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MBChB Finals > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mechanism of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells

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2
Q

Give 2 examples of a type I hypersensitivity reaction

A
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Atopy
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3
Q

What is the mechanism of a type II hypersensitivity reaction?

A

IgG or IgM binds to antigen on cell surface

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4
Q

Give 3 examples of a type II hypersensitivity reaction

A
  • Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
  • ITP
  • Goodpasture’s syndrome
  • Pernicious anaemia
  • Acute haemolytic transfusion reactions
  • Rheumatic fever
  • Pemphigus vulgaris / bullous pemphigoid
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5
Q

What is the mechanism of a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine

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6
Q

Give 3 examples of a type III hypersensitivity reaction

A
  • Serum sickness
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
  • Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially acute phase)
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7
Q

What is the mechanism of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A

T-cell mediated

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8
Q

Give 3 examples of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A
  • Tuberculosis / tuberculin skin reaction
  • Graft versus host disease
  • Allergic contact dermatitis
  • Scabies
  • Extrinsic allergic alveolitis (especially chronic phase)
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • Guillain-Barre syndrome
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9
Q

What is the most appropriate management for the following injury:

A 24-year-old man falls sustaining an inversion injury to his ankle. On examination he is tender over the lateral malleolus only. On x-ray there is a fibular fracture that is distal to the syndesmosis.

A

Application of below knee plaster cast to include the midfoot

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10
Q

What is the most appropriate management for the following injury:

An 86-year-old lady stumbles and falls whilst opening her front door. On examination her ankle is swollen with both medial and lateral tenderness. X rays demonstrate a fibular fracture at the level of the syndesmosis.

A

Application of below knee plaster cast to include the midfoot

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11
Q

What is the most appropriate management for the following injury:

A 25-year-old man suffers an injury whilst playing rugby involving a violent twist to his left lower leg. On examination both malleoli are tender and the ankle joint is very swollen. On x-ray there is a spiral fracture of the fibula and widening of the ankle mortise.

A

Surgical fixation

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12
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis:

  • Most common primary malignant bone tumour in children
  • Commonly affects the metaphyseal region of long bones
  • Radiographs classically show Codman triangle (a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone)
A

Osteosarcoma

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13
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of psoriatic arthritis

A
  • Asymmetrical polyarthritis with >30 minutes of morning stiffness
  • Typically affects the hands and feet
  • Sacroiliitis
  • DIP joint disease and dactylitis
  • Psoriatic skin lesions
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14
Q

Name the antibody associated with lung fibrosis in myositis

A

Anti-Jo1 antibodies

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15
Q

How would you manage a flare of gout in a patient who is already on prophylactic treatment?

A

Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine

(allopurinol should be continued during an acute attack in patients presenting with an acute flare of gout who are already established on treatment)

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16
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient presenting with bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (→ waddling gait)?

A

Osteomalacia

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17
Q

How long must the symptoms of chronic fatigue syndrome be present before making a diagnosis?

A

3 months

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18
Q

Name 3 adverse effects of bisphonates

A
  • Oesophageal reactions
  • Osteonecrosis of the jaw
  • Increased risk of atypical stress fractures
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19
Q

Which patient group are more at risk of osteonecrosis of the jaw when taking bisphonates?

A

Greater risk for patients receiving IV bisphosphonates in the treatment of cancer

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20
Q

What is the first line treatment for SLE?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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21
Q

True/false: creatine kinase levels are elevated in temporal arteritis

A

False

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22
Q

A 72-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after falling at his nursing home. On arrival he complains of pain in the left hip.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Left subcapital fracture

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23
Q

What patient factors are accounted for in a Z-score (DEXA scan)?

A

Age, gender, ethnicity

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24
Q

What is the most appropraite management for a non-displaced patella fracture with an entact extensor mechanism (can perform straight leg raise)?

A

Conservative management with knee immobilisation

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25
Q

What drug is given to patients with systemic sclerosis following a renal crisis to prevent further renal complications?

A

ACE inhibitors

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26
Q

What is the drug treatment for moderate/severe psoriatic arthropathy?

A

Methotrexate

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27
Q

What are the motor functions of the femoral nerve?

A

Knee extension, thigh flexion

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28
Q

What are the sensory functions of the femoral nerve?

A

Sensation of the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg

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29
Q

What are the typical mechanisms of injury to the femoral nerve?

A
  • Hip and pelvic fractures
  • Stab/gunshot wounds
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30
Q

What is the motor function of the obturator nerve?

A

Thigh adduction

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31
Q

What is the sensory function of the obturator nerve?

A

Sensation of the medial thigh

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32
Q

What is the typical mechanism of injury of the obturator nerve?

A

Anterior hip dislocation

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33
Q

What is the sensory function of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh?

A

Sensation of the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh

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34
Q

What is the typical mechanism of injury of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh?

A

Compression of the nerve near the ASIS → meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterised by pain, tingling and numbness in the distribution of the lateral cutaneous nerve

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35
Q

What are the motor functions of the tibial nerve?

A

Foot plantarflexion and inversion

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36
Q

What is the sensory function of the tibial nerve?

A

Sensation of the sole of the foot

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37
Q

What are the typical mechanisms of injury to the tibial nerve?

A
  • Not commonly injured as deep and well protected
  • Popliteral lacerations, posterior knee dislocation
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38
Q

What are the motor functions of the common peroneal nerve?

A

Foot dorsiflexion and eversion, extensor hallucis longus

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39
Q

What are the sensory functions of the common peroneal nerve?

A

Sensation to the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg

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40
Q

What are the typical mechanisms of injury to the common peroneal nerve?

A
  • Injury often occurs at the neck of the fibula
  • Tightly applied lower limb plaster cast
  • Injury causes foot drop
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41
Q

What is the motor function of the superior gluteal nerve?

A

Hip abduction

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42
Q

What are the typical mechanisms of injury of the superior gluteal nerve?

A
  • Misplaced intramuscular injection
  • Hip surgery
  • Pelvic fracture
  • Posterior hip dislocation
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43
Q

Injury to which nerve results in a positive Trendelenburg sign?

A

Superior gluteal nerve

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44
Q

What is the motor function of the inferior gluteal nerve?

A

Hip extension and lateral rotation

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45
Q

What is the typical mechanism of injury of the inferior gluteal nerve?

A
  • Generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve
  • Injury results in difficulty rising from seated position → can’t jump, can’t climb stairs
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46
Q

What is the preferred surgical management for an intertrochanteric (extracapsular) proximal femoral fracture?

A

Dynamic hip screws

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47
Q

When starting treatment with bisphonates, what must be corrected first?

A

Hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency

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48
Q

Name 3 causes of dactylitis (inflammation of a digit)

A
  • Spondyloarthritis: e.g. psoriatic and reactive arthritis
  • Sickle-cell disease
  • Other rare causes include tuberculosis, sarcoidosis and syphilis
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49
Q

A 56-year-old man undergoes a low anterior resection with legs in the Lloyd-Davies position. Post operatively he complains of foot drop.

What nerve has likely been injured?

A

Peroneal nerve

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50
Q

A 23-year-old man complains of severe groin pain several weeks after a difficult inguinal hernia repair.

What nerve has likely been injured?

A

Ilioinguinal nerve

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51
Q

A 72-year-old man develops a foot drop after a revision total hip replacement.

What nerve has likely been injured?

A

Sciatic nerve

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52
Q

What are the Ottawa Rules for ankle x-rays?

A

An ankle x-ray is required only if there is any pain in the malleolar zone and any one of the following findings:

  • Bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone
  • Bony tenderness at the medial malleolar zone
  • Inability to walk four weight-bearing steps
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53
Q

A woman with Crohn’s on azathioprine presents with a 3-day history of fever, lethargy, and coryzal symptoms. What is the most important investigation?

A

FBC - may cause myelosuppression

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54
Q

IVDU with infective endocarditis also has back pain. What is the diagnosis?

A

Discitis

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55
Q

6-year-old boy with a limp. His parents report that this has been getting steadily worse over the past few weeks. He complains of pain in the right groin/hip region. An x-ray shows widening of the right hip joint space with flattening of the femoral head.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Perthes disease

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56
Q

A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his mother. For the past day he has felt generally unwell with a headache and nausea. This morning he complained of pain in his right hip and now just able to walk with a limp. On examination flexion, extension and rotation of the hip is painful and limited. Examination of the ears, throat and chest is normal. His temperature is 38.2ºC.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Septic arthritis

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57
Q

4-year-old girl with a three month history of a limp. Her parents report that she has ‘not been right’ for a few weeks now. She typically complains of pain in her left hip and right knee in the morning which gets better during the day.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

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58
Q

What is the management of an extracapsular hip fracture?

A

Intramedullary device

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59
Q

What are the typical features of antiphospolipid syndrome?

A

Arterial/venous thrombosis, miscarriage, livedo reticularis

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60
Q

What is the most useful rule out test for SLE?

A

ANA - over 99% of patients with SLE are ANA positive

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61
Q

What pre-op imaging should you perform on a patient with a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis

A

Anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine radiographs - to screen for atlantoaxial subluxation

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62
Q

What examinations make up the Simmonds’ triad (Achilles tendon rupture)?

A

Palpation, examining the angle of declination at rest and the calf squeeze test

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63
Q

What nerve is commonly injured following a posterior hip dislocation?

A

Sciatic nerve

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64
Q

What is the name given to the following fracture pattern:

  • Transverse fracture of the radius
  • 1 inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint
  • Dorsal displacement and angulation
A

Colles’ fracture

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65
Q

What is the name given to the following fracture pattern:

  • Volar angulation of distal radius fragment (Garden spade deformity)
  • Caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed
A

Smith’s fracture (reverse Colles’ fracture)

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66
Q

What is the name given to the following frature pattern:

Intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal

A

Bennett’s fracture

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67
Q

What is the name given to the following fracture pattern:

Dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture

A

Monteggia’s fracture

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68
Q

What is the name given to the following fracture pattern:

Radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint

A

Galeazzi fracture

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69
Q

Describe the clinical presentation of osteochondritis dissecans

A

Knee pain after exercise, locking and ‘clunking’

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70
Q

What is the next stage in management for a rib fracture not controlled by normal analgesia?

A

Nerve blocks

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71
Q

What are the motor functions of the musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C7)?

A

Elbow flexion (supplies biceps brachii) and supination

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72
Q

What is the sensory function of the musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C7)?

A

Sensation to the lateral part of the forearm

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73
Q

What is the typical mechanism of injury of the musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C7)?

A

Isolated injury rare - usually injured as part of brachial plexus injury

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74
Q

What is the motor function of the axillary nerve (C5,C6)?

A

Shoulder abduction (deltoid muscle)

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75
Q

What is the sensory function of the axillary nerve (C5,C6)?

A

Sensation to the inferior region of the deltoid muscle

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76
Q

What is the typical mechanism of injury of the axillary nerve?

A
  • Humeral neck fracture/dislocation
  • Results in flattened deltoid
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77
Q

What is the motor function of the radial nerve (C5-C8)?

A

Extension (forearm, wrist, fingers, thumb)

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78
Q

What is the sensory function of the radial nerve (C5-C8)?

A

Sensation to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals

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79
Q

What is the typical mechanism of injury to the radial nerve (C5-C8)?

A
  • Humeral midshaft fracture
  • Palsy results in wrist drop
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80
Q

What is the motor function of the median nerve (C6, C8, T1)?

A

LOAF muscles

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81
Q

What is the sensory function of the median nerve (C6, C8, T1)?

A

Sensation to the palmar aspect of lateral 3½ fingers

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82
Q

What is the typical mechanism of injury of the median nerve (C6, C8, T1)?

A

Wrist lesion → carpal tunnel syndrome

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83
Q

What are the motor functions of the ulnar nerve (C8, T1)?

A
  • Intrinsic hand muscles except LOAF
  • Wrist flexion
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84
Q

What is the sensory function of the ulnar nerve (C8, T1)?

A

Medial 1½ fingers

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85
Q

What is the usual mechanism of injury of the ulnar nerve (C8, T1)?

A
  • Medial epicondyle fracture
  • Damage may result in a ‘claw hand’
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86
Q

What is the motor function of the long thoracic nerve (C5-C7)?

A

Serratus anterior

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87
Q

What is the usual mechanism of injury to the long thoracic nerve (C5-C7)?

A
  • Often during sport e.g. following a blow to the ribs
  • Also possible complication of mastectomy
  • Damage results in a winged scapula
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88
Q

What features would point to a diagnosis of spinal stenosis over peripheral arterial disease?

A
  • Pain improving on sitting down or crouches down
  • Weakness of the leg
  • Lack of smoking history
  • Lack of cardiovascular history
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89
Q

Describe the clinical features of a dorsal column lesion

A
  • Loss vibration and proprioception
  • Tabes dorsalis, SACD
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90
Q

Describe the clinical features of a spinothalamic tract lesion

A

Loss of pain, sensation and temperature

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91
Q

Describe the clinical features of a central cord lesion

A

Flaccid paralysis of the upper limbs

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92
Q

Describe the clinical features of spinal cord infarction

A

Dorsal column signs (loss of proprioception and fine discrimination

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93
Q

Describe the clinical features of cord compression

A
  • UMN signs
  • Malignancy
  • Haematoma
  • Fracture
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94
Q

Describe the clinical features of Brown-sequard syndrome

A
  • Hemisection of the spinal cord
  • Ipsilateral paralysis
  • Ipsilateral loss of proprioception and fine discrimination
  • Contralateral loss of pain and temperature
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95
Q

Describe the clinical findings of a clubfoot

A

Inverted + plantar flexed foot which is not passively correctable

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96
Q

Describe the clinical features of chondromalacia patellae

A
  • Teenage girls, following an injury to knee e.g. dislocation patella
  • Typical history of pain on going downstairs or at rest
  • Tenderness, quadriceps wasting
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97
Q

What is the management of subluxation of the radial head?

A

Passive supination of the elbow joint whilst flexed to 90 degrees

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98
Q

What lab values are assocaited with osteoporosis?

A

All values normal

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99
Q

What lab values are associated with osteomalacia?

A
  • Calcium: decreased
  • Phosphate: decreased
  • ALP: increased
  • PTH: increased
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100
Q

What values are associated with primary hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • Calcium: increased
  • Phosphate: decreased
  • ALP: increased
  • PTH: increased
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1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What lab values are associated with chronic kidney disease?

A
  • Calcium: decreased
  • Phosphate: increased
  • ALP: increased
  • PTH: increased
How well did you know this?
1
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2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What lab values are associated with Paget’s disease?

A
  • Calcium: normal
  • Phosphate: normal
  • ALP: increased
  • PTH: normal
103
Q

What lab values are associated with osteopetrosis?

A

All lab values normal

104
Q

What is the next stage in management of a patient with ankylosing spondylitis who has not responded to NSAIDs?

A

TNF-alpha blockers such as infliximab and etanercept

105
Q

What clinical findings suggest metastatic tumour to bone?

A
  • Increasing pain at rest
  • Increased serum calcium and alkaline phosphatase
106
Q

What investigation is needed in discitis due to Staphylococcus?

A

Echo - look for endocarditis

107
Q

What are the red flags for back pain?

A
  • Age < 20 years or > 50 years
  • History of previous malignancy
  • Night pain
  • History of trauma
  • Systemically unwell e.g. weight loss, fever
108
Q

What advice should be given to patients taking oral bisphonates?

A

Oral bisphosphonates should be swallowed with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast (or another oral medication); the patient should stand or sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking

109
Q

What antibodies are associated with SLE?

A
  • ANA
  • Anti-dsDNA
  • Anti-Smith
110
Q

Describe the clinical features of diffuse systemic sclerosis

A
  • Scleroderma affects trunk and proximal limbs predominately
  • Tthe most common cause of death is now respiratory involvement, which is seen in around 80%: interstitial lung disease (ILD) and pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH)
111
Q

Describe the clinical features of limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

A
  • Raynaud’s may be the first sign
    scleroderma affects face and distal limbs predominately
  • A subtype of limited systemic sclerosis is CREST syndrome: Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia
112
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis n a child with an asymptomatic, fluctuant swelling behind the knee?

A

Baker’s cyst

113
Q

List some of the causes of carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Pregnancy
  • Oedema e.g. heart failure
  • Lunate fracture
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
114
Q

What are the typical findings on joint aspirate seen in septic arthritis?

A
  • High WBC count, predominantly PMNs
  • Appearance is typically yellow and cloudy with absence of crystals
115
Q

What is the most appropriate management for an acute flare of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Intramuscular steroids such as methylprednisolone (+ referral to rheumatology)

116
Q

A 34-year-old man presents with pain after falling onto his backward stretching right hand. On examination the right shoulder contour is flattened and a small bulge is felt below the right clavicle. You also note that there is a small patch of anaesthesia over the distal attachment of the deltoid muscle.

What injury would explain all the examination findings?

A

Anterior shoulder dislocation → damage to the axillary nerve

117
Q

Marfan’s syndrome is characterised by a mutation in which protein?

A

Fibrillin-1

118
Q

What does a T score of -2.5 mean?

A

Bone density 2.5 standard deviations below that of an average healthy young adult

Also the cut off for osteoporosis

119
Q

What HLA is associated with psoriatic arthritis?

A

HLA B27

120
Q

What is the most common reason total hip replacements need to be revised?

A

Aseptic loosening

121
Q

This 60-year-old woman who is being treated for heartburn comes for review. She has developed some spots on her lips. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

CREST syndrome

122
Q

What is the management of Achilles tendonitis?

A

Rest, NSAIDs, and physio if symptoms persist beyond 7 days

123
Q

Describe the clinical features of iliotibial band syndrome

A
  • Common cause of lateral knee pain in runners
  • Presents with tenderness 2-3cm above the lateral joint line
124
Q

Describe the clinical features of facet joint pain

A
  • May be acute or chronic
  • Pain worse in the morning and on standing
  • On examination there may be pain over the facets
  • The pain is typically worse on extension of the back
125
Q

Describe the x-ray findings seen in AS

A
  • Sacroiliitis
  • Squaring of lumbar vertebrae (bamboo spine)
  • Syndesmophytes
126
Q

What is Phalen’s test?

A
  • Phalen’s test is used to asses carpal tunnel syndrome
  • The patient’s wrist is held in maximum flexion (reverse prayer sign) for 30-60 second
  • The test is positive if there is numbness in the median nerve distribution
127
Q

What are the extra-articular features of AS?

A
  • Apical fibrosis
  • Anterior uveitis
  • Aortic regurgitation
  • Achilles tendonitis
  • AV node block
  • Amyloidosis
128
Q

True/false: back pain in AS usually improves with exercise

A

True

129
Q

What nerve is commonly injured in a Colles’ fracture?

A

Median nerve - may result in weakness or loss of thumb or index finger flexion

130
Q

What is the initial imaging modality of choice for suspected Achilles tendon rupture?

A

Ultrasound

131
Q

Describe the management of compartment syndrome

A

Definitive management involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies

Pre-op:
* Keep limb level with the body

  • Intravenous fluids
  • Pain control
132
Q

What is the most common site of metatarsal stress fractures?

A

2nd metatarsal shaft

133
Q

What is the first line drug for lower back pain?

A

NSAID

134
Q

Describe the management of a prolapsed disc

A

Analgesia and physiotherapy (MRI unlikely to change management)

135
Q

What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Severe osteoarthritis

136
Q

What antibody may be positive in UC, but will likely be negative in Crohn’s?

A

pANCA

137
Q

What drugs are associated with drug-induced lupus?

A
  • Procainamide
  • Hydralazine
  • Isoniazid
  • Minocycline
  • Phenytoin
138
Q

What imaging should be performed in all patients with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

X-rays of the hands and feet

139
Q

What investigation can best support a diagnosis of AS?

A

Pelvic X-ray - sacro-ilitis

140
Q

What treatment should be given to a patient aged over 75 who have sustained a fragility fracture?

A

Started immediately on oral bisphonate (no need for DEXA scan)

141
Q

Describe the clinical features of adhesive capsulitis

A

Impairment of external rotation (on both active and passive movement)

142
Q

Patient with rheumatoid arthritis has previously had a reaction to co-trimoxazole. What drug should not be prescribed?

A

Sulfasalazine

143
Q

Patient with hot swollen joint. X-ray reveals calcification of the fibrocartilage. What is the diagnosis?

A

Pseudogout

144
Q

How do posterior hip dislocations present?

A

Shortened and internally rotated leg

145
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of interferon-alpha?

A

Flu-like symptoms

146
Q

Normal MOI for anterior shoulder dislocation?

A

FOOSH

147
Q

Normal MOI for posterior shoulder dislocation?

A

Seizures and electric shock

148
Q

Low serum calcium, low serum phosphate, raised ALP and raised PTH.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Osteomalacia

149
Q

A 75-year-old man presents with lower back pain that comes on when he walks. After taking a full history and completing a neurological and vascular examination which is normal a diagnosis of spinal stenosis is suspected. After prescribing analgesia, what is the most appropriate next step?

A

Refer for MRI

150
Q

What is the most specific test for SLE?

A

Anti-dsDNA

151
Q

What are the Ottowa ankle rules?

A

Bony tenderness over the malleoli zones OR an inability to walk four weight-bearing step

152
Q

A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic complaining of a recent onset of mouth and genital ulcers, alongside a reddening of her eyes. You suspect a diagnosis of Behcet’s syndrome.

What dermatological finding would most support your diagnosis?

A

Erythema nodosum

153
Q

A 13-year-old boy presents to his general practitioner with a 3-month history of a growing lump on the posterior aspect of his right arm, which has become extremely painful over the last two weeks. A shoulder radiograph is ordered, which identifies a lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right humerus with an ‘onion skin’ appearance.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

154
Q

‘Plantar spur’ and ‘pencil and cup’ deformity are associated with what condition?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

155
Q

Carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joint involvement is characteristic of what condition?

A

Hand osteoarthritis

156
Q

Treatment of patients with anti-phospholipid syndrome who haven’t had a thrombosis previously?

A

Low-dose aspirin

157
Q

What investigation is important to perform before starting biologics (e.g. adalimumab)?

A

CXR - TB

158
Q

How long after precipitating infection can reactive arthritis present?

A

Up to 4 weeks

159
Q

Name 4 causes of AVN of the hip

A
  • Long-term steroid use
  • Chemotherapy
  • Alcohol excess
  • Trauma
160
Q

What is the mode of inheritence of Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant

161
Q

A 14-year-old boy jumps off a 10 foot wall and lands on both feet. An x-ray shows a bimalleolar fracture of the right ankle.

What name is given to this fracture?

A

Pott’s

162
Q

A 73-year-old woman presents with pain in her wrist after falling on to an outstretched hand. On examination there is dorsal displacement and angulation.

An x-ray shows a transverse fracture of the radius around 2 cm proximal to the radio-carpal joint.

What is the name given to this fracture?

A

Colles’

163
Q

What examination findings are associated with lateral epicondylitis?

A

Pain worse on resisted wrist extension/suppination whilst elbow extended

164
Q

What is the most common cardiac manifestation of SLE?

A

Pericarditis

165
Q

A patient presents with numbness and tingling along the ulnar border of his wrist and forearm. On examination you also note weak flexion of all the digits including the thumb.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

C8 radiculopathy

166
Q

What is the imaging modality of choice for osteomyelitis?

A

MRI

167
Q

A 75-year-old female was recently started on alendronate for treatment of osteoporosis following a fragility fracture. She returns to your clinic as she has suffered troubling upper gastrointestinal side effects. What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A

Change aldendronate to risedronate or etidronate

168
Q

What is the investigation of choice for psoas abscess?

A

CT abdomen

169
Q

What is the method of choice for patients with good pre-morbid status with an intracapsular NOF fracture?

A

Internal fixation

170
Q

Suspected hip fracture, x-rays negative. Next line imaging?

A

MRI

171
Q

What is iliotibial band syndrome?

A

Common cause of lateral knee pain in runners, presenting with tenderness 2-3cm above the lateral joint line

172
Q

A 50-year-old man is admitted after falling from scaffolding. He has an open fracture of his tibia with a 15 cm wound. He is neurovascularly intact. What is the best initial course of action?

A

IV antibiotics, photography, and application of saline soaked gauze with impermeable dressing

173
Q

How would posterior dislocation of a THR present?

A

‘Clunk’, leg shortening and internal rotation

174
Q

Ankle fracture, absent pulses. What do you do?

A

Immediately reduce fracture

175
Q

When should allopurinol prophylaxis be offered to patients with gout?

A

After first attack

176
Q

Name 2 conditions which are risk factors for pseudogout

A

Hyperparathyroidism

Haemachromatosis

177
Q

What DEXA scan T score is diagnostic of osteoporosis?

A

< - 2.5

178
Q

What antibodies are associated with drug-induced lupus?

A

Anti-histone

179
Q

What is Leriche syndrome?

A

Atherosclerotic occlusive disease involving the abdominal aorta and/or both of the iliac arteries

  • Claudication of the buttocks and thighs
  • Atrophy of the musculature of the legs
  • Impotence (due to paralysis of the L1 nerve)
180
Q

What is the most specific marker for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Anti-CCP

181
Q

What is the management of a grade 1-2 AC joint injury?

A

Conservative with resting and a sling

182
Q

Systemic vasculitic symptoms in the presence of hepatitis B signs and in the absence of pulmonary symptoms/signs?

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

183
Q

What fractures are most assocaited with compartment syndrome?

A

Supracondylar and tibial shaft fractures

184
Q

What autoantibodies are associated with limited systemic sclerosis?

A

Anti-centromere

185
Q

What drug can cause pancytopenia if prescribed with methotrexate?

A

Co-trimoxazole

186
Q

Can hydroxychloroquine be used during pregnancy?

A

Yes

187
Q

What part of the bone is most commonly affected in osteomyelitis in children?

A

Metaphysis

188
Q

How is osteomalacia managed?

A

Vitamin D supplementation

189
Q

After a ____ ____ period for oral bisphosphonates (three years for IV zoledronate), treatment should be re-assessed for ongoing treatment, with an updated FRAX score and DEXA scan.

A

Five year

190
Q

List the poor prognostic features of rheumatoid arthritis

A
  • Rheumatoid factor positive
  • Anti-CCP antibodies
  • Poor functional status at presentation
  • X-ray: early erosions (e.g. after < 2 years)
  • Extra articular features e.g. nodules
  • HLA DR4
  • Insidious onset
191
Q

New diagnosis of RA. What is the most appropriate initial therapy?

A

Methotrexate plus short oral course of prednisolone

192
Q

How would you manage acute flares of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

IM steroids

193
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is SLE?

A

Type III

194
Q

What is the first-line investigation for a suspected osteoporotic vertebral fracture?

A

X-ray spine

195
Q

Swelling at the DIP joints (Heberden’s nodes) is a feature of?

A

Osteoarthritis

196
Q

What blood test must be carried out before starting azathioprine?

A

Check thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency (TPMT)

197
Q

Fracture through the physis only (x-ray often normal)

This is Salter-Harris type?

A

I

198
Q

Fracture through the physis and metaphysis

This is Salter-Harris type?

A

2

199
Q

Fracture through the physis and epiphysis to include the joint

This is Salter-Harris type?

A

III

200
Q

Fracture involving the physis, metaphysis and epiphysis

This is Salter-Harris type?

A

IV

201
Q

Crush injury involving the physis (x-ray may resemble type I, and appear normal)

This is Salter-Harris type?

A

V

202
Q

What is the diagnosis?

A

Green stick fracture

A green-stick fracture involves an incomplete fracture usually at the shaft of a long bone (as seen here in the radius and ulna). It is caused by a bending-type mechanism of injury

203
Q

Patient diagnosed with dermatomyositis. What investigation will form part of the next steps in management?

A

CT chest/abdo/pevis - dermatomyositis is commonly a paraneoplastic phenomenon

204
Q

What should be prescribed when starting allopurinol?

A

NSAID or colchicine ‘cover’

205
Q

What is the most useful rule out test for SLE?

A

ANA

206
Q

What investigation is indicated in a patient with suspected cauda equina syndrome?

A

Urgent MRI spine

207
Q

Name 3 causes of bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • Pregnancy
  • Obesity
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
208
Q

What drug should be used to treat acute gout if NSAIDs are contraindicated for example a peptic ulcer?

A

Colchicine

209
Q

What is the usual presentation of a meniscal tear?

A
  • Twisting injury
  • Pain worse on straightenig knee
  • Knee may ‘give way’
  • Knee locking
  • Tenderness along joint line
210
Q

What is the most appropriate imaging modality to diagnose meniscal tears?

A

MRI

211
Q

A 28-year-old man falls onto an outstretched hand. On examination there is tenderness of the anatomical snuffbox. However, forearm and hand x-rays are normal.

Next step in management?

A

Discharge home with futura splint and fracture clinic appointment

212
Q

Name one condition associated with adhesive capsulitis

A

Diabetes mellitus

213
Q

What injury is seen?

A

Clavicular fracture and Salter-Harris type I humeral fracture

214
Q

Inflammatory arthritis involving DIP swelling and dactylitis points to a diagnosis of?

A

Psoriatic arthritis

215
Q

What are the features of Felty’s syndrome?

A

RA, splenomegaly and low white cell count

216
Q

A 52-year-old man complains of numbness and pain over the lateral skin of the left thigh

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Meralgia paraesthetica

217
Q

A 43-year-old woman complains of right hip pain. During the examination the patient lies on her left side and the right hip is extended with a straight leg. Flexing the knee then recreates the pain

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Referred lumbar spine pain

This is a positive femoral nerve stretch test

218
Q

First line for lower back pain?

A

NSAIDs

219
Q

What x-ray findings are associated with ank spon?

A

Subchondral erosions, sclerosis
and squaring of lumbar vertebrae

220
Q

Suspected GCA, biopsy negative. Next step in management?

A

Continue prednisolone - skip lesions

221
Q

How does trochanteric bursitis present?

A

Isolated lateral hip/thigh pain with tenderness over the greater trochanter

222
Q

Schober’s test <__cm is suggestive of ankylosing spondylitis

A

5

223
Q

Fundoscopy findings associated with anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy?

A

Swollen pale disc and blurred margins

224
Q

What is the most common organism found in young adults with septic arthritis?

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

225
Q

Raised serum calcium, low serum phosphate, raised ALP and raised PTH

What is the diagnosis?

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

226
Q

What should be corrected before bisphonates?

A

Hypocalcemia/vitamin D deficiency

227
Q

What feature would indicate primary Raynaud’s rather than secondary?

A

Age of onset under 40 years

228
Q

Osteoporosis in a man, what should be checked?

A

Testosterone

229
Q

What are the adverse effects of methotrexate?

A
  • Mucositis
  • Myolosuppression
  • Pneumonitis
  • Pulmonary/liver fibrosis
230
Q

What are the blood results associated with polymyalgia rheumatica?

A

Raised ESR and CRP
Normal CK

231
Q

What is the most commonly affected joint in septic arthritis in adults?

A

Knee

232
Q

What drug should not be prescribed with allopurinol?

A

Azathioprine - severe interaction causing bone marrow suppression

233
Q

Patients with suspected visual loss secondary to temporal arteritis are usually given what?

A

IV methylprednisolone initially

234
Q

Low serum calcium, raised serum phosphate, raised ALP and raised PTH

What is the diagnosis?

A

Chronic kidney disease leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism

235
Q

Signs of systemic sepsis with changing lower limb neurology

What is the diagnosis?

A

Possible epidural abscess

236
Q

Describe the presentation of discitis

A
  • Back pain
  • Pyrexia, rigors, sepsis
  • Neurological features if abscess develops
  • Associated with PWIDs
237
Q

An asymmetrical presentation suggests ____ arthritis rather than rheumatoid

A

Psoriatic

238
Q

Carpal tunnel syndrome causes action potential prolongation in?

A

Both motor and sensory neurons

239
Q

Drug treatment for moderate/severe psoriatic arthropathy?

A

Methotrexate

240
Q

Management of discoid lupus erythematous

A
  1. Topical steroids
  2. Oral hydroxychloroquine
241
Q

Bone pain, tenderness and proximal myopathy (→ waddling gait)

What is the diagnosis?

A

Osteomalacia

242
Q

List the causes of Dupuytren’s contracture

A
  • Idiopathic (family history)
  • Manual labour
  • Phenytoin treatment
  • Alcoholic liver disease
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Trauma to the hand
243
Q

How long should symptoms of chronic fatigue syndome be present before diagnosis?

A

3 months

244
Q

What pattern of sensory loss is seen in L3 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss to anterior thigh

245
Q

What pattern of motor deficit is seen in L3 nerve root compression?

A

Weak hip flexion and abduction

Weak knee extension

246
Q

Reduced knee reflex and positive femoral stretch tests indicates a lesion at which level?

A

L3 or L4

247
Q

What pattern of sensory loss is seen in L4 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss to anterior aspect of knee and medial malleolus

248
Q

What pattern of motor deficit is seen in L4 nerve root compression?

A

Weak knee extension and hip adduction

249
Q

What pattern of sensory loss is seen in L5 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss over dorsum of foot

250
Q

What pattern of motor deficit is seen in L5 nerve root compression?

A

Weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion

Weakness of hip abduction and foot drop

251
Q

Reflexes intact and positive sciatic nerve stretch tests indicates a lesion at which level?

A

L5

252
Q

What pattern of sensory loss is seen in S1 nerve root compression?

A

Sensory loss posterolateral aspect of leg and lateral aspect of foot

253
Q

What pattern of motor deficit is seen in S1 nerve root compression?

A

Weakness in plantarflexion of foot

254
Q

Reduced knee reflex and positive sciatic nerve stretch tests indicates a lesion at which level?

A

S1

MBChB Finals (18 decks)

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