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ESA 2 > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

0
Q

What is the axial skeleton?

A

This consists of 80 bones. Including the skull bones, the rib cage and the vertebral column. It’s main roles are for protection and support.

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1
Q

What are the functions of the skeleton?

A

Support, protection, shape, movement, haemopoiesis, mineral/lipid storage.

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2
Q

What is the Appendicular skeleton?

A

Consists of 126 bones. Includes Upper and lower limbs, and its main role is to allow mobility.

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3
Q

Name the 5 types of bones, giving an example for each.

A
  • Long: humerus
  • Short: carpus
  • Flat: skull
  • Irregular: sphenoid of the face
  • Sesamoid: (tendon protection) patella
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4
Q

Characteristics and examples of fibrous joints

A

Contain fibrous connective tissue, are fixed and immovable. e.g. sutures of the cranium, syndesmosis (e.g. joining of radius and ulna), gomphosis (tooth ‘peg’ fits into socket)

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5
Q

Characteristics of cartilaginous joints.

A
  • Primary (Synchondrosis): bones connected by hyaline cartilage when fully grown. Epiphyseal growth plate converts to bone e.g. spine/ribs
  • Secondary (Symphysis): Strong, slightly movable joints with fibrocartilage (Shock absorbent & flexibility) e.g. intervertebral disks
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6
Q

What attaches to the lateral end of the clavicle?

A

The acromion of the scapula

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7
Q

What articulates with the glenoid cavity?

A

The head of the humerus

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8
Q

What articulates with the capitulum of the humerus?

A

The radius

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9
Q

What articulates with the trochlea of the humerus?

A

The ulna

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10
Q

Which is most lateral, the radius or the ulna?

A

Radius

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11
Q

Is the head of the ulna at the distal or proximal end?

A

Distal

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12
Q

Where is the olecranon process?

A

Proximal end of ulna

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13
Q

Name the 8 carpal bones

A

Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrium, pisiform, trapezium, trapezioid, capitate, hamate.

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14
Q

What is an agonist and an antagonist?

A

An agonist is the main muscle for a particular movement, an antagonist opposes this prime mover.

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15
Q

What is the role of a synergist muscle?

A

It assists the prime mover

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16
Q

Characteristics of isotonic contraction

A

Constant tension. Muscle changes length and moves the load. If it is concentric, then the muscle shortens.

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17
Q

What is isometric muscle contraction?

A

Muscle remains a constant length. With variable tension.

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18
Q

Compare the muscle fibre types

A

Type 1: red, aerobic, many mitochondria, fatigue resistant, endurance.
Type 2a: aerobic, red/pink, many mitochondria, some fatigue resistance, walk/sprint.
Type 2b: anaerobic, white, few mitochondria, poor capillaries, fatiguable, short/intense movements.

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19
Q

What is proprioception?

A

The feedback control of movement. They are in skeletal muscle/joints and inform the brain the position of the body etc.

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20
Q

What is hypotonia?

A

Lack of muscle tone. Can be caused by motor cortex damage/spinal cord damage etc.

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21
Q

What are the borders of the Axilla?

A

Apex= 1st rib, scapula and clavicle
Lateral wall= intertubecular groove of humerus
Medial wall= Serratus anterior and thoracic wall
Anterior wall= pec major and minor, and Subclavius muscles
Posterior wall= Subscapularis, teres major and Latissimus Dorsi

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22
Q

What does the Axilla contain?

A

Axillary artery and vein, brachial plexus, muscle tendons and Axillary lymph nodes.

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23
Q

Which nerve roots supply the brachial plexus?

A

C5, 6,7,8 and T1

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24
Q

What are the 5 branches of the brachial plexus?

A 
Musculocutaneous nerve
Axillary nerve
Median nerve
Radial nerve
Ulnar nerve
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25
Q

When do limb buds appear in Utero and what are they derived from?

A

End of week 4. Derived from somatic layer of the lateral plate mesoderm.

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26
Q

What is the name of the thickened portion of ectoderm at the apex of the limb buds?

A

Apical Ectodermal ridge

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27
Q

What is the role of the AER?

A

It’s critical for limb bud outgrowth, proximal to distally. It regresses once paddles appear.
It exerts an inductive influence on the underlying mesenchyme, ensuring it remains undifferentiated, allowing the limb bud to continue to elongate.
It also induces development of digits within the hands and feet.

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28
Q

What is the ZPA?

A

The zone of polarising activity is located in the posterior base of the limb bud and controls the anterior-posterior axis and maintains the AER.

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29
Q

Arterial supply of the arm?

A

Axillary artery becomes the brachial artery. This gives rise to profunda brachii which supplies posterior arm. Brachial artery terminates by splitting into the radial and ulnar arteries.

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30
Q

What does the cubital fossa contain?

A

Radial Nerve
Biceps Tendon
Brachial Artery
Median nerve

(Really need beer to be at my nicest)

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31
Q

What is the role of the rotator cuff muscles?

A

They pull the numeral heal into the glenoid fossa, giving glenohumeral joint additional stability.

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32
Q

What are the four rotator cuff muscles?

A

Supraspinatous, infraspinatous, Subscapularis, teres minor

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33
Q

Which muscles flex the arm at the shoulder?

A

Pec major, anterior fibres of deltoid, coracobrachialis, biceps brachii

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34
Q

Main extensors of arm at shoulder?

A

Posterior fibres of deltoid, Latissimus Dorsi, teres major

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35
Q

Which muscles allow abduction of the arm?

A

0-20deg Supraspinatous
20-90deg deltoid
Above 90deg rotation of scapula so trapezius and Serratus anterior.

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36
Q

Which muscles allow adduction?

A

Pec major, Latissimus Dorsi, teres major

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37
Q

Which muscles allow medial rotation?

A

Subscapularis, teres major, pec major, Latissimus Dorsi

38
Q

Which muscles allow lateral rotation?

A

Infraspinatous and teres minor

39
Q

How would you know if there was Axillary nerve damage post dislocation of the gleno-humeral joint?

A

Causes paralysis of the deltoid muscle hence no abduction. Also loss of sensation of skin in regimental badge area supplies by lateral cutaneous nerve.

40
Q

What is painful arc syndrome?

A

Irritation and inflammation of Supraspinatous tendon. Usually due to overuse. Causes pain 50-130deg of abduction.

41
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

An area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

42
Q

What is a myotome?

A

A group of muscles innervated by a single nerve root

43
Q

What does the spinal cord run through?

A

The vertebral foramina of the vertebral column.

44
Q

Through what do the spinal nerves leave the spinal cord?

A

Intervertebral foramina.

45
Q

What happens when the nerve emerges through the intervertebral foramen?

A

It divides into two branches. A small posterior (dorsal) Ramus and a large anterior (ventral) Ramus.

46
Q

What is the lumbar plexus?

A

A network of nerve fibres that supply skin and musculature of the lower limb.

47
Q

What is a sprain?

A

Damage to ligaments in a joint due to forces that stress the ligament.

48
Q

What is a fracture?

A

A break in the continuity of the bone.

49
Q

What is a subluxation?

A

Partial dislocation of a joint (partial loss of continuity).

50
Q

What is a dislocation?

A

Abnormal separation in the joint where two bones meet. = complete loss of continuity of an articulating surface.

51
Q

When examinating a joint, what do you look for?

A

Swelling, bruising, obvious deformity, puncture/skin wounds, joint fluid.

52
Q

What do open injuries often require?

A

Cleaning, irrigation, IV antibiotics, tetanus status and wound coverage.

53
Q

What are the 4 superficial muscles of the anterior forearm?

A

Flexor Carpi ulnaris
Palmaris longus
Flexor Carpi radialis
Pronator Teres

54
Q

What are the 6 superficial muscles of the posterior forearm?

A 
Brachioradialis
Extensor Carpi radialis
Extensor digitorum
Extensor Digiti Minimi
Extensor Carpi ulnaris 
Aconeus
55
Q

What are the 4 deep muscles of the posterior forearm?

A

Supinator
Abductor Pollicis longus
Extensor Pollicis
Extensor indices

56
Q

What are the borders of the anatomical snuff box?

A

Medial: extensor Pollicis longus
Lateral: tendons of the extensor Pollicis Brevis and abductor Pollicis longus
Floor: scaphoid and trapezium bones

Radial artery crosses the snuff box.

57
Q

The radial and ulnar arteries anastamose in the hand, forming which 2 arches?

A

Superficial and deep palmar arches

58
Q

What are the articulations within the elbow joint?

A

Trochlea notch of ulnar and trochlea of humerus

Head of radius and capitulum of humerus

59
Q

What is the job of the subtendonous olecranon bursa?

A

Reduces friction during flexion/extension of the arm.

60
Q

How are our arms able to supinate/pronate?

A

The head of the radius pivots on the capitulum of the humerus.

61
Q

What is a ‘pulled elbow’?

A

When the head of the radius subluxates from the annular ligament?

62
Q

What is the interosseus membrane?

A

A sheet of connective tissue joining the radius and the ulna. There are holes within it for vasculature.

63
Q

What is the role of the articular disk of the elbow?

A

Ensures joint integrity. Separates cavity of distal radioulnar joint from the wrist cavity.

64
Q

What are the articulations within the wrist?

A

Articulation of distal radius and articular disk with proximal carpal bones, except pisiform. The ulnar isn’t part of the wrist joint.

65
Q

Which four ligaments are involved in the wrist joint?

A

1: palmar radiocarpal
2: dorsal radiocarpal
3: ulnar collateral ligament
4: radial collateral ligament

66
Q

Which four movements are the wrist capable of?

A

Flexion, extension,abduction, adduction

67
Q

What is a Colles fracture?

A

Caused by falling onto outstretched hand. Posterior displacement of distal fragment of radius.

68
Q

Consequences of a scaphoid fracture?

A

Can disrupt blood supply to proximal portion leading to avascular necrosis. Snuff box tenderness.

69
Q

What are the functions of the vertebral column?

A
  • protects the spinal cord
  • forms central axis of body
  • allows attachment of bones, supports the head, bears body weight etc.
  • has a role in posture aswell as muscle attachment
70
Q

What is the primary curvature of the vertebral column?

A

The foetal vertebral column initially has a figure ‘C’ shape. (Concave anteriorly)

71
Q

What happens to vertebral column when a young child begins to lift head and then crawl?

A

Lift head: posterior concavity forms at cervical spine =1st secondary curvature

Crawl: lumbar spine develops a 2nd posterior concavity = 2nd secondary curvature.

72
Q

What are the four curvature of the spine named?

A 
Cervical = lordosis
Thoracic = kyphoses
Lumbar = lordosis
Sacral = kyphoses
73
Q

What is the structure of the vertebral column?

A

24 discrete single vertebrae and 9 fused (sacrum = 5 and coccyx = 4)

74
Q

What do the transverse processes of the vertebral column articulate with?

A

The ribs

75
Q

What do the articulate processes of the vertebral column articulate with?

A

The articular processes of the vertebrae above and below

76
Q

What do the spinous processes of the vertebral column attach to?

A

Muscles and ligaments

77
Q

How many vertebrae in each section of vertebral column?

A 
Cervical = 7
Thoracic = 12
Lumbar = 5
Sacrum = 5 (fused)
Coccyx = 4 (fused)
78
Q

What are the roles of the intervertebral disks?

A

Form secondary cartilaginous joints between vertebrae. Act as shock absorbers.

79
Q

What are the two parts of the intervertebral disks and what is a slipped disk?

A

Outer annular fibrosus and inner nucleus pulposus.
Slipped disk is when nucleus pulposus herniates through annulus fibrosus if there’s degeneration. Can result in compression of spinal nerves and even paralysis.

80
Q

What are the name of the flat bands that strap in the vertebrae and intervertebral disks?

A

Anterior and posterior longitudinal ligaments

81
Q

Properties of cervical vertebrae?

A
  • spinous processes bifurcate into 2
  • there’s a foramen in each transverse process
  • vertebral foramen form triangle shape
82
Q

Properties of thoracic vertebrae?

A
  • each has 2 ‘Demi facets’ on it to articulate with the head of its respective rib and the rib inferior to it
  • spinous processes are slanted inferiorly and anteriorly
  • vertebral foramen is circular
83
Q

Properties of lumbar vertebrae?

A
  • largest
  • kidney shaped vertebral bodies
  • triangle shaped vertebral foramen
84
Q

Properties of the coccyx?

A

No vertebral arches, no vertebral canal, therefore doesn’t transmit the spinal cord

85
Q

What is C1 otherwise called?

A

The atlas. Articulates with the skull and axis. Lacks a body and spinous process. Fuses with axis to form the dens.
Axis is very strong and has a large spinous process.
Dens prevents horizontal displacement of atlas.

86
Q

What forms the carpal tunnel?

A

Arch is formed by scaphoid and trapezius (laterally) and pisiform and hook of hamate (Medially). The flexor retinaculum bridges the two sides of the arch.

87
Q

What does the carpal tunnel contain?

A

Tendons of: flexor Pollicis longus, flexor digitorum profundus and flexor digitorum superficialis. Aswell as the median nerve.
Compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel can cause carpal tunnel syndrome.

88
Q

Which three bones make up the hip bone?

A

Ilium, ischium and pubis

89
Q

What articulates with the femur?

A

The acetabulum of the hip bone

90
Q

What is the inner and outer surface of the Ilium called?

A 
Iliac fossa (inner)
Gluteal surface (outer)
91
Q

Which is the most anterior portion of the hip bone?

A

The pubis

92
Q

What do the medial and lateral condyles of the femur articulate with?

A

The tibia and patella

93
Q

Where do the cruciate ligaments attach to?

A

The intercondylar fossa

ESA 2 (7 decks)

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