urea and creatine rise in acute kidney injury
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159
Q

what types of autoantibodies are seen in systemic sclerosis?

A
  • limited cutaneous scleroderma/CREST: speckled, nucleolar or anti-centromere antibodies (ACAs) - 70% cases
  • diffuse cutaneous scleroderma:
    • anti-topoisomerase-1 antibodies (anti-Scl-70) - 30% of cases
    • anti-RNA polymerase - 20-25% of cases
  • rheumatoid factor is positive in 30%
  • anti-nuclear antibodies (ANA) is positive in 95%
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160
Q

how is imaging used to diagnose systemic sclerosis?

A
  • CXR: to exclude other pathology, for changes in cardiac size and established lung disease
  • hand X-ray: to see deposits of calcium around the fingers
  • barium swallow: confirms impaired oesophageal motility
  • high resolution CT: to confirm fibrotic lung involvement
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161
Q

what is the treatment of systemic sclerosis and its clinical presentations?

A
  • no cure
  • Raynaud’s: hand warmers, oral vasodilators (calcium channel blocker and endothelin receptor antagonists)
  • oesophageal involvement (PPI)
  • nutritional supplementation to treat malabsorption
  • prevention of renal crisis (ACE inhibitor)
  • early detection of pulmonary hypertension with annual echos and pulmonary function tests
  • pulmonary fibrosis: immunosuppresant and oral prednisolone
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162
Q

what is polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A
  • type of chronic inflammation of the muscles related to dermatomyositis and inclusion body myositis
  • unknown aetiology where there is inflammation and necrosis of skeletal muscle fibres
  • when skin is involved it is called dermatomyositis
  • lungs can be affected, resulting in interstitial lung disease
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163
Q

what is the epidemiology of polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A
  • very rare
  • both affect adults and children
  • more common in females than males
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164
Q

what are risk factors and aetiology of polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A
  • viruses implicated are coxsackie, rubella and influenza

- genetic predisposition; those with HLA-B8/DR3 (Sjogrens) appear to be at higher risk

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165
Q

what is the clinical presentation of polymyositis?

A
  • there is symmetrical progressive muscle weakness and wasting affecting the proximal muscles of the shoulder and pelvic girdle
  • patients have difficulty squatting, going upstairs, rising from a chair and raising their hands above their head
  • pain and tenderness are uncommon
  • involvement of pharyngeal, laryngeal and respiratory muscles can lead to dysphagia, dysphonia and respiratory failure
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166
Q

what is the clinical presentation of dermatomyositis?

A
  • characteristic skin changes; heliotrope (purple) discolouration of the eyelids and scaly erythematous plaques over the knuckles (Gottron’s papules)
  • arthralgia, dysphagia resulting from oesophageal muscle involvement and Raynauds phenomenon
  • increased incidence of underlying malignancy
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167
Q

what is used to diagnose polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A
  • muscle biopsy
  • muscle enzymes
  • ESR usually not raised
  • serum antibodies
  • electromyography (EMG) used to detect typical muscle changes
  • MRI can detect abnormally inflamed muscles
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168
Q

what is seen on a muscle biopsy in polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A

shows fibre necrosis and inflammatory cell infiltrates; confirms diagnosis

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169
Q

what is seen in muscle enzymes in polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A

serum creatine kinase, aminotransferases, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) and aldolase are all raised

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170
Q

what serum antibodies are seen in polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A
  • antinuclear antibody (ANA) positive in dermatomyositis
  • rheumatoid factor positive in 50%
  • myositis-specific antibodies (MSAs)
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171
Q

what is the treatment of polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A
  • bed rest may be helpful but must be combined with exercise
  • oral prednisolone is main treatment and is continued until at least 1 month after the myositis has become clinically and enzymatically inactive, then tapered down slowly
  • hydroxychloroquine or topical tacrolimus may help with skin disease
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172
Q

what is done in early intervention in polymyositis/dermatomyositis?

A

early intervention with steroid sparing immunosuppressive therapy is useful in relapse:
• oral azathioprine
• oral methotrexate
• oral ciclosporin

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173
Q

what is Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A
  • intermittent spasm in the arteries supplying the fingers and toes leading to episodes of reduced blood flow, usually precipitated by cold and relieved by heat
  • if there is no underlying cause it is known as Raynaud’s disease
  • if there is an underlying cause it is known as Raynaud’s phenomenon
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174
Q

what is the epidemiology of Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A
  • affects 5% of the population

- more common in females than males

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175
Q

what is the pathophysiology of Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A
  • peripheral digit ischaemia due to sudden vasospasm, precipitated by cold or emotion and relieved by heat
  • usually bilateral and fingers are affected more commonly than toes
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176
Q

what is the clinical presentation of Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A
  • vasoconstriction (causing ischaemia) causes skin pallor followed by cyanosis due to sluggish blood flow, then redness due to hyperaemia
  • white, blue then red
  • duration of the attacks is variable but they can sometimes last for hours
  • numbness, a burning sensation and severe pain occur as the fingers warm up
  • in chronic disease, infarction and digital loss can occur
  • smoking can aggravate symptoms
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177
Q

what are conditions in which Raynaud’s phenomenon may be exhibited?

A
  • connective tissue disorders: SLE, systemic sclerosis, rheumatoid arthritis, dermatomyositis/polymyositis
  • occupational: using vibrational tools
  • drugs: beta-blockers and smoking
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178
Q

what is the treatment of Raynaud’s phenomenon?

A
  • avoid cold by wearing gloves and warm clothes
  • stop smoking and beta-blockers
  • vasodilators:
    • oral nifedipine
    • might be unacceptable as cerebral vasodilation causes severe headaches
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179
Q

what is seronegative spondyloarthropathy?

A
  • group of diseases involving the axial skeleton and having a negative serostatus
  • seronegative: diseases are negative for rheumatoid factor, indicating different pathophysiology from RA
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180
Q

what are the shared clinical features of conditions in seronegative spondyloarthropathy?

A
  • axial inflammation; spine and sacroiliac joints
  • asymmetrical peripheral arthritis
  • absence of rheumatoid factor hence ‘seronegative’
  • strong association with HLA-B27, but aetiological relevance is unclear
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181
Q

what are the conditions in the group of seronegative spondyloarthropathy?

A
  • axial spondyloarthritis
  • reactive arthritis
  • enteropathic arthropathy or spondylitis association with IBD
  • psoriatic arthritis
  • isolated acute anterior uveitis
  • juvenile idiopathic arthritis
  • undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy
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182
Q

what is HLA-B27? where is it located?

A
  • Human Leucocyte Antigen (HLA) B27
  • class I surface antigen; present on all cells, except RBCs, and presents antigenic peptides (from self and non-self antigens) to T cells
  • encoded by B locus of Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) on chromosome 6
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183
Q

what is PAIR in relation to HLA-B27?

A

diseases associatied with the HLA-B27 subtype:

  • Psoriasis
  • Ankylosing spondylitis
  • IBD
  • Reactive arthritis
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184
Q

why is HLA-B27 linked with disease?

A

main theory is ‘molecular mimicry’ whereby an infection triggers an immune response and the infectious agent has peptides very similar to the HLA-B27 molecules so there is an auto-immune response triggered against HLA-B27

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185
Q

what is SPINEACHE in relation to seronegative spondyloarthropathies?

A

think seronegative spondyloarthropathies (SpA) if SPINEACHE:

  • Sausage digit (dactylitis)
  • Psoriasis
  • Inflammatory back pain
  • NSAIDs good response
  • Enthesitis (particularly in heel - planter fasciitis)
  • Arthritis
  • Crohn’s/Colitis/elevated CRP (can be normal in AS)
  • HLA-B27
  • Eye (uveitis)
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186
Q

what is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

type of arthritis in which there is a long-term inflammation of joints of the spine, ribs and sacroiliac joints

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187
Q

what is ankylosis?

A

abnormal stiffening and immobility of joint due to new bone formation

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188
Q

what is the epidemiology of ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • more common and more severe in males than females
  • usually presents at 16 yrs; young adults <30yrs
  • 88% are HLA-B27 positive
  • women present later and are under-diagnosed
  • low incidence in African and Japanese people
  • native North Americans have high incidence
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189
Q

what are risk factors and aetiology for ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • HLA-B27

- environment: Klebsiella, Salmonella, Shigella

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190
Q

what is the pathophysiology of ankylosing spondylitis?

A

lymphocyte and plasma infiltration occurs with local
erosion of bone at the attachments of the intervertebral and other ligaments (enthesitis; inflammation where tendons/ligaments insert into bone), which heals with syndesmophyte formation

  1. normal spine
  2. inflammation (erosion, sclerosis and squaring)
  3. formation of syndesmophytes
  4. fusion (total bony bridge)
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191
Q

what is a syndesmophyte?

A
  • bony growth originating inside a ligament, commonly seen in the ligaments of the spine, specifically the ligaments in the intervertebral joints leading to fusion of vertebrae
  • new bone formation and vertical growth from anterior vertebral corners
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192
Q

what is the clinical presentation of ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • typical patient is a man <30 yrs with gradual onset of low back pain, worse at night, with spinal morning stiffness that is relieved by exercise
  • episodic inflammation of the sacroiliac joints in the late teenage years or early twenties is the first manifestation; if severe then bamboo spine may be present
  • pain radiates from the sacroiliac joints to hips/buttocks, and usually improves towards the end of the day
  • progressive loss of spinal movement resulting in reduced thoracic expansion
  • asymmetrical joint pain, normally oligoarthritis (1 or 2 joints), unlike RA which is symmetrical and affects smaller joints and more joints
  • two characteristic spinal abnormalities
  • enthesitis
  • non-articular features
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193
Q

what is a bamboo spine?

A
  • fusion of spinous processes

- seen in ankylosing spondylitis

194
Q

what are the two characteristic spinal abnormalities seen in ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • loss of lumbar lordosis and increased kyphosis
  • limitation of lumbar spine mobility in both sagittal and frontal planes; reduced spinal flexion is demonstrated by the Schober test
195
Q

what is the Schober test?

A
  • mark is made at the 5th lumbar spinous process and 10cm above, with patient in the erect position
  • on bending forward, the distance should increase to more than 15cm in normal individuals
  • shows limitation of lumbar spine mobility in both sagittal and frontal planes and reduced spinal flexion
196
Q

what is enthesitis?

A
  • inflammation of the entheses, the sites where tendons or ligaments insert into the bone
  • e.g. achilles tendinitis, plantar fasciitis and tenderness around the pelvis and chest wall
197
Q

what are non-articular features of ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • anterior uveitis: inflammation of middle layer of eye
  • associated with osteoporosis
  • rarely, aortic incompetence, cardiac conduction defects and apical lung fibrosis, amyloidosis and IgA nephropathy
198
Q

how is blood used to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • ESR and CRP raised - note: CRP can be normal
  • normocytic normochromic anaemia
  • HLA-B27 positive - not diagnostic
199
Q

how are X-rays used to diagnose ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • can be normal
  • erosion and sclerosis of the margins of the sacroiliac joints which can proceed to ankylosis
  • blurring of the upper or lower vertebral rims at the thoracolumbar junction caused by enthesitis at the insertion of intervertebral ligaments
  • this heals with new bone formation resulting in syndesmophytes; progressive calcification of these can lead to bamboo spine
  • fusion of the sacroiliac joints
200
Q

what is treatment of ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  • treat quickly to prevent irreversible syndesmophyte formation and progressive calcification
  • morning exercise to maintain posture and spinal mobility
  • NSAIDs useful at night
  • methotrexate to help with peripheral arthritis but not with spinal disease
  • TNF-alpha blocker:
    • can improve spinal and peripheral joint inflammation, the earlier you start the less syndesmophytes form
  • local steroid injections for temporary relief
  • surgery to improve pain and mobility
201
Q

what is psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • long-term inflammatory arthritis that occurs in people affected by the autoimmune disease psoriasis (which is characterised by abnormal patches of skin)
  • can occur without psoriasis
202
Q

what is the epidemiology of psoriatic arthritis?

A

occurs in 10-40% with psoriasis and can present before skin changes

203
Q

what are risk factors for psoriatic arthritis?

A

family history of psoriasis

204
Q

what are the 5 patterns of disease of psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • asymmetrical oligoarthritis
  • symmetrical seronegative polyarthritis; closely resembling RA
  • spondylitis
  • distal interphalangeal arthritis
  • arthritis mutilans
205
Q

what are features of spondylitis in psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • unilateral or bilateral sacrolitis and early cervical spine involvement
  • similar to ankylosing spondylitis but only 50% are HLA-B27 positive
206
Q

what are features of distal interphalangeal arthritis in psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • DIPJs involvement only
  • most typical pattern of joint involvement in psoriasis
  • often with adjacent nail dystrophy, reflecting enthesitis extending into the nail root
  • dactylitis, in which an entire finger or toes is swollen, with joint and tendon sheath involvement is characteristic of this condition
207
Q

what are features of arthritis mutilans in psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • affects about 5% of people with psoriatic arthritis and causes periarticular osteolysis and bone shortening (‘telescopic fingers’)
  • destruction of the small bones in the hands and feet
  • pencil-in-cup X-ray changes
  • rare
208
Q

what are hidden sites for psoriasis?

A
  • behind ear/inside ear
  • scalp
  • pitting in nails or onokylisis; where the nail lifts off the nail bed and looks brittle and flaky
  • umbilicus, natal cleft and penile psoriasis
209
Q

how are bloods used to diagnose psoriatic arthritis?

A

bloods and ESR are often normal

210
Q

how is X-ray used to diagnose psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • psoriatic arthritis is erosive but the erosions are central in the joint, not juxta-articular
  • may be a ‘pencil in cup’ deformity in the interphalangeal joints; bone erosions create a pointed appearance and the articulating bone is concave
  • skin and nail disease can be mild and may develop after arthritis
211
Q

what is the treatment for psoriatic arthritis?

A
  • similar to that of RA
  • NSAIDs and/or analgesics to help the pain but can occasionally worsen the skin lesions
  • local synovitis responds to intra-articular corticosteroid injections
  • early intervention with DMARDs can help skin lesions
  • methotrexate and ciclosporin for severe disease
  • anti-TNF alpha agents are highly effective and safe for severe skin and joint disease; used when methotrexate has failed
212
Q

what is reactive arthritis?

A
  • form of inflammatory arthritis that develops in response to an infection in another part of the body (cross-reactivity)
  • sterile inflammation of the synovial membrane, tendons and fascia triggered by an infection at a distant site, usually GI or genital
  • typically affects the lower limb
213
Q

what is the epidemiology of reactive arthritis?

A
  • in males who are HLA-B27 positive they have an 30-50 fold increased risk
  • women are less commonly affected
214
Q

what are the main causes of reactive arthritis?

A
  • GI infections: salmonella, shigella, and yersinia enterocolitica
  • sexually acquired: urethritis from chlamydia trachomatis and ureaplasma urealyticum
215
Q

what is the pathophysiology of reactive arthritis?

A

bacterial antigens or bacterial DNA have been found in the inflamed synovium of affected joints, suggesting that this persistent antigenic material is driving the inflammatory response

216
Q

what is the clinical presentation of reactive arthritis?

A
  • arthritis is typically an acute, asymmetrical, lower-limb arthritis
  • occurring a few days to a couple of weeks after the infection
  • the arthritis may be the presenting complaint if the infection is mild or asymptomatic
  • ‘can’t see, can’t wee, can’t climb a tree’
  • in those who are HLA-B27 positive (60-85%), sacroiliitis and spondylitis may also develop
  • sterile conjunctivitis occurs in 30%
  • skin lesions resemble psoriasis
217
Q

what is ‘can’t see, can’t wee, can’t climb a tree’ in relation to reactive arthritis?

A
  • acute anterior uveitis
  • circinate balanitis: painless ulceration of the penis
  • enthesitis: common and causes plantar fasciitis (heel) and Achilles tendon enthesitis
218
Q

what is circinate balanitis?

A

serpiginous ring-shaped dermatitis of the glans penis

  • in the uncircumcised male this causes painless superficial ulceration of the glans penis
  • in the circumcised males, the lesion is raised, red and scaly
  • seen in reactive arthritis
  • both heal without scarring
219
Q

what is keratoderma blennorrhagica?

A

involves the skin of the feet and hands, which develops painless, red and often confluent raised plaques and pustules that are histologically similar to pustular psoriasis

220
Q

how is reactive arthritis diagnosed?

A
  • ESR and CRP raised in acute phase
  • culture stool if diarrhoea
  • sexual health review
  • aspirated synovial fluid is sterile with a high neutrophil count:
    • if the joint is hot and swollen can exclude crystal arthritis and septic arthritis using aspiration
  • X-ray may show enthesitis
221
Q

what is the treatment of reactive arthritis?

A
  • joint inflammation - NSAIDs and corticosteroid injections
  • treat persisting infection with antibiotics
  • screen sexual partners
  • majority of individuals with reactive arthritis have a single attack that settles, but a few develop disabling relapsing and remitting arthritis
  • relapsing cases use methotrexate or sulfasalazine
  • if that doesn’t work and is severe and persistent disease then use TNF-alpha blockers
222
Q

what is the pathophysiology of systemic vasculitis?

A

inflammation and necrosis of blood vessel walls with subsequent impaired blood flow resulting in:

  • vessel wall destruction; aneurysm, rupture and stenosis: resulting in perforation and haemorrhage into tissues
  • endothelial injury: resulting in thrombosis and ischaemia/infarction of dependent tissues
223
Q

how is systemic vasculitis classified?

A
  • size of blood vessel involved: large, medium, small
  • presence or absence of anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA): small-vessel vasculitis tend to be ANCA positive e.g. microscopic polyangitis and granulomatosis with polyangitis
224
Q

what is large-vessel vasculitis? give examples

A
  • refers to the aorta and its major tributaries
  • examples:
    • giant cell arteritis/polymyalgia rheumatica
    • Takayasu’s arteritis
225
Q

what is medium-vessel vasculitis? give examples

A
  • refers to medium and small-sized arteries and arterioles
  • examples:
    • classical polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
    • Kawasaki’s disease
226
Q

what are examples of ANCA-associated small vessel vasculitis?

A
  • microscopic polyangitis
  • granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegener’s)
  • eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangitis (Churg-Strauss)
227
Q

what are examples of immune complex mediated small vessel vasculitis (non-ANCA associated)?

A
  • cryoglobulinaemic vasculitis
  • IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schoenlein)
  • hypocomplementaemic urticarial vasculitis (anti C1a vasculitis)
228
Q

what are some non-infective conditions associated with vasculitis?

A
  • vasculitis with RA
  • SLE
  • scleroderma
  • polymyositis/dermatomyositis
  • good pasture syndrome and IBD
229
Q

what is large vessel vasculitis?

A
  • polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) and giant cell (temporal) arteritis (GCA) are systemic illnesses affecting patients older than 50yrs
  • both are associated with the finding of GCA on temporal artery biopsy
  • these are two separate conditions but normally co-exist
230
Q

what is the epidemiology of polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • systemic disease of the elderly
  • affects those over 50 yrs
  • more common in females than males
  • pathogenesis is unknown
231
Q

what is polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

syndrome with pain or stiffness, usually in the neck, shoulders, upper arms and hips but can occur all over the body

232
Q

what is the clinical presentation of polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • sudden onset of severe pain and stiffness of the shoulders and neck, and of the hips and lumbar spine; a limb girdle pattern
  • symptoms are worse in the morning, lasting from 30 mins to several hours
  • mild polyarthritis of peripheral joints
  • 1/3rd experience fatigue, fever, weight loss, depression
233
Q

what are differential diagnoses of polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • RA, spondyloarthropathies, SLE, polymyositis/dermatomyositis
  • osteoarthritis, malignancy
  • chronic pain syndrome e.g. fibromyalgia and depression
234
Q

what is used to diagnose polymyalgia rheumatica?

A
  • clinical history is usually diagnostic and the patient is always over 50
  • both ESR and CRP are raised; diagnostic
  • ANCA negative
  • serum alkaline phosphatase raised
  • mild normochromic, normocytic anaemia
  • temporal artery biopsy: shows giant cell arteritis in 10-30% cases
  • note: creatinine kinase is normal - helps to distinguish from myositis/myopathies
235
Q

what is the treatment of polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

corticosteroids produce a dramatic reduction of symptoms within 24-48 hours of starting treatment
• if improvement does not occur then diagnosis should be questioned
• decrease dose slowly
• used long-term so give GI and bone protection (to prevent osteoporosis due to steroid use)

236
Q

what is giant cell arteritis?

A
  • an inflammatory disease of large blood vessels
  • inflammatory granulomatous arteritis of large cerebral arteries as well as other large vessels, which occurs in association with PMR
237
Q

what is the epidemiology of giant cell arteritis?

A
  • primarily in those over 50
  • incidence increases with age
  • more common in females than males
238
Q

what are risk factors for giant cell arteritis?

A
  • over 50
  • female
  • RA, SLE, scleroderma
239
Q

what is the pathophysiology of giant cell arteritis?

A
  • arteries become inflamed, thickened and can obstruct blood flow
  • cerebral arteries affected in particular e.g. temporal artery
  • opthalmic artery can also be affected potentially resulting in permanent or temporary vision loss
240
Q

what is the clinical presentation of giant cell arteritis?

A
  • severe headaches (temporal pulsating)
  • tenderness of scalp (combing hair can be painful) or temple
  • claudication of the jaw when eating
  • tenderness and swelling of one or more temporal or occipital arteries
  • sudden painless vision loss; arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy; optic disc is very pale/swollen
  • malaise, lethargy, fever
  • associated symptoms of PMR
  • dyspnoea, morning stiffness and unequal or weak pulses
241
Q

what are differential diagnoses of giant cell arteritis?

A
  • migraine
  • tension headache
  • trigeminal neuralgia
  • polyarteritis nodosa
242
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria of giant cell arteritis?

A
  • over 50
  • new headache
  • temporal artery tenderness or decreased pulsation
  • ESR raised
  • abnormal artery biopsy - inflammatory infiltrates present
243
Q

what are features of blood/biochemistry in giant cell arteritis?

A
  • normochromic, normocytic anaemia
  • ESR raised
  • ANCA negative
  • CRP very high
  • serum alkaline phosphatase may be raised
244
Q

what is temporal artery biopsy? how is it used to diagnose giant cell arteritis?

A
  • definitive diagnostic test
  • should be taken before or within 7 days of starting high dose corticosteroids
  • lesions are patchy so take a big chunk
245
Q

what are histological features of giant cell arteritis?

A
  • cellular infiltrates of CD4+ T lymphocytes, macrophages and giant cells in the vessel wall
  • granulomatous inflammation of the intima and media
  • breaking up of the internal elastic lamina
246
Q

what is the treatment of giant cell arteritis? how is treatment progress monitored?

A
  • high dose corticosteroids to stop vision loss; gradual reduction of steroids over 12-18 months
  • corticosteroids are used long-term so give GI and bone protection
  • monitor treatment progress by looking at ESR/CRP (should fall)
247
Q

what is polyarteritis nodosa?

A

systemic necrotising inflammation of blood vessels affecting medium-sized muscular arteries, typically involving arteries of the kidneys and other internal organs but generally sparing the lungs

248
Q

what is the epidemiology of polyarteritis nodosa?

A
  • rare in the UK
  • usual occurs in middle-aged men
  • more common in males than females
  • associated with Hep B
249
Q

what are risk factors for polyarteritis nodosa?

A
  • male
  • Hep B
  • RA, SLE, scleroderma
250
Q

what is the clinical presentation of polyarteritis nodosa?

A
  • fever, malaise, weight loss and myalgia; these initial symptoms are followed by dramatic acute features that are due to organ infarction
  • lung involvement is rare
251
Q

what is the neurological, abdominal, renal, cardiac and skin clinical presentation of polyarteritis nodosa?

A
  • mononeuritis multiplex due to arteritis of the vasa nervorum: numbness, tingling, abnormal/lack of sensation and inability to move part of the body
  • pain due to arterial involvement of the abdominal viscera, mimicking acute cholecystitis, pancreatitis or appendicitis
  • GI haemorrhage due to mucosal ulceration
  • haematuria and proteinuria
  • hypertension and acute/chronic kidney disease
  • coronary arteritis causes myocardial infarction and heart failure
  • subcutaneous haemorrhage and gangrene
252
Q

what are differential diagnoses of polyarteritis nodosa?

A
  • fever caused by infection
  • Crohn’s
  • connective tissue disease e.g. SLE or RA
  • other vasculitis
253
Q

how is polyarteritis nodosa diagnosed?

A
  • anaemia
  • WCC raised
  • ECR raised
  • ANCA negative (very rarely positive)
  • biopsy, of kidney in particular to look for hypertension and other damage; can be diagnostic
  • angiography: demonstrates micro-aneurysms in hepatic, intestinal or renal vessels
254
Q

what is the treatment of polyarteritis nodosa?

A
  • control BP with ACE-inhibitors
  • corticosteroids combined with immunosuppressive drugs
  • Hep B should be treated with an antiviral after initial treatment with steroids
255
Q

what are the three crystals involved in gout, pseudogout and pseudopseudogout?

A

gout: monosodium urate crystals
• needle-shaped (long and thin)
• negatively bifringent under polarised light
• does not require special stain

pseudogout: calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals
• small rhomboid brick-shaped
• positively bifringent under polarised light
• does not require special stain

pseudopseudogout: hydroxyapatite
• small
• non-bifringent under polarised light
• requires Alizarin red stain

256
Q

what is gout?

A

a form of inflammatory arthritis characterised by recurrent attacks of a red, tender, hot and swollen joint

  • due to persistently elevated levels of uric acid in the blood
  • at high levels, uric acid crystallises and the crystals deposit in joints, tendons and surrounding tissues, leading to an attack
  • associated with hyperuricaemia and intra-articular monosodium urate crystals
257
Q

what is the epidemiology of gout?

A
  • common
  • prevalence is increasing especially in developing countries
  • more common in males than females
  • rarely occurs before young adulthood
  • most common inflammatory arthritis in the UK
258
Q

what are risk factors and aetiology of gout?

A
  • high alcohol intake (highest risk for beer, then spirits, then wine)
  • purine rich foods; red meat e.g. liver and seafood
  • high fructose intake (sugary drinks, cakes, sweets and fruit sugars); reduces uric acid excretion
  • high saturated fat diet
  • drugs such as low-dose aspirin
  • ischaemic heart disease
  • renal causes
  • increased production of uric acid
  • family history of gout
259
Q

what are renal causes of gout?

A
  • defective gene for URAT1 transporter in kidney (URAT1 reabsorbs urate and then actively secretes it), seen in kidney disease
  • high insulin levels lower urate excretion e.g. in diabetes mellitus
  • diuretics impair uric acid excretion
260
Q

what causes increased production of uric acid?

A
  • increased purine turnover
  • myeloproliferative
  • lymphoproliferative disorders
  • carcinoma and psoriasis, due to increased cell turnover
  • cell damage/surgery
  • cell death; chemotherapy
261
Q

what catalyses the conversion of purines into uric acid?

A

purines -> hypoxanthine -> xanthine -> uric acid

- catalysed by xanthine oxidase

262
Q

what can uric acid be converted into?

A

monosodium urate or allantoin (uricase)

263
Q

what are features of purine metabolism?

A
  • purines come from high purine foods e.g. red meat but mainly from energy production (increases with increased sugar intake); purines need to be excreted
  • in the body they are broken down and in the last two steps of purine metabolism, hypoxanthine is converted to xanthine and then xanthine is converted to uric acid under the action of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
264
Q

what are features of uric acid metabolism?

A
  • humans do not possess the enzyme uricase which is needed to convert uric acid to allantoin
  • instead we excrete the uric acid via the kidneys, however this is not efficient and if there is hyperuricaemia then it may be converted to monosodium urate crystals, causing symptomatic gout and pain
265
Q

what is the definition of hyperuricaemia?

A

serum uric acid level greater than 420 μmol/L (males) or 360 μmol/L (females)

266
Q

what is the pathophysiology of gout?

A
  • if there is hyperuricaemia then it may be converted to monosodium urate crystals, causing symptomatic gout and pain
  • serum uric acid (SUA) levels are higher in men than in women
  • only 1 in 5 with hyperuricaemia will develop gout thus for the most part, hyperuricaemia is asymptomatic
  • you need to have hyperuricaemia to develop gout but having hyperuricaemia does not guarantee gout, just increases the risk
  • in hyperuricaemia, osteoarthritic joints are more prone to attacks of gout
267
Q

what do serum uric acid levels increase with?

A
  • age
  • obesity
  • diabetes mellitus
  • ischaemic heart disease and hypertension
268
Q

what is the action of monosodium urate crystals in gout?

A
  • monosodium urate crystals tend to form in joints that have had previous trauma, and crystals form at lower temperatures, so the big toe is more susceptible as it’s the coolest peripheral joint
  • monosodium urate crystals can also trigger intracellular inflammation resulting in more pain
269
Q

what is the clinical presentation of acute gout?

A
  • occurs when monosodium urate crystals form
  • typically in middle-aged men
  • sudden onset of agonising pain, swelling and redness of the first MTP joint
  • usually just one joint is affected but can sometimes be polyarthritic
  • attack may be precipitated by excess food (especially red meat), alcohol, dehydration or diuretic therapy, cold, trauma or sepsis
270
Q

what is clinical presentation of chronic polyarticular gout?

A

rare, except in the elderly who are on long term diuretics in renal failure or if they have been started on allopurinol too soon

271
Q

what is clinical presentation of tophaceous gout?

A
  • differential for acute gout
  • in people with persistently high levels of uric acid they can get chronic tophaceous gout, due to monosodium urate forming smooth white deposits (tophi) in the skin and around joints, on the ear, fingers or the Achilles tendon
  • tophi are onion-like aggregates of monosodium urate crystals with inflammatory cells
  • tophi release local proteolytic enzymes hence erosions to bone, forming circular punch-like holes
  • associated with renal impairment and/or the long-term use of diuretics
272
Q

what can hyperuricaemia cause?

A
  • acute gout
  • chronic polyarticular gout
  • tophaceous gout
  • urate renal stone formation
  • recurrent gout attacks can lead to renal impairment
273
Q

what are differential diagnoses of gout?

A

exclude septic arthritis in any acute monoarthropathy

274
Q

how is gout diagnosed via joint fluid aspiration and microscopy?

A
  • diagnostic

* shows long needles shaped crystals that are negatively bifringent under polarised light

275
Q

how is gout diagnosed via serum uric acid?

A
  • serum uric acid is raised: if it is not, it should be rechecked several weeks after the attack, as levels fall immediately after an acute episode
  • serum urea and creatinine and eGFR used to monitor for renal impairment
276
Q

what is the treatment of gout?

A
  • aim to get the uric acid level down below normal in blood so crystal reverse and start to increase uric acid levels to below 300 μmol/L
  • lose weight
  • less alcohol
  • avoid purine rich food
  • dairy can help reduce gout
277
Q

what is the treatment of acute gout?

A

• high dose NSAIDs or COX inhibitors
• if NSAID not tolerated well or due to contraindication due to renal impairment then use colchicine (targets uric acid crystallisation):
- very toxic in overdose
- side effects; diarrhoea and abdomen pain
• IM, oral or intra-articular (most effective, but can be painful) corticosteroids

278
Q

how is gout prevented?

A
  • stop diuretics and switch to angiotensin receptor blocker e.g. losartan (uricosuric; promotes uric acid excretion)
  • allopurinol
  • febuxostat
279
Q

how can allopurinol be used to prevent gout? what are its side effects?

A
  • inhibits xanthine oxidase meaning there is less uric acid production and thus less monosodium urate production
  • reduces serum urate levels rapidly
  • side effects: rash, fever and low white cell count
  • introduction of allopurinol may trigger an attack so wait for 3 weeks after an acute episode
280
Q

how can febuxostat be used to prevent gout?

A
  • non-purine xanthine oxidase inhibitor

- use if allopurinol is contraindicated or due to side effects

281
Q

what is CPPD?

A

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystal deposition disease (pseudogout)

  • rheumatological disease which is secondary to abnormal acccumulation of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals within joint soft tissue
  • knee joint is most commonly affected
282
Q

what is the epidemiology of pseudogout?

A

affects elderly women in particular

283
Q

what are the risk factors for pseudogout?

A
  • old age
  • diabetes
  • osteoarthritis
  • joint trauma/injury
  • metabolic disease: hyperparathyroidism or haemochromatosis
284
Q

what is the pathophysiology of pseudogout?

A

deposition of calcium pyrophosphate in articular cartilage and periarticular tissue producing the radiological appearance of chonedrocalcinosis (linear
calcification parallel to the articular surfaces)

285
Q

what is the clinical presentation of pseudogout?

A
  • shedding of crystals into a joint produces acute synovitis that resembles acute gout but is more common in elderly women and usually affects the knee or wrist
  • the attacks are very painful
  • acute hot swollen wrist or knee
  • since it presents with hot joint and fever it can be mistaken for septic arthritis (if steroid given effects can be devastating)
286
Q

what is seen in joint fluid aspiration and microscopy in pseudogout?

A
  • small rhomboidal crystals under microscopy
  • positively bifringent crystals under polarised light; remember since Pseudogout = Positively bifringent
  • joint fluid looks purulent so should be sent for culture to exclude septic arthritis
287
Q

what is seen on X-ray in pseudogout?

A

shows chonedrocalcinosis (linear calcification parallel to the articular surfaces)

288
Q

what is the treatment of pseudogout?

A
  • high dose NSAIDs or COX inhibitor s
  • if NSAID is not tolerated well or due to contraindication due to renal impairment then colchicine:
    • very toxic in overdose
    • side effects: diarrhoea and abdomen pain
  • IM, oral or intra-articular (most effective, but can be painful) corticosteroid
  • aspiration of the joint reduces pain dramatically
289
Q

what is Paget’s disease of bone?

A
  • a condition involving cellular remodelling and deformity of one or more bones
  • affected bones show signs of dysregulated bone remodelling at the microscopic level, specifically excessive bone breakdown and subsequent disorganised new bone formation
  • also known as osteitis deformans
290
Q

what is the epidemiology of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
  • incidence increases with age; rare under 40 yrs
  • affects up to 10% of individuals by the age of 90
  • more common in Europe and Northern England
  • UK has highest prevalence in the world
  • more common in females then males
291
Q

what are the risk factors and aetiology of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
  • aetiology is unknown
  • may result from latent viral infection (canine distemper virus, measles or respiratory syncytial virus) in osteoclasts in genetically susceptible individuals
  • family history
292
Q

what is the pathophysiology of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
  • there is increased osteoclastic bone resorption followed by formation of weaker new bone, increased local bone blood flow and fibrous tissue
  • ultimately, formation exceeds resorption but the new woven bone is weaker than normal bone - this leads to deformity and increased fracture risk
  • disease doesn’t spread but can become symptomatic at previously silent sites
293
Q

what are the common sites for Paget’s disease of bone?

A

pelvis, lumbar spine, femure, thoracic spine, skull and tibia, although any bone can be involved but small bones rare

294
Q

what is the clinical presentation of Paget’s disease of bone?

A
  • 60%-80% are asymptomatic
  • bone pain
  • joint pain leading to cartilage damage and osteoarthritis
  • deformities, in particular bowed tibia and skull changes
  • high-output cardiac failure and myocardial hypertrophy due to increased bone blood flow
  • osteosarcoma
295
Q

what are neurological complications of Paget’s disease of bone?

A

• nerve compression:
- deafness from 8th cranial nerve involvement
- paraparesis; partial paralysis of lower limbs
• hydrocephalus due to blockage of the aqueduct of Sylvius

296
Q

how is Paget’s disease of bone diagnosed with biochemistry?

A
  • increased serum alkaline phosphatase with normal calcium and phosphate
  • reflects increased bone turnover
  • urinary hydroxyproline excretion is raised (marker of disease activity)
297
Q

how is Paget’s disease of bone diagnosed with X-ray?

A
  • localised bony enlargement and distortion
  • sclerotic changes (increased density)
  • osteolytic areas (loss of bone and reduced density)
298
Q

how is Paget’s disease of bone diagnosed with isotope bone scans?

A

useful to determine the extent of skeletal involvement but is unable to distinguish between Paget’s disease and sclerotic metastatic carcinoma (especially in breast and prostate)

299
Q

what is the treatment of Paget’s disease of bone? how is the disease monitored?

A
  • bisphosphonates which inhibit bone resorption by decreasing osteoclast activity; 1st line treatment
  • NSAIDs for pain
  • disease activity monitored by symptoms and measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase or urinary hydroxyproline
300
Q

what is osteomalacia?

A

disease characterised by softening of the bones caused by impaired bone metabolism primarily due to inadequate levels of available phosphate, calcium and vitamin D, or because of resorption of calcium. the impairment of bone metabolism causes inadequate bone mineralisation.

301
Q

what is rickets?

A

defective bone mineralisation during bone growth at the epiphyseal growth plate, during childhood

302
Q

how is vitamin D produced?

A

produced in the skin through the action of ultraviolet B sunlight on 7-dehydrocholesterol, forming cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)

303
Q

where can vitamin D be obtained from the diet?

A

small amount from diet, e.g. oily fish, egg yolks and margarine; D2 and D3

304
Q

what happens to vitamin D3 in the liver?

A

converted to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol by 25-hydroxylase/CYP2R1

305
Q

what happens to 25-hydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney?

A

converted to 1,25-dihydroxy-cholecalciferol/calcitriol by 1alpha-hydroxylase (CYP27B1)

306
Q

what increases the formation of calcitriol in the kidney?

A

increased PTH and decreased phosphate

307
Q

what decreases formation of calcitriol in the kidney?

A

FGF-23

308
Q

what is the biological activity of calcitriol/1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?

A
  • increased 24-hydroxylase (CYP24R1) -> 24,250dihydroxyD3
  • decreased 1alpha hydroxylase (CYP27B1)
  • increased Ca2+ absorption in the gut
  • increased calcification and resorption in the bone
309
Q

what is the most common cause of osteomalacia?

A

most common cause of osteomalacia is hypophosphataemia due to hyperparathyroidism secondary to vitamin D deficiency

310
Q

how does vitamin D deficiency cause osteomalacia?

A

• due to malabsorption, since vitamin D is fat soluble so GI disease can result in malabsorption e.g. in Coeliac or Crohn’s
• poor diet - not enough oily fish or egg yolks
• lack of sunlight:
- those with pigmented skin, using sunscreen, concealing clothing
- the elderly and institutionalised

311
Q

how does renal disease cause osteomalacia?

A

renal failure means there is inadequate conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

312
Q

how can liver disease cause osteomalacia?

A

reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D to 25-hydroxy vitamin D e.g. cirrhosis

313
Q

what is the clinical presentation of osteomalacia?

A
  • muscle weakness leading to characteristic waddling gait and difficulty climbing stairs and getting out of a chair
  • widespread bone pain; dull ache that is worse on weight-bearing and walking
  • bone pain and tenderness
  • fractures, especially of the femoral neck
314
Q

what is the clinical presentation of rickets?

A
  • growth retardation, hypotonia
  • knock knees, bowed legs
  • widened epiphyses at the wrists
  • hypocalcaemic tetany may occur in severe cases
315
Q

how is osteomalacia diagnosed with bloods?

A
  • low Ca2+ and phosphate
  • raised serum alkaline phosphatase
  • elevated parathyroid hormone
  • low 25-hydroxy vitamin D
316
Q

how is osteomalacia diagnosed with biopsy?

A
  • shows incomplete mineralisation

* gold standard test but not practical

317
Q

how is osteomalacia diagnosed with X-ray?

A
  • shows defective mineralisation
  • Looser’s pseudofractures/zones - low-density bands extending from the cortex inwards in the shafts of the long bones e.g femur and pelvis
318
Q

how is vitamin D replacement used to treat osteomalacia?

A
  • in dietary insufficiency: calcium D3 fortefication
  • in malabsorption/hepatic disease: oral ergocalciferol or IM calcitriol
  • in renal disease: alfacidol or calcitriol
319
Q

what is degenerative disc disease? what is thought to cause it?

A

a medical condition in which there are anatomic changes and a loss of function of varying degrees of one or more intervertebral discs of the spine which causes symptoms.
- root cause is thought to be loss of soluble proteins within fluid with resultant loss of oncotic pressure, causing loss of fluid volume

320
Q

what is the epidemiology of acute vertebral disc degeneration?

A
  • disease of younger people (20-40 yrs) since the disc degenerates with age and in the elderly it is no longer able to prolapse
  • in older patients sciatica is more likely to be the result of compression (as opposed to prolapse) of the nerve root by osteophytes in the lateral recess of the spinal canal
321
Q

what is the clinical presentation of acute vertebral disc degeneration?

A
  • sudden onset of severe back pain, often following a strenuous activity
  • pain is often clearly related to position and is aggravated by movement
  • muscle spasm leads to sideways tilt when standing
  • the radiation of the pain and clinical findings depend on the disc affected
  • lower three discs are most commonly affected
322
Q

what is the pain, reflex lost and other signs of an S1 root lesion?

A
  • pain: from buttock down back of thigh to ankle/foot
  • reflex lost: ankle jerk
  • other signs: diminished straight leg raising
323
Q

what is the pain, reflex lost and other signs of an L5 root lesion?

A
  • pain: from buttock to lateral aspect of leg and top of foot
  • reflex lost: none
  • other signs: diminished straight leg raising
324
Q

what is the pain, reflex lost and other signs of an L4 root lesion?

A
  • pain: lateral aspect of the thigh to medial side of the calf
  • reflex lost: knee jerk
  • other signs: positive femoral stretch
325
Q

how is acute vertebral disc degeneration diagnosed?

A
  • X-rays

- MRI in whom surgery is being considered

326
Q

what is the treatment of acute vertebral disc degeneration?

A
  • acute stage; bed rest on a firm mattress, analgesia and epidural corticosteroid injection
  • surgery only for severe or increasing neurological impairment e.g. foot drop or bladder symptoms
  • physio in recovery phase; helping correct posture and to restore movement
327
Q

what are clinical features of chronic vertebral disc degeneration?

A
  • associated with degenerative changes in the lower lumbar discs and facet joints
  • pain is usually of the mechanical type
  • sciatic radiation may occur with pain in the buttocks radiating into the posterior thigh
  • usually the pain is long-standing and there is no cure
  • NSAIDs, physiotherapy and weight reduction can be useful
  • surgery can be done when pain arises from a single identifiable level; fusion at this level with decompression of the affected nerve roots
328
Q

what can pain be due to in primary and secondary bone tumours? what are features of the pain?

A
  • multiple myeloma
  • lymphoma
  • primary tumour of bone; rare and only seen in young
  • metastases
  • pain is typically unremitting and worse at night and there are other clinical clues e.g. weight loss or ill-health
329
Q

what are examples of primary bone tumours?

A
  • osteosarcomas
  • fibrosarcomas
  • chondromas
  • Ewing’s tumour
330
Q

where can secondary bone tumours metastasise from?

A
  • lungs - bronchus
  • breast
  • prostate - often osteosclerotic too
  • thyroid - less common
  • kidney - less common

most common are from the bronchus, breast and prostate

331
Q

what is seen in X-rays in bone tumours?

A
  • may show metastases as osteolytic areas (for lytic tumour to be visible it must have lost greater than 60% bone density) with bony destruction
  • osteosclerotic (increased bone density) metastases are characteristic of prostatic carcinoma
332
Q

what is seen in bloods/metabolic levels in bone tumours?

A
  • serum alkaline phosphatase (from bone) is usually raised
  • hypercalcaemia occurs in 10-20% who have metastatic malignancies
  • PSA is raised in the presence of prostatic metastases
333
Q

what is the treatment of bone tumours?

A
  • analgesics and anti-inflammatory drugs
  • local radiotherapy to bone metastases relieves pain and reduces the risk of pathological fracture
  • some tumours respond to chemotherapy
  • some tumours are hormone-dependent and respond to hormonal therapy
  • bisphosphonates can help symptoms
334
Q

what is an osteosarcoma? what is its epidemiology?

A
  • aggressive malignant neoplasm that arises from primitive transformative cells of mesenchymal origin that produces malignant osteoid
  • most common primary bone malignancy in children
  • usual peak onset 15-19 yrs
  • associated with Paget’s disease in adult life
335
Q

what is the clinical presentation/pathophysiology of osteosarcoma?

A
  • occurs in metaphyses of long bones
  • common sites are knee (75%) or proximal humerus
  • often presents as a relatively painless tumour
  • destroys bone and spreads into the surrounding tissue
  • rapidly metastasises to the lung
336
Q

what is seen on an X-ray in an osteosarcoma?

A
  • bone destruction and formation

- soft tissue calcification produces a sunburst appearance

337
Q

what is Ewing’s sarcoma? what is its epidemiology?

A
  • type of cancer that forms in bone or soft tissue
  • thought to arise from mesenchymal stem cells
  • very rare
  • average age of onset is 15 yrs
338
Q

what is the clinical presentation of Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

• presents with a mass/swelling, most commonly in the long bones of the:
- arms, legs, pelvis and chest
- occasionally in the skull and flat bones of the trunk
• painful swelling, redness in the area surrounding the tumour, malaise, anorexia, weight loss, fever, paralysis and/or incontinence if affecting the spine, numbness in affected limb

339
Q

what is a chondrosarcoma?

A
  • cancer composed of cells derived from transformed cells that produce cartilage
  • most common adult bone sarcoma
340
Q

what is the clinical presentation of chondrosarcoma?

A

associated with dull, deep pain and affected area is swollen and tender

341
Q

what are the common sites affected by chondrosarcoma?

A

pelvis, femur, humerus, scapula and ribs

342
Q

what is the definition of fibromyalgia?

A
  • also known as chronic persistent pain
  • widespread musculoskeletal pain after other diseases have been excluded
  • symptoms present for at least 3 months and other causes have been excluded
  • pain at 11/18 tender point sites on digital palpation (with enough pressure so that the thumb blanches)
343
Q

what kind of pain is fibromyalgia associated with?

A

central (non-nociceptive) pain:

  • due to central disturbance in pain processing
  • bipsychosocial factors are important
344
Q

what is the epidemiology of fibromyalgia?

A
  • can develop at any age but often over 60 yrs
  • more common in females than males
  • 12% of those with RA have fibromyalgia
345
Q

what are the risk factors and causes of fibromyalgia?

A
  • female
  • middle age
  • low household income
  • divorced
  • low educational status
346
Q

what is fibromyalgia associated with?

A
  • depression
  • chronic headache
  • IBS
  • chronic fatigue syndrome
  • myofascial pain syndrome
347
Q

what is the clinical presentation of fibromyalgia?

A
  • chronic pain (more than 3 months) that is widespread
  • fatigue is often extreme and occurring after minimal exertion
  • non-restorative sleep
  • anxiety and anger
348
Q

what are features of pain in fibromyalgia?

A
  • predominantly neck and back but may be all over
  • aggravated by stress, cold and activity
  • associated with generalised morning stiffness
  • paraesthesiae of hands and feet
349
Q

what are areas that the pain in fibromyalgia focuses on?

A
  • lower neck in front
  • base of the skull
  • upper edge of breast
  • neck and shoulder
  • upper inner shoulder
  • below side bone at allow
  • upper outer buttock
  • hip bone
  • just above knee on inside
350
Q

what are features of non-restorative sleep in fibromyalgia?

A
  • frequent waking during the night
  • waking unrefreshed
  • poor concentration and forgetfulness
  • low mood, irritable and weepy
  • lack of non-REM sleep causes functional pain
351
Q

what are differential diagnoses for fibromyalgia?

A
  • hypothyroidism
  • SLE
  • polymyalgia rheumatica
  • high calcium
  • low vitamin D
  • inflammatory arthritis
352
Q

how is fibromyalgia diagnosed?

A
  • pain at 11 of 18 tender point sites on digital palpation
  • thyroid function test (to exclude hypothyroidism)
  • ANA’s and DsDNA (to exclude SLE)
  • ESR and CRP (to exclude PMR)
  • Ca2+ and electrolytes (to exclude high calcium)
  • Vit D (to exclude low vitamin D)
  • examine patient and CRP (to exclude inflammatory arthritis)
353
Q

what is treatment of fibromyalgia?

A
  • educate patient and family
  • avoid unnecessary investigations
  • reset pain thermostat (correct non-restorative sleep and improve aerobic fitness)
  • low-dose antidepressants and anticonvulsants (tricyclics and pregabalin)
  • NSAIDs and steroids rarely work in fibromyalgia
354
Q

what are red flags for possible serious spinal pathology?

A
  • age of onset less than 20 or greater than 55 yrs
  • violent trauma
  • constant, progressive, non-mechanical pain
  • thoracic pain
  • systemic steroids, drug abuse or HIV
  • systemically unwell, weight loss
  • persisting severe restriction of lumbar flexion
  • widespread neurology
  • structural deformity
355
Q

what is the epidemiology of mechanical lower back pain?

A
  • common back pain in young people - 20-55 yrs
  • associated with heavy manual handling, stooping and twisting whilst lifting, exposure to whole body vibration, psychosocial distress, smoking and
    dissatisfaction with work
356
Q

what are the main causes of mechanical lower back pain?

A
  • lumbar disc prolapse
  • osteoarthritis
  • fractures
  • spondylolisthesis
  • heavy manual handling
  • stooping and twisting whilst lifting
  • exposure to whole body vibration
357
Q

what are risk factors for recurrent back pain?

A
  • female
  • increasing age
  • pre-existing chronic widespread pain - fibromyalgia
  • psychosocial factors
358
Q

what is the clinical presentation for mechanical lower back pain?

A
  • back is stiff and a scoliosis may be present when patient is standing
  • muscular spasm is visible and palpable and causes local pain and tenderness - lessens when sitting or lying
  • pain is often unilateral and helped by rest
  • episodes are generally short-lived and self-limiting, but once you’ve had one there is a significantly increased risk of further back pain episodes
  • sudden onset
  • pain worse in the evening
  • morning stiffness is absent
  • exercise aggravates pain
359
Q

what is the pathophysiology of mechanical lower back pain?

A
  • spinal movement occurs at the disc and the posterior facet joints; stability is normally achieved by a complex mechanism of spinal ligaments and muscles
  • any of these structures may be a source of pain
  • some typical syndromes are recognised: lumbar spondylosis, facet joint syndrome, fibrositic nodulosis, postural back pain and swayback of pregnancy
360
Q

what is lumbar spondylosis?

A

spondylosis is the degeneration of the vertebral spinal column from any cause

361
Q

what is the pathophysiology of lumbar spondylosis?

A
  • main lesion occurs in an intervertebral disc
  • the disc allows rotation and bending
  • changes in the discs occasionally start in teenage years or early twenties and often increase with age
  • the gel changes chemically, breaks up, shrinks and loses its compliance
  • the surrounding fibrous zone develops circumferential or radial issues
  • in the majority this is initially asymptomatic but visible on MRI as dehydration
  • later the discs become thinner and less compliant
  • these changes cause circumferential bulging of the intervertebral ligaments
  • reactive changes develop in adjacent vertebrae; the bone becomes sclerotic and osteophytes form around the rim of the vertebra
362
Q

what is the most common site for lumbar spondylosis?

A

L5/S1 and L4/L5

363
Q

what is a Schmorl’s node?

A

protrusions of the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc through the vertebral body endplate and into the adjacent vertebra
- this process is painless but may accelerate disc degeneration

364
Q

what can spondylosis cause?

A
  • may be asymptomatic
  • episodic spinal pain
  • progressive spinal stiffening
  • facet joint pain
  • acute disc prolapse, with or without nerve irritation
  • spinal stenosis
365
Q

what is facet joint syndrome?

A

syndrome in which the facet joints (synovial diarthroses, from C2 to S1) cause painful symptoms

366
Q

what are facet joints?

A
  • a set of synovial, plane joints between the articular processes of two adjacent vertebrae
  • two facet joints in each spinal motion segment
  • each facet joint is innervated by the recurrent meningeal nerves
  • function of each pair is to guide and limit movement of the spinal motion segment
367
Q

what is clinical presentation and treatment of facet joint syndrome?

A
  • pain is typically worse on bending backwards and when straightening from flexion - it is lumbar in site, unilateral or bilateral and radiates to the buttock
  • facet joints are well seen on MRI and may show osteoarthritis, an effusion or a ganglion cyst
  • treatment consists of direct corticosteroid injections under imaging
  • physiotherapy and weight loss
368
Q

what are features of postural back pain and swayback of pregnancy?

A
  • low back pain is common in pregnancy and reflects altered spinal posture and increased ligamentous laxity
  • weight control and pre- and postnatal exercises are helpful, and the pain usually settles after delivery
  • analgesics and NSAIDs are best avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding
  • poor posture causes a similar syndrome in the non-pregnant, owing to obesity or muscular weakness
  • poor sitting posture at work is a frequent cause of chronic low back pain
369
Q

what are differential diagnoses of mechanical lower back pain?

A

in the elderly, ESR and CRP will distinguish mechanical back pain form polymyalgia rheumatica

370
Q

when are spinal X-rays done for lower mechanical back pain?

A

only for red flags:

  • starts before age of 20 or over 50
  • persistent and a serious cause is suspected
  • worse at night or in the morning; inflammatory arthritis e.g ankylosing sponylitis, infection or a spinal tumour
  • associated with systemic illness, fever or weight loss
  • is associated with neurological symptoms or signs
371
Q

what is used to diagnose mechanical lower back pain?

A
  • spinal X-rays
  • MRI more preferable to CT (better for bone pathology)
  • bone scans
372
Q

what is treatment of mechanical lower back pain?

A
  • urgent neurosurgical referral if any neurological deficit
  • analgesia
  • combined with physiotherapy, back muscle training regimens and manipulation
  • acupuncture helps some
  • excessive rest avoided
  • re-education in lifting and exercises to prevent further attacks of pain
  • comfortable sleeping position using a medium-firm mattress
373
Q

what are high risk activities for MSK problems?

A
  • heavy manual handling
  • lifting above shoulder height
  • lifting from below knee height
  • incorrect manual handling technique
  • forceful repetitive work
  • poor postures
374
Q

give some examples of work related MSK disorders?

A
  • mechanical tension neck
  • thoracic outlet syndrome
  • rotator cuff tendonitis
  • carpal tunnel syndrome
  • tenosynovitis
  • hand-arm vibration syndrome
  • medial and lateral epicondylitis
375
Q

what is thoracic outlet syndrome? what are features of it?

A
  • compression of nerves, arteries or veins in the passageway from the lower neck to the armpit
  • three main types: neurogenic, venous and arterial
  • pain or tingling down arms or blanching of fingers related to posture of arm
  • may also present as wasting of hands
  • due to compression of the brachial plexus or subclavian artery/vein in the neck
  • may be due to a cervical rib, cervical band or other abnormalities of anatomy in neck
  • associated with poor posture, loading of shoulders and working at a keyboard
  • Roos sign
  • X-ray neck, MRI scan
  • treatment: surgery
376
Q

what is rotator cuff tendonitis? what are features of it?

A
  • inflammation of the rotator cuff tendon
  • rotator cuff tendon tears leading to swelling and further impingement beneath arch
  • jobs with high risk involve heavy manual handling, lifting above shoulder height and throwing
377
Q

what is carpal tunnel syndrome? what is it associated with?

A
  • more common in females than males
  • compression of median nerve by flexor tendons; gives pain, numbness, tingling, weakness and wasting of muscles supplied by median nerve
  • associated with; obesity, short stature, pregnancy,
    diabetes, hypothyroidism and RA
  • seen in occupations with forceful, repetitive work done with abnormal wrist postures - extremes of flexion-extension of wrist e.g. abattoir workers
378
Q

what is tenosynovitis? what is it associated with?

A
  • inflammation of the fluid-filled sheath that surrounds the tendon
  • joint pain, swelling, stiffness, tenderness, crepitus
  • job with forceful and repetitive hand movements e.g. hammering
  • more common in females than males
  • treatment: NSAIDs, steroid injection, rest
379
Q

what is hand-arm vibration syndrome? what is it associated with?

A
  • Raynaud’s phenomenon of industrial origin
  • caused by excessive exposure to hand-transmitted vibration
  • high risk if using chain saws, grinders, jack hammers and drills
  • vascular (blanching) and sensorineural (tingling, numbness and loss of dexterity) components
  • eligible for state benefit
380
Q

what is medial and lateral epicondylitis? what are features of it?

A
  • medial (common flexor tendon): pain against resisted flexion of wrist, Golfer’s elbow
  • lateral (common extensor tendon): pain against resisted extension of wrist, Tennis elbow
  • seen where there is repetitive bending and straightening of elbow e.g. tennis players and golfers
  • treatment: NSAIDs, steroid injection, rest and surgery
381
Q

what causes bone and joint infection?

A
  • infection of the joints is usually caused by bacteria and rarely by fungi
  • some viruses e.g. rubella, mumps and hep B infections are associated with a mild self-limiting arthritis but this is not due to direct joint involvement
382
Q

what is septic arthritis?

A
  • invasion of a joint by an infectious agent resulting in joint inflammation
  • can destroy a joint in under 24hrs
  • knee is affected in more than 50% of cases
  • joints become infected by direct injury or by blood-borne infection from an infected skin lesion or other site
383
Q

what is the epidemiology of septic arthritis?

A

increases with age - 45% for those over 65 yrs

384
Q

what are the main causes of septic arthritis?

A
  • S. aureus is most common cause
  • streptococci
  • Neisseria gonorrhoea
  • Haemophilus influenzae in children
  • Gram negative bacteria e.g. E.coli or Pseudomonas aeruginosa in the elderly or very young or those who are systemically unwell/IV drug user
385
Q

what are the risk factors for septic arthritis?

A
  • pre-existing joint disease, especially RA (chronically inflamed joints are at more risk of infection than normal joints)
  • diabetes melllitus
  • immunosuppression e.g. HIV
  • chronic renal failure
  • recent joint surgery
  • prosthetic joints
  • IV drug abuse
  • those over 80yrs and infants
  • recent intra-articular steroid injection
  • direct/penetrating trauma
386
Q

what is the clinical presentation of septic arthritis? what joints are most commonly affected?

A
  • in the young and previously fit: agonisingly painful, red, swollen, hot joint
  • in the elderly and immunosuppressed and in RA the signs may be muted and less dramatic
  • children might not use joint; limping or protecting joint
  • fever
  • 90% monoarthritis but possibly polyarthritis
  • most common in knee, hip and shoulder but can occur in any joint
  • early infection: wound inflammation/discharge, joint effusion, loss of function and pain
  • late disease: presents with pain or mechanical dysfunction
387
Q

what are differential diagnoses of septic arthritis?

A

gout and pseudogout

388
Q

what is used to diagnose septic arthritis?

A
  • urgent joint aspiration
  • polarised light microscopy for crystals to exclude gout/pseudogout
  • ESR, CRP and WCC raised; CRP may not always be raised
  • X-ray: no value in septic arthritis, loosening or bone loss around a previously well fixed implant will suggest infection
  • skin wound swabs, sputum and throat swab or urine if gonoccal infection is possible
389
Q

what are features of urgent joint aspiration in septic arthritis?

A
  • send fluid for urgent Gram-staining and culture
  • fluid will be purulent/opaque/thick/pussy due to high WCC in it
  • note normal fluid is clear yellow and quite thin i.e. not very viscous
  • always aspirate before giving antibiotics
390
Q

what is the treatment of septic arthritis?

A
  • stop methotrexate and anti-TNF alpha
  • double prednisolone dose, only if already on long term prednisolone; giving it on its own carries infection risk
  • joint should be immobilised early, followed by early physiotherapy to prevent stiffness and muscle wasting
  • start antibiotics after joint aspiration
  • joint drainage repeatedly until no recurrent effusion can help relieve pain
  • NSAIDs for pain
391
Q

what antibiotics are given in septic arthritis? how is progress monitored?

A
  • IV flucloxacillin for most Gram negatives
  • IV erythromycin/clindamycin if allergic to penicillin
  • IV cefotaxime for Gram negatives or gonococcal
  • IV vancomycin for MRSA
  • for immunocompromised, give IV flucoxacillin and gentamycin
  • IV antibiotics given for 2 weeks
  • monitor progress by looking at ESR and CRP
392
Q

what are the different types of bacterial arthritis?

A
  • gonococcal arthritis
  • meninococcal arthritis
  • tuberculous arthritis
393
Q

what is gonococcal arthritis? what is its clinical presentation?

A
  • involves one or several joints and occurs secondary to genital, rectal or oral infection (often asymptomatic)
  • caused by Gram negative Neisseria gonorrhoea
  • most common cause of septic arthritis in previously fit young adults; more common in women and men who have sex with men
  • patients present with a fever and characteristic pustules on distal limbs as well as polyarthralgia and tenosynovitis
394
Q

what is the diagnosis and treatment of gonococcal arthritis?

A
  • culture blood and fluid to diagnose
  • treatment consists of oral penicillin, ciprofloxacin or
    doxycycline for 2 weeks and joint rest
395
Q

what is meningococcal arthritis? what is its clinical presentation? what is its treatment?

A
  • may complicate meningococcal septicaemia and presents as a migrating polyarthritis
  • results from the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing meningococcal antigens
  • treatment with penicillin
396
Q

what is tuberculous arthritis? what is its clinical presentation?

A
  • 1% of patients with tuberculosis have joint and bone involvement
  • usually caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • can occur as primary disease in children
  • hip, knee and intervertebral discs are most commonly affected
  • there are caseating granulomas and rapid destruction of cartilage and adjacent bone
  • insidious onset of pain, swelling and dysfunction
  • fever, night sweats and weight loss
397
Q

what is diagnosis and treatment of tuberculous arthritis?

A
  • culture synovial fluid
  • biopsy synovial fluid or intervertebral disc for diagnosis; CT guided
  • joint or spinal X-ray may be normal but joint-space reduction and bone destruction develop rapidly if treatment is delayed
  • treatment is the same as for pulmonary tuberculosis with therapy for 9 months, joint should be rested and the spine immobilised in the acute phase
398
Q

what is osteomyelitis?

A
  • infection localised to bone

* either due to metastatic haematogenous spread or due to local infection

399
Q

what is the epidemiology of osteomyelitis?

A
  • osteomyelitis predominantly occurs in children
  • increasing incidence of chronic osteomyelitis
  • majority of haematogenous acute osteomyelitis occurs in children
  • adolescents and adults tend to get osteomyelitis due to infection secondary to direct trauma
  • elderly get it due to risk factors
400
Q

what are the main causes of osteomyelitis?

A
  • Staphylococcus aureus is the most common organism - 90% of acute osteomyelitis
  • coagulase negative staphylococci e.g. Staphylococcus epidermidis
  • Haemophilus influenzae
  • Salmonella - can occur as a complication of sickle cell anaemia
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Serratia marcesans in IVDU
401
Q

what are risk factors for osteomyelitis?

A
  • diabetes mellitus
  • peripheral vascular disease
  • malnutrition
  • inflammatory arthritis
  • debilitating disease
  • decreased immunity
  • sickle cell disease
  • prosthetic material
  • immunosuppressive drugs
  • trauma
402
Q

what are the routes of pathogens getting into bone and causing osteomyelitis?

A
  • direct inoculation of infection into the bone by trauma or surgery (easy)
  • contiguous spread of infection into bone (medium)
  • haematogenous seeding (hard)
403
Q

what are features of contiguous spread of infection into bone as a cause of osteomyelitis?

A
  • without breaking skin
  • infection of adjacent soft tissue spreading into bone
  • seen in elderly who tend to have diabetes mellitus, chronic ulcers, vascular disease, joint replacements and prostheses
404
Q

what are features of haematogenous seeding of pathogen into bone as a cause of osteomyelitis in children?

A

in children the infection is more likely to go to the long bones:
• most common site of infection is in the metaphysis of the long bone
• here the blood flow is slower, endothelial basement membrane is absent and the capillaries lack or have inactive phagocytic lining cells - all these factors predispose to bacteria migrating from blood into bone and the growth of bacteria in the bone

405
Q

what are features of haematogenous seeding of pathogen into bone as a cause of osteomyelitis in adults?

A

more likely to get into the vertebra:

• with age the vertebra become more vascular thereby making bacterial seeding of the vertebral endplate more likely

406
Q

what are risk factors for haematogenous seeding and bacteraemia?

A
  • happens in mainly children and adults over 50 yrs
  • risk in IVDU (tend to be younger and infection tends to go to clavicle and pelvis)
  • people with risk factors for bacteraemia:
    • central line, dialysis, sickle cell disease (more likely to get vascular necrosis of the hip), urethral catheterisation and UTI
    • similar factors as those for endocarditis
407
Q

what are the acute histopathology changes in osteomyelitis?

A
  • inflammatory cells
  • oedema
  • vascular congestion
  • small vessel thrombosis
408
Q

what are the chronic histopathology changes in osteomyelitis?

A
  • necrotic bone ‘sequestra’
  • new bone formation - involucrum
  • neutrophil exudates
  • lymphocytes and histiocytes
409
Q

what is the pathophysiology of osteomyelitis?

A
  • inflammatory exudate (in response to bacteria) in the marrow leads to increased intramedullary pressure, with extension of exudate into the bone cortex
  • this causes rupture through the periosteum and interruption of periosteal blood supply resulting in necrosis
  • this leaves pieces of separated dead bone known as sequestra
  • new bone forms here, called involucrum
410
Q

what is the clinical presentation of osteomyelitis?

A
  • onset over several days
  • dull pain at site of osteomyelitis that may be aggravated by movement
  • fever, sweats, rigors and malaise
  • acute: tenderness, warmth, erythema and swelling
  • note: osteomyelitis in sites such as the hip, vertebrae or pelvis will present as pain but with very few other symptoms
  • can also present as septic arthritis:
    • when infection breaks through cortex resulting in discharge of pus into the joint - knee, hip or shoulder
    • more common in infants due to patent transphyseal blood vessels and immature growth plates
411
Q

what is the clinical presentation of chronic osteomyelitis?

A
  • tenderness, warmth, erythema and swelling

* draining sinus tract which is associated with deep/large ulcers that fail to heal despite treatment

412
Q

what are differential diagnoses of chronic osteomyelitis?

A
  • charcot joint; damage due to sensory nerves affected by diabetes
  • soft tissue infection e.g. cellulitis and erysipelas
  • avascular necrosis of the bone, causes; steroids, radiation or bisphosphonate use
  • gout
  • fracture
  • malignancy
413
Q

what is seen on imaging in osteomyelitis?

A
  • plain X-ray may show osteopenia
  • MRI may show marrow oedema from 3-5 days (sign of osteomyelitis) - done after X-ray
  • bone scans are also helpful
414
Q

what is seen on bloods in osteomyelitis?

A
  • blood culture to determine aetiology
  • ESR and CRP raised
  • acute - raised WCC
  • chronic osteomyelitis - can have normal WCC
415
Q

what is treatment of osteomyelitis?

A
  • immobilisation
  • antimicrobial therapy:
    • tailored to culture and sensitivity findings
    • IV teicoplanin; side effects: rash, pruritus, GI upset
    • IV flucoxacillin
    • oral fusidic acid
    • stop treatment guided by ESR/CRP monitoring
  • surgical debridement and removal of dead bone (sequestrum)
416
Q

what is the cause and clinical presentation of tuberculous osteomyelitis?

A
  • usually due to haematogenous spread from a reactivated primary focus in the lungs or GI tract
  • may be slower onset with systemic symptoms e.g. malaise, fever and night sweats
  • local pain and swelling if pus collected
417
Q

what is the diagnosis and treatment of tuberculous osteomyelitis?

A
  • biopsy is essential - look for caseating granuloma!

* longer treatment - 12 months with same treatment as for pulmonary tuberculosis

418
Q

what is the epidemiology of prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • most serious complication of arthroplastic surgery
  • based on hips and knees
  • incidence is increasing due to increasing age, diabetes and obesity
419
Q

what are the main causes of prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • S. aureus
  • coagulase negative Staphylococci
  • mainly Gram positives
420
Q

what is the clinical presentation of prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • majority are not acutely infected
  • systemically well
  • tender, hot, swollen joint
421
Q

how is prosthetic joint infection diagnosed?

A
  • tissue sample from surgery
  • X-ray
  • both ESR and CRP raised; sign of infection:
    • check ESR and CRP repeatedly
  • alpha defensin; 95% sensitive
  • joint aspiration
422
Q

how is joint aspiration used to diagnose prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • gold standard diagnostic
  • identifies organism and antibiotic sensitivities
  • must be done with patient off antibiotics for 2 weeks minimum
423
Q

how is antibiotic suppression used to treat prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • if patient is unfit for surgery e.g. too frail or multiple co-morbidities
  • multiple prosthetic joint infections
  • will not eliminate sepsis
424
Q

how is debridement and retention of prostheses used to treat prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • for early post-op infections or acute haematogenous infection
  • not for chronic infection
425
Q

how is excision arthroplasty used to treat prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • for high risk frail and multiple co-morbidities who have infection that is uncontrolled with antibiotic suppression
  • people with low functional demand
  • effective in removing infection but not good at restoring function
426
Q

how is one-stage arthroplasty exchange used to treat prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • radical debridement
  • implantation of new prosthesis with antibiotic cement
  • systemic and local antibiotics
  • avoids bone graft
  • 85% success rate
427
Q

how is two-stage arthroplasty exchange used to treat prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • radical debridement
  • local antibiotic spacer +/- systemic antibiotics
  • interval stage i.e. suture up and wait for infection to clear
  • implantation of new prosthesis with antibiotic cement
  • routine antibiotic prophylaxis
  • 90-95% success
428
Q

what are the different types of treatment of prosthetic joint infection?

A
  • antibiotic suppression
  • debridement and retention of prosthesis
  • excision arthroplasty
  • one-stage arthroplasty exchange
  • two-stage arthroplasty exchange
  • amputation if severe infection and if all else fails
429
Q

what is major trauma? what is its epidemiology?

A
  • serious and often multiple injuries where there is a strong possibility of death or disability with an injury severity score (ISS) greater than 15
  • leading cause of death for adults under the age of 45
  • majority is caused by major road traffic accidents - typically males are involved
430
Q

what body regions can the injury severity score be assigned to?

A
assigned to one of six body regions:
• head and neck including cervical spine
• face
• chest including thoracic spine
• abdomen/pelvic contents and lumbar spine
• extremity - includes pelvic skeleton
• external
431
Q

what is the abbreviated injury scale?

A
  • 1: minor - superficial laceration
  • 2: moderate - fractured sternum
  • 3: serious - open fracture humerus
  • 4: severe - perforated trachea
  • 5: critical - ruptured liver
  • 6: unsurvivable - total aortic transection
432
Q

what are features of the injury severity score? how is it calculated?

A
  • anatomical score
  • each injury scored according to the AIS
  • assigned to one of six body regions
  • abbreviated injury scale
  • scoring system is done retrospectively
  • only the highest score in each region is counted
  • the 3 highest scores are counted and then squared and then x3 to generate the ISS
  • score of 6 in any region gives an automatic ISS of 75
433
Q

what is juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • defined as joint swelling/stiffness/limitation in those older than 6 weeks but under 16 with no other causes
  • 7 subtypes according to presentation
  • 1 in 1000 children
  • under diagnosed
434
Q

what is the aetiology of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • unknown cause
  • could be autoimmune disease
  • different gene combinations give different forms of JIA
435
Q

what are causes of joint inflammation?

A
  • infection
  • reactive
  • trauma
  • malignancy
  • connective tissue disease
436
Q

what are the different types of pathophysiology of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • synovitis - common in all
  • persistent oligoarthritis (4 or less joints)
  • extended oligoarthritis
  • rheumatoid factor negative polyarthritis
  • rheumatoid factor positive polyarthritis
  • enthesitis related JIA
  • Stills disease - systemic onset JIA
437
Q

what are features of synovitis as a cause of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • inflammation of the synovial membrane resulting in synovial fluid being pumped out of the joint resulting in swelling and causing the joint to become stiff
  • in a child with juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) they are at high risk of uveitis
  • the membrane lining the eyes is very similar to that of the joints and is thus a potential target of they inflammation
  • many children will suffer from chronic anterior uveitis due to their JIA, however the child may not complain of their vision becoming cloudy until they go blind
  • thus need to ensure opthalamic screening every 3 months to prevent blindness
438
Q

what are features of persistent oligoarthritis as a cause of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • aged less than 6 yrs
  • 1-4 joints involved
  • 50% affect only 1 joint and this is most commonly the knee
  • majority are ANA negative
  • high risk for uveitis - screen for uveitis
  • will most likely grow out of it
439
Q

what are features of extended oligoarthritis as a cause of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • 1-4 joints in first 6 months
  • more joints affected thereafter
  • girls more frequently affected
  • peak age is 2-4 yrs
  • has a worse prognosis than persistent oligoarthritis
  • 50% have active disease into adult life
  • screen for uveitis
440
Q

what are features of rheumatoid factor negative polyarthritis as a cause of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • acute or insidious onset of arthritis in more than 5 joints (polyarthritis)
  • usually symmetrical
  • may be some low grade systemic features e.g. malaise, fever and anaemia/thrombocytosis
  • less risk of uveitis but still screen for it
441
Q

what are features of rheumatoid factor positive polyarthritis as a cause of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • often starts in late adolescence
  • more common in girls
  • confirmed by being tested rheumatoid factor positive in 3 months
  • the only form of JIA that is similar to RA
  • CCP antibody is usually negative unlike in RA
  • possibly related to smoking habit
  • less risk of uveitis but still screen
442
Q

what are features of enthesitis related JIA?

A
  • essentially its spondyloarthritis in young people
  • often HLA-B27 positive
  • typically affects males over 6 yrs
  • high risk uveitis so screen
  • associated with IBD
  • inflammatory back pain or sacroiliac pain
443
Q

what are features of Stills disease as a cause of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A
  • can occur at any age but peaks at 4-6 yrs
  • equal male to female ratio
  • systemic illness with daily (quotidian) fever - fever spikes daily, usually at same time each day
  • evanescent rash and arthritis
  • anaemic, raised platelets (thrombocytosis) and high ferritin
  • lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly and serositis are common
444
Q

what is medical treatment of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

• steroid joint injections:
- general anaesthetic or Entonox (laughing gas, inhale, anaesthesia, shorter half life)
• NSAIDs
• methotrexate
• systemic steroids
• biological drugs such as TNF-alpha inhibitors

445
Q

what are types of bone fractures?

A
  • transverse
  • linear
  • oblique, nondisplaced (common in ankle due to axial load injury)
  • oblique, displaced
  • spiral (twisting injury)
  • greenstick
  • comminuted
446
Q

what is a greenstick fracture?

A
  • specific to children
  • unicortical fracture in which the bone bends and breaks due to thick periosteum
  • very easy to treat
  • bone not completely broken
447
Q

what is the Salter-Harris classification?

A
  • classification for fractures involving the physis (growth plate)
  • higher the number the more damage and thus worse prognosis
  • the most involved areas in a fracture are the epiphysis and metaphysis
  • major complication is growth arrest
448
Q

what is fracture management?

A
  • reduce fracture → restore length, alignment and rotation → immobilise (to allow healing) → rehabilitate
  • most kids fractures can be healed non-operatively due to extremely quick healing as a result of their thick periosteum with excellent blood supply
  • consequently, need to X-ray regularly to ensure no rotational/angular movement
449
Q

what is internal operational fixation?

A
  • surgical implentation of implants for reparation of bone; positioned entirely within the patient’s body
  • plate, screws, intramedullary nails or K-wire
  • note: if the nails or K-wire invade the physis (growth plate) then there will be growth arrest
450
Q

what is external fixation?

A
  • where rods are screwed into bone and exit the body to be attached to a stabilising structure on the outside of the body
  • useful for when there are lots of soft tissue swellings and damage so don’t want to open skin to reduce risk of infection and bad healing
  • ex-fix or lizarov frame
451
Q

what are complications of fractures?

A
  • open fracture - infection risk
  • neurovascular compromise
  • malunion - bone heals but with deformity
  • non-union - failure of the bone to heal
  • compartment syndrome
452
Q

what is compartment syndrome?

A
  • condition in which increased pressure within one of the body’s anatomical compartments results in insufficient blood supply to tissue within that space
  • acute and chronic
  • common in tibia
  • caused by cast or post-op bleeding of the fascia
  • treated with fasciotomy where the fascia is removed
453
Q

what are examples of bisphosphonates?

A

Alendronate, Zolendronate, Disodium pamidronate

454
Q

what are indications for bisphosphonates?

A
  • alendronate is first line treatment for patients at risk of osteoporosis
  • severe hypercalcaemia of malignancy
  • myeloma and breast cancer bone metastases to reduce pathological fractures and need for radiotherapy or surgery
  • Paget’s disease to reduce bone turnover and pain
455
Q

what are mechanisms of bisphosphonate action?

A
  • reduce bone turnover by inhibiting osteoclasts (responsible for bone resorption) and promoting apoptosis
  • have a similar structure to naturally occurring pyrophosphate so are readily
    incorporated into bone
  • net effect is reduction in bone loss and improvements in bone mass
456
Q

what are adverse effects/contraindications of bisphosphonates?

A
  • oesophagitis can occur when taken orally
  • hypophosphataemia
  • rarely jaw osteonecrosis or atypical femur fractures can occur
  • avoid in severe renal impairment and hypocalcaemia and in upper GI disorders, used with care in patients with dental disease or who smoke
  • absorption is reduced if taken with calcium containing products such as
    antacids and iron salts
457
Q

what are examples of calcium and vitamin D?

A

Calcium carbonate, Calcium gluconate, Colecalciferol, Alfacalcidol

458
Q

what are indications for calcium and vitamin D?

A
  • used in osteoporosis to ensure positive calcium balance when dietary
    intake/sunlight exposure are insufficient
  • used in CKD to treat and prevent secondary hyperparathyroidism and renal
    osteodystrophy
  • calcium used in severe hyperkalaemia to prevent life threatening arrhythmias
  • used in symptomatic hypocalcaemia
  • vitamin D is used in prevention and treatment of vitamin D deficiency for rickets and osteomalacia
459
Q

what are mechanisms of calcium/vitamin D?

A
  • calcium homeostasis is controlled by:
    • parathyroid hormone and vitamin D which increase serum calcium levels and bone mineralisation
    • calcitonin which reduces serum calcium levels
  • restoring positive calcium balance reduces the rate of bone loss and prevents fractures
460
Q

what are adverse effects/contraindications of calcium/vitamin D?

A
  • may cause dyspepsia and constipation
  • can cause cardiovascular collapse if administered too fast IV
  • do not use in hypercalcaemia
  • calcium can reduce absorption of iron, bisphosphonates and tetracycline antidepressants
461
Q

what is an example of a xanthine oxidase inhibitor?

A

allopurinol

462
Q

what are the indications for xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

A
  • to prevent acute attacks of gout
  • to prevent uric acid and calcium oxalate renal stones
  • to prevent hyperuricaemia and tumour lysis syndrome associated with chemotherapy
463
Q

what are mechanisms of xanthine oxidase inhibitor action?

A
  • allopurinol is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor that blocks metabolism of xanthine (produced from purines) to uric acid
  • results in lower plasma uric acid concentration and reduces precipitation of uric acid in the joints or kidneys
464
Q

what are adverse effects/contraindications of xanthine oxidase inhibitors?

A
  • most common side effect is a skin rash (if severe may indicate hypersensitivity reaction)
  • should not be started during acute gout attacks as may worsen these, and is contraindicated in patients with recurrent skin rash on the drug
  • use with care in renal impairment and hepatic impairment
  • azathioprine requires xanthine oxidase for metabolism so allopurinol may increase their activity
  • use with care with amoxicillin, ACE inhibitors or thiazides as increase risk of hypersensitivity
465
Q

what is an example of antigout agents?

A

colchicine

466
Q

what are indications for antigout agents?

A
  • used to prevent acute gout attack and relieve pain of attack when they do occur
  • also used to treat familiar mediterranean fever
467
Q

what are mechanisms of anti-gout agent action?

A
  • colchicine inhibits microtubule polymerisation by binding to tubulin, which is essential for mitosis
  • also inhibits neutrophil motility and activity which leads to a net anti-inflammatory effect which is useful in acute attacks
468
Q

what are adverse effects/contraindications of anti-gout agents?

A
  • may cause GI disturbances
  • more rarely causes myalgia, fever
  • fatigue can occur due to anaemia in high doses
  • peripheral neuropathy due to peripheral nerve damage
  • contraindicated in renal impairment
  • colchicine toxicity can be enhanced when using statins
469
Q

what are adverse effects/contraindications of antimetabolites?

A
  • sore mouth, GI upset, bone marrow suppression and rarely hypersensitivity reactions
  • long term use can cause hepatic cirrhosis or pulmonary fibrosis
  • contraindicated in severe renal impairment and abnormal liver function
470
Q

what are features of rheumatoid factor? what diseases is it associated with?

A
  • IgM antibodies against the Fc portion of IgG; type 3 hypersensitivity
  • more sensitive than specific
  • positive in 80% of those with RA
471
Q

what are features of anti-CCP? what diseases is it associated with?

A
  • positive in 60-70% of RA patients
  • very specific
  • predictive of erosions and joint deformity
472
Q

what are features of anti-dsDNA? what diseases is it associated with?

A
  • specific subtype of ANA
  • IgG
  • very specific for SLE
  • not senstivie for SLE
  • correlates with SLE activity
473
Q

what are features of anti-Smith? what diseases is it associated with?

A
  • Smith antigen
  • 25% of SLE patients have anti-SM; not sensitive
  • specific for SLE
  • no clinical correlation
474
Q

what are features of anti-U1-RNP? what diseases is it associated with?

A
  • antibodies against SnRNP70 (RNA binding protein)
  • very sensitive for MCTD
  • found in SLE
  • associated with idiopathic inflammatory myositis
475
Q

what are features of antiribosomal P protein? what diseases is it associated with?

A
  • autoantibodies against proteins in the ribosomes
  • specific for SLE
  • not sensitive for SLE
476
Q

what are features of anti-centomere? what diseases is it associated with?

A

limited scleroderma/CREST syndrome

477
Q

what is anti-RNA polymerase III associated with?

A

diffuse/systemic scleroderma

478
Q

what is anti-Scl70 associated with?

A

diffuse/systemic scleroderma

479
Q

what are features of anti-SSA (anti-Ro)? what diseases is it associated with?

A
  • not sensitive (30-40%)
  • not specific
  • Sjogrens syndrome and SLE
  • HLADR3
  • increased risk of non-hodgkins lymphoma
480
Q

what are features of anti-SSB (anti-La)? what diseases is it associated with?

A
  • not sensitive (15-20%)
  • not specific
  • Sjogrens syndrome and SLE
  • HLADR3
  • increased risk of non-hodgkins lymphoma
481
Q

what is anti-Jo1 associated with?

A

polymyositis and dermatomyositis

482
Q

what antibodies is primary biliary cirrhosis associated with?

A
  • anti-gp210
  • anti-p62
  • anti-sp100
  • anti-mitochondrial antibody