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Year 4 > MSK and rheum > Flashcards

MSK and rheum Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 peaks of age for fracture?

A
  • Young child
  • Young adult
  • Elderly
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2
Q

How long does an upper limb fracture take to recover?

A
  • 1 unit of time (where a unit its 6 weeks)
  • I.e. 6 weeks
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3
Q

How long does a lower limb fracture take to recover?

A
  • 2 units of time
  • I.e. 12 weeks
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4
Q

How long to children’s fracture take to recover compared to adults?

A

About half the time

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5
Q

What is the mot commonly fractured bone?

A

Clavicle

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6
Q

What classification system is used for open fractures?

A

Gustillo-Anderson classification

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7
Q

What are the levels of Gustillo-Anderson classification?

A

1) Low energy wound <1cm
2) >1cm wound with moderate soft tissue damage
3a, b, c) High energy wound >1cm with extensive soft tissue damage

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8
Q

What are the 3 sub levels of GA classification 3?

A

a) Adequate soft tissue coverage
b) Inadequate soft tissue coverage
c) Associated arterial injury

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9
Q

What is a valgus displacement of a fracture?

A

Distal partion lateral

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10
Q

What is a varus displacement of a fracture?

A

Distal portion medial

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11
Q

What are the 3 main aetiologies of fracture?

A
  • Acute
  • Stress
  • Pathological
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12
Q

What are the 3 most common types of fracture in children?

A
  • Greenstick
  • Buckle
  • Salter-Harris
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13
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

Unilateral cortical breach only

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14
Q

What is a buckle fracture?

A

Incomplete cortical disruption resulting in periosteal haematoma only

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15
Q

What are the 5 levels of the Salter-Harris classification?

A

I) Fracture through the physis (growth plate) only (X-ray often normal)
II) Fracture through the physis and metaphysis
III) Fracture through the physis and epiphysis to include the joint
IV) Fracture involving the physis, metaphysis and epiphysis
V) Crush fracture through the physis (X-ray may resemble type I) (these are rare)

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16
Q

What are causes of pathological fracture in children?

A
  • Osteogenesis imperfect
  • Osteopetrosis
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17
Q

What are some features of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A
  • Collagen problem leading to brittle bones
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Blue sclera, hearing and teeth problems
  • Normal blood results
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18
Q

What are some features of osteopetrosis?

A
  • Autosomal recessive
  • Mable bone from lack of corticomedullary differentiation
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19
Q

What are the 4 components of fracture management?

A

1) Resus (if required)
2) Reduction
3) Restriction
4) Rehab

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20
Q

What are the components of fracture resus?

A
  • Haemodynamically stabilise and ALS
  • 4A’s
  • Open fractures need 6L saline irrigation
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21
Q

What are the 4 A’s of fracture resus?

A
  • Analgesia
  • Assess N&V
  • Alignment
  • Antibiotic (antiseptic and anti-tetanus)
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22
Q

What is used to reduce a closed fracture?

A

Bone manipulation

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23
Q

What are some methods for fracture restriction and when might they be used

A
  • Slings
  • Plaster of Paris cast
  • External fixation (open fracture or significant soft tissue damage)
  • Internal fixation
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24
Q

What are 2 important side-effects/considerations of PoP casting?

A
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Staph skin infection risk
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25
Q

What is an important side-effect/consideration of external fixation?

A

Pin infection risk

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26
Q

What is an absolute and relative contraindication to internal fixation?

A
  • Absolute = active infection
  • Relative = compound fracture
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27
Q

What are the 3 stages of bone healing?

A

Reactive, reparative, and remodelling

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28
Q

What are some early complications of fractures?

A
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Nerve damage
  • Vascular injury
  • Infection
  • Rhabdomyolysis
  • Haematoma
  • Fat embolism
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29
Q

Wha are some features of compartment syndrome?

A
  • Pressure buildup >30mmHg
  • Pain on passive movement and using more breakthrough analgesia
  • Raised creatinine kinase
  • 6P’s: pain, pallor, pulselessness, perishingly cold, parasthesis, paralysis
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30
Q

What are some chronic complications of fractures?

A
  • Non-union
  • Malunion
  • Post-trauma osteoarthritis
  • Myositis ossificans
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31
Q

What are some causes of bone malunion?

A
  • Infection
  • Ischaemia
  • Intercurrent disease (cancer)
  • Increased strain
  • Increased tissue
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32
Q

What are some risk factors for bone malunion?

A
  • Smoking
  • Alcohol
  • DM
  • Steroids
  • Old age
  • CKD
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33
Q

When can post trauma OA occur?

A

Following an intra-articular fracture

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34
Q

What is myositis ossificans and how does it present?

A
  • Muscle ossification at site of fracture
  • Restricted, painful movement
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35
Q

Where is myositis ossificans most common?

A

The elbows and quads

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36
Q

What is the mechanism for clavicular fracture?

A

FOOSH or fall onto shoulder

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37
Q

What are the most common sites of clavicular fracture

A

1) Middle (80%)
2) Lateral (15%)
3) Medial (5%)

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38
Q

What are the signs of a clavicular fracture and why?

A
  • Medial clavicle raised more than lateral clavicle
  • Medial portion pulled up by SCM, lateral portion pulled down by weight of arm
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39
Q

What is the management of clavicular fracture?

A
  • Good prognosis
  • Endochondral ossification in 3 weeks
  • Broad or figure 8 sling if severe
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40
Q

What structures are at risk in clavicular fracture?

A
  • Brachial plexus
  • Subclavian artery
  • Lung (pneumothorax)
  • All these are rare
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41
Q

What is the MoA of humeral neck fracture?

A

FOOSH or direct blow

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42
Q

What are the features of a humeral neck fracture?

A
  • Upper arm and chest bruising
  • Pain and reduced range of movement
  • X-ray diagnosis
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43
Q

What is at risk in humeral neck fracture and what will happen?

A
  • Axillary nerve (regimental badge loss and deltoid paralysis)
  • Posterior humeral circumflex artery (not much effect as not main supply
  • Anterior circumflex artery if displacement >1cm (causes avascular necrosis)
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44
Q

Wha is the management of undisplaced humeral neck fracture?

A

Collar and cuff sling

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45
Q

What are the features of humeral shaft fracture?

A
  • Bruising and swelling of arm
  • Radial nerve injury
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46
Q

How common is radial nerve injury in humeral shaft fracture and how will it present?

A
  • Most common complication of humeral shaft fracture (18%)
  • Loss of wrist flexion and base of thumb sensory loss
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47
Q

What is the management of humeral neck fracture?

A
  • Closed reduction and gutter splint
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48
Q

What is an important side-effect/consideration on humeral neck fracture splinting?

A

Requires 12 weeks immobilisation which may cause capsulitis

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49
Q

What is the MoA of a supracondylar humeral fracture?

A
  • FOOSH or blow onto flexed elbox
  • Typically transverse or oblique fracture
  • Most common in kids
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50
Q

What are the signs of supracondylar fracture?

A
  • Arm held in semi flexed position
  • Fat pad and sail sign on X-ray
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51
Q

What is at risk in supracondylar fracture?

A
  • Anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve (weak pincer but normally neuropraxia)
  • Brachial artery
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52
Q

What happens in brachial artery damage from supracondylar fracture?

A
  • Volkamns ischemia (fibrotic contracture of long flexors due to ischemia)
  • First sign is pain in the fingers and forearm
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53
Q

What is a common side-effect of supracondylar fracture and how do you avoid it?

A
  • Compartment syndrome
  • Keep patient in hospital for 24 hours to monitor
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54
Q

What are other common side effects of supracondylar fracture?

A
  • Posterior displacement of distal portion
  • Varus deformity from malunion
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55
Q

What are some features of medial epicondylar fracture?

A
  • Avulsion fracture from medial ligament
  • Ulnar nerve damage common as it runs dee
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56
Q

What is the MoA for an olecranon fracture?

A
  • High energy fracture in young
  • Low energy fracture in the elderly
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57
Q

What are some features of an olecranon fracture?

A
  • Palpable defect on posterior elbow
  • Inability to extend arm
  • Ulnar damage common
58
Q

What are some features of a radial head fracture?

A
  • FOOSH
  • Localised pain and tenderness and restricted movement
  • Sharp pain on pronation and supination
  • Mason classification
59
Q

What are some features of a Monteggia fracture?

A
  • Ulna shaft fracture and dislocation of the proximal radio ulnar joint
  • FOOSH onto pronated hand
  • Radial nerve injury
60
Q

What are somme features of a Galeazzi fracture?

A
  • Radial shaft fracture and distal dislocation of the radioulnar joint
  • FOOSH + rotational force
  • Lower arm tenderness
  • Displaced radius and prominent distal ulnar head from the dislocation on X-ray
61
Q

What are some features of osteochondritis dissecans?

A
  • Joint locking and ‘clunking’
  • Pain on exercise
  • Repeated exercise
62
Q

What X-ray finding can differentiate between gout and pseudogout?

A

Pseudogout shows chondrocalcinosis

63
Q

What investigation is most appropriate for meniscal tears?

A

MRI

64
Q

What is the triad for fat embolus?

A
  • Respiratory symptoms
  • Neurological symptoms
  • Petechial rash (usually after the first 2 symptoms)
65
Q

What can be used to remember the difference between Monteggia and Galeazzi fracture?

A

Monteggia ulna (Manchester United), Galeazzi radius (Galaxy rangers)

66
Q

What are the blood test results in osteomalacia?

A
  • Low calcium and phosphate
  • High alkaline phosphatase
67
Q

What is the MoA of a Colles fracture?

A

FOOSH in the elderly

68
Q

What are the features of a Colles fracture?

A
  • Dinner fork deformity (dorsal angulation)
  • Transverse fracture of distal radius
  • 1cm proximal to radoiocarpal joint
69
Q

What are possible complications of Colles fracture?

A
  • Median nerve damage
  • Carpal tunnel syndrome from swelling
  • Sudeck’s atrophy (complex regional pain syndrome post Colles)
70
Q

What is the management of minimally displaced Colles’ fracture?

A
  • Reduction in the ER
  • Dorsal backslab cast
  • Review in 2 weeks to check for malunion
71
Q

What is the management of displaced or malunion of Colle’s fracture?

A

Open surgical reduction and internal fixation

72
Q

What is a Smith’s fracture?

A
  • Essentially a reverse Colles fracture
  • Garden spade deformity (volar angulation)
  • Result of backwards FOOSH onto flexed wrist
  • Treated with open reduction and internal fixation
73
Q

What is a Barton’s fracture and how do they occur?

A
  • Any distal radial fracture (inc Colles and Smiths) with dislocation
  • Caused by FOOSH onto extended and pronated wrist
74
Q

What is the mechanism of scaphoid fracture and what are a couple of examples oaf when one may occur?

A
  • FOOSH onto extended radially deviated wrist
  • RTA when holding wheel
  • Contact sports
75
Q

What is the most common carpal fracture?

A

Scaphoid

76
Q

What is the main risk from scaphoid fracture and why?

A
  • Avascular necrosis
  • Disruption of retrograde blood supply from dorsal carpal branch of radial artery
77
Q

What is the presentation of scaphoid fracture?

A
  • Anatomical snuffbox pain
  • Tenderness on scaphoid tubercle (volar side of wrist)
  • Telescopic pain of the thumb
  • Loss of pincer grip
78
Q

What is the investigation for scaphoid fracture?

A
  • X-ray at the time, if normal repeat in 2 weeks
  • MRI is gold standard
79
Q

What is the management of scaphoid fracture?

A
  • POP cast until evidence of union (at least 6 weeks)
  • If symptomatic malunion then surgery
  • If no evidence of fracture on x ray but clinical than splint and re x ray in 10-14 days
80
Q

What is a Bennet’s fracture?

A
  • Fracture of base of thumb (1st metacarpal) due to impact of flexed metacarpal
  • Usually occurs in fist fight
81
Q

What X-ray sign is seen in Bennet’s fracture?

A

Triangular fragmentation of 1st metacarpal bone

82
Q

What is a Boxer’s fracture?

A

The same as a Bennet’s fracture but in base of little finger (5th metacarpal)

83
Q

What are the features of a fractured NOF?

A
  • Severe pain
  • Shortened and externally rotated leg (from iliopsos pull)
  • Internal rotation most commonly affected
84
Q

What are some features of an intracapsular NOF fracture?

A
  • 30% die in 12 months
  • High chance of displacement and AVN
  • Treated with hip replacement
  • Classified with Gardener’s classification
85
Q

What are the levels of Gardner’s classification?

A

1) Stable, impacted valgus
2) Complex but no displacement
3) Displaced but bony contact
4) Complete disruption

86
Q

What are the 2 types of extra capsular fracture and how are they differentiated?

A
  • Intratrochanteric and subtrochanteric
  • If below trochanter horizontal line = substrochanteric
  • Trochanteric involvement suggests stability
87
Q

What is the X-ray finding for a hip fracture?

A

Disrupted Shenton’s line

88
Q

What structures are at risk in hip fracture and what will happen?

A
  • Medial circumflex femoral artery from profunda femoris (AVN of femoral head)
  • Superior gluteal nerve (trendelenburg gait) (rare)
89
Q

What is used in extra medullary fixation of the hip and when is it used?

A
  • Dynamic hip screw or intramedullary nail
  • Extracapsular fracture
90
Q

When is an intramedullary nail used in NOF fracture?

A

Gardener’s 1 and 2 in fit and health patient

91
Q

When is a hemiarthroplasty used in NOF fracture?

A
  • Gardner 1 and 2 in less healthy patients
  • Gardener’ 3 and 4 in unfit patients
92
Q

When is total hip replacement used in NOF fracture?

A

Gardner’s 3 and 4 in patients who have good mobility

93
Q

What are some considerations for total arthroplasty?

A
  • Dislocation is likely
  • Patients can’t flex past 90 degrees and can’t flex and adduct at the same time
94
Q

What are the signs of AVN of femoral head?

A

Progressive pain and reduced range of movement in recovering NOF fracture or in presence of risk factors (smoking, alcohol, long term steroids, chemo

95
Q

What X-ray finding is seen in AVN of femoral head?

A

Crescent sign

96
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for AVN femoral head?

A

MRI

97
Q

What are the risk factors for avasscualr necrosis of the femoral head?

A
  • Long term steroids
  • Alcohol
  • Smoking
  • Chemo
98
Q

Pubic rami fractures?

A
  • Don’t need surgery
  • Heal in 8 weeks
  • Keep mobile
  • Old ladies with low energy falls
99
Q

What is the presentation of greater trochanteric pain syndrome?

A
  • Pain over the lateral side of hip/thigh
  • Tenderness on palpation of the greater trochanter
100
Q

Who are particularly at risk of osteosarcoma and how should it be investigated?

A
  • Teenagers
  • X-ray within 48 hours
101
Q

What is the first-line treatment for lower back pain with no red flags?

A
  • NSAIDS
102
Q

What I the imaging modality of choice for osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

103
Q

How does cubital tunnel syndrome occur and is the main feature?

A
  • Caused by compression of the ulnar nerve
  • Tingling/numbness of the 4th and 5th finger
104
Q

What are some features of a femoral shaft fracture?

A
  • Pain, swelling, haemorrhage and significant bleeding
  • Need 4 units of blood
  • Requires surgical repair
105
Q

When do femoral shaft fractures occur and what are some examples?

A
  • High energy trauma
  • RTA, GSW, fall
106
Q

What are 3 complications of femoral shaft fracture?

A
  • Sciatic nerve
  • superficial femoral artery
  • Fat embolism (respiratory signs (SOB), neurological signs (confusion) and subsequent petechial rash)
107
Q

When do tibial shaft fractures occur and give some examples?

A
  • Hight energy trauma (similar to femoral shaft)
  • RTA, GSW, falls
108
Q

What are some features of a tibial shaft fracture?

A
  • Most common long bone fracture
  • Common to have co-morbid fibula fracture
  • Require 2 units of blood
109
Q

What are 2 complications of tibial shaft fracture?

A
  • Common perineal nerve injury
  • Compartment syndrome
110
Q

Who do stress fractures most commonly occur in?

A
  • Runners
  • Athletes
  • Military
111
Q

In which bones are stress fractures most common?

A
  • Metatarsal bone (2nd metatarsal most common)
  • Leg bones
112
Q

Imaging in stress fractures?

A
  • X-ray may be normal at the time and show change 2 weeks later
  • Bone isotope or MRI scan gold standard
113
Q

Treatment of stress fractures?

A

Rest and immobilise

114
Q

When are tibial plateau fractures common?

A
  • Valgus or varus knees before the collateral ligament
  • Valgus causes lateral plateau fracture
  • Varus causes medial plateau fracture
115
Q

What classification is used for tibial plateau fracture?

A

Schatzker classification

116
Q

What are the 2 type of patella fracture?

A
  • Comminuted/direct
  • Avulsion/indirect
117
Q

What are some features of a comminuted/direct patella fracture?

A
  • From direct knee blow
  • Extensor function of knee intact
  • Requires 6 week knee hinge
118
Q

What are some features of an avulsion/indirect patella fracture?

A
  • Violent quadricep extension against force
  • Transverse fracture through patella
  • Lose extensor function of leg
  • Requires surgical repair and 6 week knee brace
119
Q

Which its more commonly fractured, the medial or lateral malleolus?

A

Lateral malleolus

120
Q

What is talar shift?

A
  • Occurs in medial fracture or deltoid ligament rupture
  • Talus not under tibia causing an unstable joint
121
Q

What is a feature of ankle fracture?

A

Pain on passive movement

122
Q

What classification is used for lateral malleolus fracture?

A

Weber classification

123
Q

What are the level of Weber classification?

A

A) Below syndesmosis
B) At level of Syndesmosis
C) Above syndesmosis

124
Q

What are the Ottawa ankle rules?

A

Pain in malleolus joint + one of the following:
- Tender lateral malleolus
- Tender medial malleolus
- Can’t weight bear for 4 steps

125
Q

What is a Pott’s fracture and when is it seen?

A
  • Trimalleolar fracture
  • Forced eversion injuries with big toe on the floor
126
Q

What is the specific MoA of a Pott’s fracture?

A
  • Avulsion fracture of medial malleolus
  • Talus shifts and breaks lateral malleolus
  • Tibia forced forwards creating shearing force of posterior talus
127
Q

How is a Pott’s fracture treated?

A

Surgical repair

128
Q

What is a Maisoneuve fracture and how is it treated?

A
  • Spiral fracture of the proximal fibula that disrupts the syndesmosis and widens the joint space
  • Treated surgically
129
Q

What is the basic management of ankle fractures?

A
  • Rapid reduction required to prevent neuromuscular compromise
  • All surgical except: isolated non-displaced fracture, no talar shift, very old
  • If not surgical then manage with weight bearing (as tolerated) in CAM boot
130
Q

What is a Lisfranc fracture?

A

Fracture and displacement of the metatarsal bone from the tarsal bone

131
Q

What sports are commonly associated with Lisfranc fractures?

A
  • Snowboarding
  • Ballet
  • American football
132
Q

What is the MoA of Lisfranc fractures?

A
  • Direct: RTA or fall
  • Indirect: rotational force on planter flexed foot (e.g. fall off horse with foot in stirrup)
133
Q

What are some side effects of bisphosphpnates?

A
  • Oesaphagitis and ulcer
  • Osteonecrosis of jaw
  • Increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft
  • Acute phase response: fever, myalgia and arthralgia
  • Hypocalcaemia
134
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma?

A
  • Malignant bone tumour mainly affecting children and adolescents
  • Most common in pelvis, and long bones
  • Often cause severe pain
  • X-ray shows lytic lesion with ‘onion skin’ appearance
135
Q

What needs to be corrected before giving bisphosphonate?

A

Hypocalcaemia and low vit-D

136
Q

What is a common complication of posterior hip dislocation?

A

Sciatic nerve injury

137
Q

What I the mot common type of hip dislocation and how might they present?

A
  • Posterior hip dislocation (shortened internally rotated limb)
  • Anterior dislocation much rarer and presents with externally rotated limb
138
Q

What nerve is most commonly injured in anterior hip dislocation?

A

Femoral nerve

139
Q

What I a particularly late sign of caudal equine?

A

Urinary incontinence

140
Q

What is the most common common type of shoulder dislocation?

A

Anterior shoulder dislocation (95%)

141
Q

What is the most commonly dislocated joint?

A

Shoulder

142
Q

What is the first line treatment for OA?

A

Paracetamol and topical NSAIDs

Year 4 (16 decks)

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