Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MBChB Finals > Cardiovascular > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Flashcards

1
Q

When would you use rhythm control in the management of AF?

A

If there is coexistent heart failure, first onset AF or an obvious reversible cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the diagnosis?

A

Aortic dissection (type A) - an intraluminal tear has formed a ‘flap’ that can be clearly seen in the ascending aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How do thiazide diuretics cause hypokalaemia?

A

Thiazide diuretics work by inhibiting sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl symporter

Delivery of sodium to the distal part of the distal convoluted tubule is increased → increased sodium reabsorption in exchange for potassium and hydrogen ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What ECG changes are seen in hypokalaemia?

A
  • Prominent U waves
  • Small or absent T waves (occasionally inversion)
  • Prolonged PR
  • ST depression
  • Long QT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How does Conn’s syndrome/bilateral adrenal hyperplasia cause hypokalaemia?

A

Due to increased levels of aldosterone, there is more sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and an increase in the excretion of potassium (hence hypokalemia)

This also leads to volume expansion, and increased blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe the initial drug management for all patients with ACS

A
  • Aspirin 300mg
  • Oxygen if sats < 94%
  • Morphine only if patient in severe pain
  • Nitrates (caution if hypotensive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How would you manage an NSTEMI patient who is clinically unstable (e.g. hypotensive)?

A
  • Unfractionated heparin
  • Immediate coronary angiography with follow-on PCI if necessary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drug would you give to an NSTEMI patient who is not at a high risk of bleeding and who is not having angiography immediately?

A

Fondaparinux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How would you manage an NSTEMI patient with a GRACE score > 3%?

A

Coronary angiography with follow-on PCI if necessary within 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How would you convervatively manage a patient with an NSTEMI/unstable angina?

A

Further antiplatelet (‘dual antiplatelet therapy’, i.e. aspirin + another drug)

  • If the patient is not at a high risk of bleeding: ticagrelor
  • If the patient is at a high risk of bleeding: clopidogrel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What diagnosis does the ECG suggest?

A

MI - massive ST elevation with associated hyperacute T waves in the anterior leads suggestive of an ongoing myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long should a patient with an ‘unprovoked’ DVT be on anticoagulation?

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What CHA2DS2-VASC score indicates a need for anticoagulation?

A

Men: CHA2DS2-VASc >= 1
Women CHA2DS2-VASc >= 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the components of the CHA2DS2-VASc score?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the surgical invention of choice for mitral stenosis?

A

Percutaneous mitral commissurotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What clinical findings are associated with mitral stenosis?

A
  • Rumbling mid-late diastolic murmur, best heard in expiration
  • Loud S1
  • Opening snap after S2
  • Low volume pulse
  • Malar flush
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does mitral stenosis present?

A
  • Hx of rheumatic fever
  • Dyspnoea
  • Orthopnoea
  • Haemoptysis
  • AF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A 58-year-old female on the respiratory ward was admitted with a pulmonary embolism one week ago and was started on warfarin at the time of diagnosis. She was covered with low molecular weight heparin until the INR was > 2 for 24 hours. For the past week she has been taking 4mg of warfarin and her INR four days ago was 2.2. Her INR has been checked today and is 1.3.

What is the most appropriate action to take?

A

Increase dose of warfarin to 6mg and start LMWH

As her INR is < 2 she needs immediate anti-coagulation with rapid acting low molecular weight heparin. Her warfarin dose should also be increased to 6mg. Her INR should be carefully monitored and the LMWH discontinued when has adequate anti-coagulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A 76-year-old man is seen by his GP. He recently had an ambulatory blood pressure monitor which showed frequent readings above 160/95 mmHg. The man has a background of well controlled heart failure (New York Heart Association stage 2) and chronic kidney disease. He takes ramipril, bisoprolol and atorvastatin; he has been established on this regime for one year and doses have been optimised.

What would be the most appropriate next step?

A

Add a calcium channel blocker (e.g. amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic e.g. indapamide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the first line investigation for PE?

A

CTPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When would you DC cardiovert a patient wtih a tachyarrhythmia?

A

Systolic BP < 90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

PE - shows a large saddle embolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the investigation of choice in a patient with suspected PE who has renal impairment?

A

V/Q scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How many sets of blood cultures are required to make a diagnosis of infective endocarditis?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What non-cardiac conditions may cause a rise in troponin?

A

A troponin rise may occur in conditions where there is myocardial ischaemia from a supply-demand-mismatch secondary to another primary condition (e.g. sepsis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the ECG show?

A

Trifascicular block

RBBB +left anterior or posterior hemiblock + 1st-degree heart block = trifasicular block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why should amiodarone be given into central veins?

A

Common cause of thrombophlebitis - reduces the risk of injection site reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What drug would you give in the following scenario: poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker and a thiazide diuretic. K+ < 4.5mmol/l

A

Spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What effect will a P450 inducer have on INR in a patient taking warfarin?

A

INR will decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the main examples of P450 inducers?

A
  • Antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine
  • Barbiturates: phenobarbitone
  • Rifampicin
  • St John’s Wort
  • Chronic alcohol intake
  • Griseofulvin
  • Smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What effect will a P450 inhibitor have on INR in a patient taking warfarin?

A

INR will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the main examples of P450 inhibitors?

A
  • Antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, clarithromycine/erythromycin
  • Isoniazid
  • Cimetidine, omeprazole
  • Amiodarone
  • Allopurinol
  • Imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
  • SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline
  • Ritonavir
  • Sodium valproate
  • Acute alcohol intake
  • Quinupristin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What clinical signs are associated with tricuspid regurgitation?

A
  • Pan-systolic murmur
  • Prominent/giant V waves in JVP
  • Pulsatile hepatomegaly
  • Left parasternal heave
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Secondary to pulmonsy hypertension as a result of chronic lung disease such as COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the common side effects of beta blockers?

A
  • Bronchospasm
  • Cold peripheries
  • Fatigue
  • Sleep disturbances, including nightmares
  • Erectile dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe the features of NYHA class I heart failure

A
  • No symptoms
  • No limitation: ordinary physical exercise does not cause undue fatigue, dyspnoea or palpitations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the features of NYHA class II heart failure

A
  • Mild symptoms
  • Slight limitation of physical activity: comfortable at rest but ordinary activity results in fatigue, palpitations or dyspnoea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the features of NYHA class III heart failure

A
  • Moderate symptoms

Marked limitation of physical activity: comfortable at rest but less than ordinary activity results in symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the features of NYHA class IV heart failure

A

Severe symptoms

Unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort: symptoms of heart failure are present even at rest with increased discomfort with any physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Why should verapamil and beta-blockers should never be taken concurrently?

A

Possibility of heart block and fatal arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How would you manage a patient with stable CVD and AF?

A

Stop antiplatelet and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What murmur is associated with pulmonary stenosis?

A

Ejection systolic murmur typically heard best in the second left intercostal space and may radiate towards the left shoulder

Louder on inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What clinical findings are associated with aortic regurgitation?

A
  • Early diastolic murmur
  • Collapsing pulse
  • Wide pulse pressure
  • Quincke’s sign (nailbed pulsation)
  • De Musset’s sign (head bobbing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A 25-year-old female is found to have a left hemiparesis following a deep vein thrombosis. An ECG shows RBBB with right axis deviation. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

A

Ostium secundum atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What cardiomyopathy is associated with Wolff-Parkinson White?

A

HOCM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A cardiologist has asked you to start oral amiodarone for a patient who has previously been admitted with ventricular tachycardia. What tests is it important to ensure the patient has had prior to starting treatment?

A

TFT + LFT + U&E + CXR

A baseline chest x-ray is required due to the risk of pulmonary fibrosis / pneumonitis in patients treated with amiodarone. Urea and electrolytes are suggested by the BNF to detect hypokalaemia which may increase the risk of arrhythmias developing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most specific ECG finding in acute pericarditis?

A

PR depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What drug is the first line treatment in a non-diabetic patient of black African or African-Caribbean origin with hypertension?

A

Calcium channel blocker e.g. nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the most common cause of death following an MI?

A

VF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is Dressler’s syndrome

A
  • Tends to occur around 2-6 weeks following a MI
  • The underlying pathophysiology is thought to be an autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed as the myocardium recovers
  • It is characterised by a combination of fever, pleuritic pain, pericardial effusion and a raised ESR
  • It is treated with NSAIDs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is a left ventricular aneurysm?

A
  • Following an MI, tschaemic damage sustained may weaken the myocardium resulting in aneurysm formation
  • This is typically associated with persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure (in exam q - persistent ST elevation following recent MI, no chest pain)
  • Thrombus may form within the aneurysm increasing the risk of stroke; patients are therefore anticoagulated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is left ventricular free wall rupture?

A
  • Complication seen in around 3% of MIs and occurs around 1-2 weeks afterwards
  • Patients present with acute heart failure secondary to cardiac tamponade (raised JVP, pulsus paradoxus, diminished heart sounds)
  • Urgent pericardiocentesis and thoracotomy are required
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How might an MI cause acute mitral regurgitation? How would you treat it?

A

More common with infero-posterior infarction and may be due to ischaemia or rupture of the papillary muscle

Acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema may occur

An early-to-mid systolic murmur is typically heard

Patients are treated with vasodilator therapy but often require emergency surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A 61-year-old man with peripheral arterial disease is prescribed simvastatin. What is the most appropriate blood test monitoring?

A
  • LFTs at baseline, 3 months and 12 months
  • A fasting lipid profile may also be checked during monitoring to assess response to treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is a bisferiens pulse?

A
  • Seen in mixed aortic valve disease
  • A bisferiens pulse is a specific type of arterial pulse waveform observed during palpation of the pulse at various pulse points in the body, typically the radial artery
  • This pulse is characterized by having two distinct systolic peaks separated by a mid-systolic dip
  • Caused by the complex interactions between the regurgitant and stenotic flows
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What adverse effects are associated with loop diuretics?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia
  • Hypochloraemic alkalosis
  • Ototoxicity
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Renal impairment (from dehydration + direct toxic effect)
  • Hyperglycaemia (less common than with thiazides)
  • Gout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When is nicorandil indicated in angina?

A

Second-line drug treatment for angina pectoris if first-line drugs (beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers) are contraindicated or not tolerated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the adverse effects of nicorandil?

A
  • Headache
  • Flushing
  • Skin, mucosal and eye ulceration - GI ulcers including anal ulceration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the definition of stage 1 hypertension in clinic?

A

140/90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the risk factors for asystole in bradycardia (? needs transvenous pacing)?

A
  • Complete heart block with broad complex QRS
  • Recent asystole
  • Mobitz type II AV block
  • Ventricular pause > 3 seconds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

For a patient with symptomatic stable angina on a calcium channel blocker but with a contraindication to a beta-blocker, what is the next line treatment?

A

Long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil or ranolazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Management of high INR: major bleeding (e.g. variceal haemorrhage, intracranial haemorrhage)

A
  • Stop warfarin
  • Give intravenous vitamin K 5mg
  • Prothrombin complex concentrate - if not available then FFP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Management of high INR: INR > 8.0 with minor bleeding

A
  • Stop warfarin
  • Give intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg
  • Repeat dose of vitamin K if INR still too high after 24 hours
  • Restart warfarin when INR < 5.0
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Management of high INR: INR > 8.0 no bleeding

A
  • Stop warfarin
  • Give vitamin K 1-5mg by mouth, using the intravenous preparation orally
  • Repeat dose of vitamin K if INR still too high after 24 hours
  • Restart when INR < 5.0
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Management of high INR: INR 5.0-8.0 with minor bleeding

A
  • Stop warfarin
  • Give intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg
  • Restart when INR < 5.0
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Management of high INR: INR 5.0-8.0 with no bleeding

A
  • Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin
  • Reduce subsequent maintenance dose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the shown on the ECG?

A

Atrial flutter with variable block

Whilst ‘sawtooth’ waves are seen the rhythm is irregular suggesting a diagnosis of atrial flutter with variable block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A
  • Describes the reversal of a left-to-right shunt in a congenital heart defect due to pulmonary hypertension
  • This occurs when an uncorrected left-to-right leads to remodeling of the pulmonary microvasculature, eventually causing obstruction to pulmonary blood and pulmonary hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What ECG findings are associated with Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

Right ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A

Clincial sign associated with cardiac tamponade

Abnormally large drop in BP during inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What type of heart failure is associated with HCOM?

A

Diastolic dysfunction (heart failure with preserved ejection fraction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of HOCM?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What murmur is associated with atrial septal defect?

A

Ejection systolic murmur louder on inspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How long can a patient not drive for following MI?

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In which bronchus are inhaled foreign objects most likely to be found?

A

Right main bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the blood pressure target for a patient < 80 years with hypertension?

A

140/90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What ECG changes are associated with a posterior MI?

A
  • Horizontal ST depression
  • Tall, broad R waves
  • Upright T waves
  • Dominant R wave in V2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What cardiomyopathy are alcoholics at risk of?

A

Dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What echocardiogram findings are associated with dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Left ventricular ejection fraction < 55%, dilated left ventricle, no motion wall abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What electolyte disturbance can lead to long QT?

A

Hypokalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is long QT?

A
  • Occurs when the QT interval is >450ms
  • This can predispose an individual to developing Torsade de Pointes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How do you manage a patient with aortic stenosis?

A

AVR if symptomatic, otherwise cut-off is gradient of 40 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How long are ‘provoked’ PEs treated for?

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

When is new onset AF considered for electrical cardioversion?

A

If it presents within 48 hours of onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis in younger patients (<65 years)?

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis in older patients (> 65 years)?

A

Calcification of the aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the next line therapy for a hypertensive patient < 55 years old who is on an ACE-i and is intolerant to calcium channel blockers?

A

Thiazide-like diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the best site for insertion for primary PCI?

A

Radial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

If a patient goes into witnessed cardiac arrest with a shockable rhythm while on a monitor, how does this change your ALS management?

A

Give up to three successive shocks before CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Describe anticoagulation when considering cardioversion for AF

A

If a patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours then anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion

An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How should adenosine be given in SVT?

A

As a rapid IV bolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the doses of atorvostatin for primary and secondary prevention of CVD?

A

Atorvastatin 20mg for primary prevention, 80mg for secondary prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the main ECG abnormality seen with hypercalcaemia?

A

Shortening of the QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When should beta blockers be stopped in acute heart failure?

A

If the patient has heart rate < 50/min, second or third degree AV block, or shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What drug should be considered as second-line therapy in patients with HFrEF in addition to optimised standard care?

A

SGLT-2 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What drug is used to anticoagulate patients with mechanical heart valves?

A

Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

If fibrinolysis is given for an ACS, when should an ECG be repeated?

A

After 60-90 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the recommended dose of adrenaline to give during advanced ALS?

A

1mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the first line treatment for a hypertensive diabetic?

A

ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are first-line regardless of age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the clinical signs of right-sided heart failure?

A

Signs of right-sided heart failure are raised JVP, ankle oedema and hepatomegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A 64-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease and poor left ventricular function presents with a broad complex tachycardia of 140 bpm. On examination blood pressure is 110/74 mmHg. Fusion and capture beats are seen on the 12 lead ECG. What is the first line drug management?

A

Amiodarone

Preferred due to poor left ventricular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the initial management of acute pulmonary oedema?

A

Sit up, loop diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What drug should be given to patients with bradycardia and signs of shock?

A

500 micrograms of atropine (repeated up to max 3mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

State the area of myocardium and coronary artery affected:

ST elevation in II, III and aVF

A

Inferior

RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

State the area of myocardium and coronary artery affected:

ST elevation in V1-V2

A

Septal
Proximal LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

State the area of myocardium and coronary artery affected:

ST elevation in V3-V4

A

Anterior
LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

State the area of myocardium and coronary artery affected:

ST elevation in V5-V6

A

Apex
Distal LAD/LCx/RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

State the area of myocardium and coronary artery affected:

ST elevation in I, aVL

A

Lateral
LCx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

State the area of myocardium and coronary artery affected:

ST elevation in V7-V9 (ST depression V1-V3)

A

Posterolateral
RCA/LCx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the major Duke criteria for infective endocarditis?

A

Positive blood cultures or evidence of endocardial involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What criteria need to be fulfilled in order to confirm positive blood cultures according to the Dukes criteria?

A
  • Two positive blood cultures showing typical organisms consistent with infective endocarditis, such as Streptococcus viridans and the HACEK group, or
  • Persistent bacteraemia from two blood cultures taken > 12 hours apart or three or more positive blood cultures where the pathogen is less specific such as Staph aureus and Staph epidermidis
  • Positive serology for Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella species or Chlamydia psittaci
  • Positive molecular assays for specific gene targets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What criteria need to be fulfilled in order to confirm evidence of endocardial involvement according to the Dukes criteria?

A
  • Positive echocardiogram (oscillating structures, abscess formation, new valvular regurgitation or dehiscence of prosthetic valves) or
  • New valvular regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the minor Duke criteria for infective endocarditis?

A
  • Predisposing heart condition or intravenous drug use
  • Microbiological evidence does not meet major criteria
  • Fever > 38ºC
  • Vascular phenomena: major emboli, splenomegaly, clubbing, splinter haemorrhages, Janeway lesions, petechiae or purpura
  • Immunological phenomena: glomerulonephritis, Osler’s nodes, Roth spots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How many of the Duke criteria need to be positive to diagnose infective endocarditis?

A

2 major criteria, or
1 major and 3 minor criteria, or
5 minor criteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What forms of malignancy can predispose to pericarditis?

A

Lung cancer, breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the investigation of choice for a patient with suspected PE who has renal impairment?

A

V/Q scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

A 67-year-old female with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents with a 3 day history of burning pain in the right lower chest wall. Clinical examination is unremarkable

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Shingles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Name one drug contraindicated in ventricular tachcardia?

A

Verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the mechanism of action of alteplase?

A

Activates plasminogen to form plasmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is shown on the ECG?

A

Right bundle branch block:

  • Broad QRS > 120 ms
  • rSR’ pattern in V1-3 (‘M’ shaped QRS complex)
  • wide, slurred S wave in the lateral leads (aVL, V5-6)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

How do you calculate a CHA2DS2-VASc score?

A

One point would be allocated for each of the following:

  • Congestive heart failure
  • Hypertension (controlled or uncontrolled)
  • Age of 65-74 years
  • Diabetes
  • Vascular disease
  • Female sex

Two points would be awarded in two instances:

  • An age of 75 years or over
  • Prior stroke or thromboembolism.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are the adverse effects of loop diuretics?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia
  • Hypochloraemic alkalosis
  • Ototoxicity
  • Hypocalcaemia
  • Renal impairment (from dehydration + direct toxic effect)
  • Hyperglycaemia (less common than with thiazides)
  • Gout
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What complication of HCOM is associated with sudden death in young athletes?

A

Ventricular arrhythmia

111
Q

How does coarctation of the aorta usually present?

A
  • Acute circulatory collapse at 2 days of age (when duct closes)
  • Heart failure & absent femoral pulses
  • Systolic murmur heard under the left clavicle and over the back
112
Q

List the side effects of adenosine

A
  • Chest pain
  • Flushing, hypotension
  • Bronchospasm (avoid in asthmatics)
  • Abdominal discomfort
  • ‘Impending sense of doom’
113
Q

What is the first-line treatment for regular broad complex tachycardias without adverse features?

A

IV amiodarone

114
Q

What is the investigation of choice for suspected aortic dissection?

A
  • CT angio (depending on stability of the patient)
  • TOE is more suitable for patients with suspected aortic dissection who are unstable and therefore too risky to take to the CT scanner
115
Q

What antiplatelets should be given before PCI?

A
  • If the patient is not taking an oral anticoagulant: aspirin + prasugrel
  • If taking an oral anticoagulant: aspirin + clopidogrel
116
Q

What are the adverse effects of ACEi?

A
  • Cough
  • Angioedema
  • Hyperkalaemia
  • First dose hypotension (more common in patients taking diuretics)
117
Q

Which drug is most appropriate for long-term anticoagulation after mechanical heart valve replacement?

A

Warfarin

118
Q

If angina is not controlled with a beta-blocker, what drug should be added?

A

Longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker e.g. amlodipine, nifedipine

119
Q

Where is the site of action of loop diuretics?

A

Inhibits the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle

120
Q

What dose of atorvastatin is given for primary prevention?

A

20mg

121
Q

What dose of atorvastatin is given for secondary prevention?

A

80mg

122
Q

What rheumatological condition can cause aortic regurgitation?

A

Anklosing spondylitis

123
Q

List 4 potential causes of TdP

A

Hypocalcaemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesaemia, hypothermia

124
Q

What is pulsus paradoxus?

A

Sign of cardiac tamponade

Abnormally large drop in blood pressure during inspiration, recognisable by the radial pulse disappearance during inspiration

125
Q

Patient presents with TIA. AF picked up on ECG. When to anticoagulate?

A

Apixaban (lifelong) immediately once imaging has excluded a haemorrhage

126
Q

What is the murmur associated with an atrial septal defect?

A

Ejection systolic murmur louder on inspiration

127
Q

Name the drug which has only been demonstrated to improve mortality in patients with NYHA class III or IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor

A

Spironolactone

128
Q

What drugs should be introduced first-line in patients with stable impaired left ventricular function?

A

ACE inhibitor + beta-blocker

129
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A

The reversal of a left-to-right shunt in a congenital heart defect due to pulmonary hypertension

This occurs when an uncorrected left-to-right leads to remodeling of the pulmonary microvasculature, eventually causing obstruction to pulmonary blood and pulmonary hypertension

130
Q

What is the initial management for a patient with bradycardia and signs of shock?

A

500micrograms of atropine (repeated up to max 3mg)

131
Q

What medication should be given before fibrinolysis?

A

Fondaparinux

132
Q

A 14-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department as he is unable to control his facial muscles and arm movements. For the last 5 weeks, following a throat infection, he has been experiencing ongoing fever, worsening shortness of breath and joint pains, mainly in his legs which have not been effectively managed

What is the most likely cause of the patient’s recent symptoms?

A

Sydenham’s chorea - late complication of rheumatic fever

133
Q

When is external pacing indicated in complete heart block following MI?

A

After an anterior MI - likely to cause prolonged/permanent arrhythmia

In inferior MI usually due to AV block and bradyarrhythmias are usually transient

134
Q

What foods should a patient taking warfarin avoid?

A

Foods high in vitamin K, such as sprouts, spinach, kale and broccoli

135
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. K+ > 4.5mmol/l

What drug do you add?

A

Alpha- or beta-blocker

136
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. K+ < 4.5mmol/l

What drug do you add?

A

Low-dose spironolactone

137
Q

How do you manage a type A aortic dissection?

A

Ascending aortia - contol BP (IV labetalol) + surgery

138
Q

How do you manage a type B aortic dissection?

A

Descending aorta - control BP (IV labetalol)

139
Q

What cardiovascular drug can cause ulcers anywhere along the GI tract?

A

Nicorandil

140
Q

Patient on isosorbide mononitrate for angina has noticed symptoms getting worse. What has caused this and what do you do?

A
  • Continuous treatment with nitrates is associated with the development of tolerance, which results in reduced therapeutic effects
  • As a result, it is recommended that a nitrate-free interval each day (lasting at least 4 hours) should be ensured to maintain sensitivity - this involves either taking the second dose at an earlier time (e.g. 8 am and 3 pm) or switching to a once-daily modified-release preparation
141
Q

What cardiovascular drug can cause sexual dysfunction?

A

Beta blockers

142
Q

What is the first line treatment for angina?

A

Beta blocker or CCB (if CCB monotherapy use rate limiting e.g. verapamil or diltiazem)

143
Q

What treatment option should be given to older children with WPW who remain symptomatic without adverse features?

A

Radiofrequency ablation

144
Q

What does this ECG show?

A

Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome

  • Delta waves
  • Dominant R waves in V1
145
Q

A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute-onset shortness of breath and cough. He was successfully treated with fibrinolysis for a myocardial infarction two weeks ago. ECG shown. What is the diagnosis?

A

Left ventricular aneurysm

Sustained ST elevation and deep QRS complexes in leads V1, V2, and V3

146
Q

What antibiotics can cause TdP?

A

Macrolides (e.g. azithromycin, erythromycin)

147
Q

In cardiac arrest due to PE, how long should CPR be continued for?

A

60-90 mins

148
Q

What ECG abnormality is associated with arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy?

A

T wave inversion in V1-3

149
Q

What is the BP cut off for a clinic reading which would require same day secondary care review?

A

180/120 mmHg

150
Q

What is the most likely cause of this ECG appearance?

A

Digoxin therapy (in a patient with AF)

There is a ‘scooped’ ST depression in leads II, III, aVF, v5, and V6. The presence of this ‘scooping’ or ‘reverse-tick sign’ is a typical finding in patients taking digoxin.

151
Q

An ECG shows new widening QRS complexes and a notched morphology of the QRS complexes in the lateral leads.

What diagnostic workup should you do?

A

New LBBB - investigation for an ACS

152
Q

A 28-year-old who is 10 weeks pregnant is noted to be hypertensive on her booking visit. Blood show a potassium of 2.9 mmol/l. Clinical examination is unremarkable.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

153
Q

A 39-year-old man presents with headaches and excessive sweating. He also reports some visual loss. Visual fields testing reveal loss of temporal vision bilaterally.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Acromegaly

154
Q

A 68-year-old with a history of ischaemic heart disease is seen in the hypertension clinic. Despite four antihypertensives his blood pressure is 172/94 mmHg. An abdominal ultrasound shows asymmetrical kidneys.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Renal artery stenosis

155
Q

What type of prosthetic valve is most appropriate for a younger patient?

A

Mechanical valve - last longer

HOWEVER require lifelong warfarin so need to consider this in a women of childbearing age

156
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker. What do you add?

A

Thiazide-like diuretic e.g. indapamide

157
Q

What are the signs of right-sided heart failure?

A

Raised JVP, ankle oedema and hepatomegaly

158
Q

What is the diagnosis?

A

Electrical alternans (alternation of QRS complex amplitude between beats) - suggestive of cardiac tamponade

159
Q

Name a drug that can be added as a second line treatment for rate control in AF in sedendary individuals

A

Digoxin

160
Q

Can warfain be used when breastfeeding?

A

Yes

161
Q

A 12-year-old female from Bulgaria presents to the surgery. She reports being unwell for the past 2 weeks. Initially she had a sore throat but she is now experiencing joint pains intermittently in her knees, hips and ankles. On examination there are some pink, ring shaped lesions on the trunk and occasional jerking movements of the face and hands. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

162
Q

What are the indications for valve replacement in aortic stenosis?

A
  • Symptomatic
  • If asymptomatic: valvular gradient > 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction
163
Q

Name a possible feature of left-sided heart failure on ausultation

A

Third heart sound

164
Q

New systolic murmur loudest at apex radiating to axilla following MI. What is the diagnosis?

A

Acute mitral valve regurgitation

Caused by rupture of the papillary muscle

Can present with flash pulmonary oedema

165
Q

Nicorandil is most useful in the management of what condition?

A

Angina

166
Q

What is the most likey pathophysiology of long QT syndrome?

A

Usually due to loss-of-function/blockage of K+ channels

167
Q

When are nitrates useful in acute heart failure?

A

If the patient has concomitant myocardial ischaemia or severe hypertension

168
Q

NSTEMI + unstable. Management?

A

Immediate coronary angiography

169
Q

What GI drug should not be prescribed to a patient on clopidogrel?

A

Omeprazole and esomeprazole

Omeprazole is an inhibitor of CYP2C19 meaning concurrent use can reduce plasma levels of activated clopidogrel

170
Q

List the common P450 inducers + state their effect on INR if patient on warfarin

A

INR will decrease:

  • Antiepileptics: phenytoin, carbamazepine
  • Barbiturates: phenobarbitone
  • Rifampicin
  • St John’s Wort
  • Chronic alcohol intake
  • Griseofulvin
  • Smoking (affects CYP1A2, reason why smokers require more aminophylline)
171
Q

List the common P450 inhibitors + state their effect on INR if patient on warfarin

A

INR will increase:

  • Antibiotics: ciprofloxacin, clarithromycine/erythromycin
  • Isoniazid
  • Cimetidine, omeprazole
  • Amiodarone
  • Allopurinol
  • Imidazoles: ketoconazole, fluconazole
  • SSRIs: fluoxetine, sertraline
  • Ritonavir
  • Sodium valproate
  • Acute alcohol intake
  • Quinupristin
172
Q

What murmur is associated with tricuspid regurgitation?

A

Systolic murmur over the 4th intercostal left parasternal region

Louder during inspiration

173
Q

What is the diagnosis?

A

Posterolateral myocardial infarction

  • There is some ST elevation in leads I, aVL and V6, which is consistent with a lateral MI
  • ST depression in V1-V3 (significant in V3) and large, broad R waves in several leads are consistent with a posterior myocardial infarction
174
Q

What ECG changes are associated with hypothermia?

A
  • Bradycardia
  • ‘J’ wave (Osborne waves) - small hump at the end of the QRS complex
  • First degree heart block
  • Long QT interval
  • Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
175
Q

What findings on CXR are associated with aortic dissection?

A
  • May be normal
  • Widened mediastinum: > 8.0-8.8 cm at the level of the aortic knob on portable anteroposterior chest films
  • Double aortic contour
  • Irregular aortic contour
  • Inward displacement of atherosclerotic calcification (>1 cm from the aortic margin)
176
Q

What blood test is the most useful in detecting re-infarction 4-10 days following initial MI?

A

Creatine kinase (CK-MB)

177
Q

Narrow complex tachycardia. Signs of shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia or heart failure. Management?

A

Up to 3 synchronised DC shocks

178
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for an unstable patient in VT?

A

Synchronised cardioversion

179
Q

What is the most common cause of death in patients following a myocardial infarction?

A

Ventricular fibrillation

180
Q

What drug can be used instead of amiodarone if it is not avaliable?

A

Lidocaine

181
Q

Patient presents with stroke and signs of DVT. What cardiac defect are they likely to have?

A

Atrial septal defect - allows a ‘paradoxical’ stroke where an embolism from peripheral veins may bypass pulmonary circulation

182
Q

When would you medically treat a patient under 80 with stage 1 HTN?

A

Diabetic, renal disease, QRISK2 >10%, established coronary vascular disease, or end organ damage

183
Q

What is the BP cut off for stage 1 HTN?

A

Clinic BP >= 140/90 mmHg and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average BP >= 135/85 mmHg

184
Q

What is the cut off for stage 2 HTN?

A

Clinic BP >= 160/100 mmHg and subsequent ABPM daytime average or HBPM average BP >= 150/95 mmHg

185
Q

What is cut off for severe HTN?

A

Clinic systolic BP >= 180 mmHg, or clinic diastolic BP >= 120 mmHg

186
Q

What are the blood pressure targets for patients < 80 years?

A

Clinic: 140/90 mmHg
ABPM / HBPM: 135/85 mmHg

187
Q

What are the blood pressure targets for patients > 80 years?

A

Clinic: 150/90 mmHg
ABPM / HBPM: 145/85 mmHg

188
Q

Patient in AF for more than 48 hours and you want to cardiovert. What do you do?

A
  • Anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion
  • An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus
189
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Pericarditis - widespread ST elevation and PR depression

190
Q

ECG shows T wave inversion in all leads and QT prolongation. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

‘Global’ T wave inversion (not fitting a coronary artery territory) - think non-cardiac cause of abnormal ECG

191
Q

In cardiac catheterisation, a jump in oxygen saturation from right atrium to right ventricle indicates what?

A

VSD

192
Q

What ABG result is associated with a PE?

A

Respiratory alkalosis (causes hyperventilation)

193
Q

A 33-year-old woman presents with sudden onset hemiparesis affecting the right face, arm and leg. On examination you note right sided hemiparesis, aphasia, a right homonymous hemianopia, and a harsh pansystolic murmur. Over the past few weeks she has been complaining of low grade fever.

What is the most likely cause of the stroke?

A

Emboli from infective endocarditis vegetation

194
Q

Name the drug which is given to manage symptoms of HF but has no prognostic benefits

A

Furosemide

195
Q

What cranial pathology can cause TdP

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

196
Q

What is the first line management of acute pericarditis?

A

Combination of NSAID and colchicine

197
Q

Describe the conservative management of NSTEMI

A

Aspirin, plus either:

  • Ticagrelor, if not high bleeding risk
  • Clopidogrel, if high bleeding risk
198
Q

What cardiovascular drug should be stopped in a patient taking erythromycin/clarithromycin?

A

Statins

199
Q

What does the ECG show?

A

Resent/resolving inferior-lateral MI

  • Q waves inferiorly (II, III and aVF) and V5-6 suggestive of previous myocardial infarction
  • There is also T wave inversion inferiorly again and in V3-V6 - suggests myocardial ischaemia
200
Q

In ALS, if IV access cannot be achieved, how should drugs be given?

A

Intraosseous route (proximal tibia)

201
Q

NSTEMI management: patients with a GRACE score > 3%

A

Coronary angiography within 72 hours of admission

202
Q

What is the Levine grading scale for murmurs?

A
  • Grade 1 - Very faint murmur, frequently overlooked
  • Grade 2 - Slight murmur
  • Grade 3 - Moderate murmur without palpable thrill
  • Grade 4 - Loud murmur with palpable thrill
  • Grade 5 - Very loud murmur with extremely palpable thrill. Can be heard with stethoscope edge
  • Grade 6 - Extremely loud murmur - can be heard without stethoscope touching the chest wall
203
Q

What ECG features are an indication for urgent coronary thrombolysis or PCI?

A
  • ST elevation of > 2mm (2 small squares) in 2 or more consecutive anterior leads (V1-V6) OR
  • ST elevation of greater than 1mm (1 small square) in greater than 2 consecutive inferior leads (II, III, avF, avL) OR
  • New left bundle branch block
204
Q

How does a posterior MI usually present?

A

Tall R waves V1-2

205
Q

What is the first line investigation for stable chest pain of suspected coronary artery disease aetiology?

A

CT angiography

206
Q

Acute heart failure with hypotension - what drug should be considered for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction who have potentially reversible cardiogenic shock?

A

Inotropes (in HDU)

207
Q

What is the first-line management of SVT?

A

Vagal manoeuvres: e.g. Valsalva manoeuvre or carotid sinus massage

208
Q

After being admitted to the coronary care unit a middle aged man develops a regular, broad complex tachycardia. His blood pressure drops to 88/50 mmHg. He was admitted 6 hours previously following an anterolateral myocardial infarction.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Ventricular tachycardia

209
Q

A 66-year-old woman suddenly develops dyspnoea 10 days after having an anterior myocardial infarction. Her blood pressure is 78/50 mmHg, JVP is elevated and the heart sounds are muffled. There are widespread crackles on her chest and the oxygen saturations are 84% on room air.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Left ventricular free wall rupture

The prognosis from such a catastrophic event is clearly poor unless this patient has immediate surgery

210
Q

What is the most common cause of mitral stenosis?

A

Rheumatic fever

211
Q

What murmur is associated with VSD?

A

Pansystolic murmur

212
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

First degree heart block

Pronged PR

213
Q

What variables are accounted for in the ORBIT score?

A
  • Haemoglobin (low)
  • Age > 74
  • Bleeding history
  • Renal impairment
  • Treatment with antiplatelets
214
Q

A pulse deficit (weak or absent carotid, brachial, or femoral pulse, or variation > 20 mmHg in systolic BP between arms) is associated with what diagnosis?

A

Aortic dissection

215
Q

What drugs are used in pharmacological cardioversion? Which one is preferred in structural heart disease?

A
  • Flecainide or amiodarone
  • Amiodarone preferred in structural heart disease
216
Q

What ECG finding can be associated with severe mitral stenosis?

A

ECG will often show a bifid P wave (P mitrale) - caused by left atrial enlargement/hypertrophy

217
Q

What is the reveral agent for dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab

218
Q

List 3 causes of a loud S2

A
  • Hypertension: systemic (loud A2) or pulmonary (loud P2)
  • Hyperdynamic states
  • Atrial septal defect without pulmonary hypertension
219
Q

In SVT, if the first dose of 6mg IV adenosine is not successful, what should be done?

A

Escalating adenosine doses of 6mg → 12mg → 18 mg

220
Q

What are the adverse effects of thiazide diuretics?

A
  • Dehydration
  • Postural hypotension
  • Hypokalaemia - due to increased delivery of sodium to the distal part of the distal convoluted tubule → increased sodium reabsorption in exchange for potassium and hydrogen ions
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Hypercalcaemia (+ hypocalciuria - may be useful in reducing the incidence of renal stones)
  • Gout
  • Impaired glucose tolerance
  • Impotence
221
Q

What is the ideal time to advise patients to take a statin?

A

Statins should be taken at night as this is when the majority of cholesterol synthesis takes place

This is especially true for simvastatin which has a shorter half-life than other statins

222
Q

What do the following results indicate:

  • Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure: low
  • Cardiac output: low
  • SVR: high
A

Hypovolaemia

223
Q

What do the following results indicate:

  • Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure: high
  • Cardiac output: low
  • SVR: high
A

Cardiogenic shock

224
Q

What do the following results indicate:

  • Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure: low
  • Cardiac output: high
  • SVR: low
A

Septic shock

225
Q

When should treatment with statins be discontinued?

A

If serum transaminase concentrations rise to and persist at 3 times the upper limit of the reference range

226
Q

What is the management of nfective endocarditis causing congestive cardiac failure?

A

Emergency valve replacement surgery

227
Q

What is the most significant risk factor for post-ACS mortality?

A

Cardiogenic shock

228
Q

What is the target INR for a patient with a mechanical aortic valve?

A

3.0

229
Q

What is the target INR for a patient with a mechanical mitral valve?

A

3.5

230
Q

Acute or subacute chest pain in a post-menopausal woman after an emotionally stressful experience or situation suggests what diagnosis?

A

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

231
Q

Inhaled foreign objects are most likely to be found in which bronchus?

A

Right main bronchus

232
Q

Investigating suspected PE: if the CTPA is negative then consider what test if DVT suspected?

A

Proximal vein ultrasound

233
Q

Patient presents to ED with palpitations that have now stopped. ECG normal. What is the best next step in management?

A

Arrange Holter monitoring

234
Q

A 24-year-old female presents to her GP with lethargy and dizzy spells. On examination she is noted to have an absent left radial pulse. Blood results show raised ESR.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Takayasu’s arteritis

235
Q

What vaccinations should be recommended to a patient with chronic heart failure?

A

Annual influenza vaccination, single pneumococcal vaccination

236
Q

What does the ECG show?

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy

  • The ECG shows large R waves in the left-sided leads (V5, V6) and deep S-waves in the right-sided leads (V1, V2)
  • There is also ST elevation in leads V2-3
  • There is also T-wave inversion present in leads V5 and V6, known as the left ventricular ‘strain’ pattern; in this case, the most likely cause of left ventricular hypertrophy is hypertension
237
Q

What echocardiogram findings are associated with HOCM

A

Asymmetric septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior movement (SAM) of the anterior leaflet of mitral valve

238
Q

Patient has HOCM. What is the individual risk his sister will also have the same underlying disorder?

A

50%

239
Q

What ECG changes are associated with dextrocardia?

A

Inverted P wave in lead I, right axis deviation, and loss of R wave progression

240
Q

Strong suspicion of PE but a delay in the scan. Management?

A

Start on treatment dose anticoagulant in the mean time

241
Q

What is the mechanism of action of fondaparinux?

A

Activates antithrombin III

242
Q

A 45-year-old man with a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus is found to have hypertension on home blood pressure recordings (155/105mmHg). His notes show a recent hospital admission with pyelonephritis where he was found to have renal artery stenosis.

What is the most appropriate medication to start to treat his hypertension?

A

Amlodipine - ACEi contraindicated in patients ith renovascular disease

243
Q

Patient presents with AF < 48 hours and signs of heart failure. Rate or rhythm control?

A

Rhythm control

244
Q

A patient develops acute heart failure 5 days after a myocardial infarction. A new pan-systolic murmur is noted on examination.

What is the diagnosis?

A

Ventricular septal defect

245
Q

ST elevation and acute pulmonary oedema in a young patient with a recent flu-like illness. Inflammatory markers and troponin raised.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Myocarditis

246
Q

What are the signs indicated an unstable patient in VT requiring synchronised cardioversion?

A

Shock (systolic BP of <90), syncope, myocardial ischemia and heart failure

247
Q

What is the target blood pressure for T2DM?

A

< 140/90 mmHg

248
Q

What is the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation in ALS?

A

30:2

249
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking an ACE inhibitor. What do you do?

A

Add a calcium channel blocker (e.g. amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (e.g. indapamide)

250
Q

Poorly controlled hypertension, already taking a calcium channel blocker.

What do you do?

A

Add an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic

251
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

HCOM

  • Bifid p waves → left atrial enlargement
  • High-voltage QRS → extreme left ventricular hypertrophy
  • High-voltage R waves in V1-6 → septal hypertrophy
  • ST depression in the precordial leads and T-wave inversion in the anterolateral leads (I/avL/V2-V6) → ischaemia secondary to LVH
252
Q

Diastolic murmur + AF. What murmur should you think of?

A

Mitral stenosis

253
Q

What is Beck’s triad?

A

Cardiac tamponade: falling BP, rising JVP and muffled heart sounds

254
Q

First line drug for newly diagnosed hypertension in patient under 55?

A

ACEi/ARB

255
Q

Does paroxysmal atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation?

A

Should be considered (CHADVASc score)

256
Q

What findings on echocardiogram are associated with Takotsubo cardiomyopathy?

A

Apical ballooning of myocardium (resembling an octopus pot)

257
Q

Do patients who’ve had a catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still require long-term anticoagulation?

A

Yes (depending on CHADVASc)

258
Q

What is Quincke’s sign?

A

Nailbed pulsation: clinical sign of aortic regurgitation

259
Q

What does the ECG show?

A

Bifascicular block - shows both right bundle branch block and left axis deviation

260
Q

What cardiovascular drug should be avoided in HOCM?

A

ACEi

261
Q

What two beta blockers have been shown to reduce mortality in HF?

A

Carvedilol and bisoprolol

262
Q

Patient has persistent myocardial ischaemia following fibrinolysis. What should you do?

A

PCI

263
Q

MI + 1st degree heart block. What area of the heart is most likely affected?

A

Inferior heart (II, III, aVF)
Right coronary artery occluded → affects AV node

264
Q

Name two pharmacological options for treatment of orthostatic hypotension

A

Fludrocortisone and midodrinec

265
Q

Name an antihypertensive which can worsen glucose tolerance

A

Indapamide (thiazides)

266
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary hypertension?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

267
Q

Name 3 causes of raised BNP

A

MI
Valvular disease
CKD

268
Q

Name 3 causes of reduced BNP

A

ACEi
ARB
Diuretics

269
Q

What is the empirical treatment of choice in native valve endocarditis?

A

IV amoxicillin

270
Q

What is the empirical treatment of choice in native valve endocarditis, penicillin allergic or severe sepsis?

A

Vancomycin + low-dose gentamicin

271
Q

What is the suggested antibiotic therapy for native valve endocarditis caused by staphylococci?

A

Flucloxacillin

If penicillin allergic or MRSA
vancomycin + rifampicin

272
Q

What is the suggested antibiotic therapy for prosthetic valve endocarditis caused by staphylococci?

A

Flucloxacillin + rifampicin + low-dose gentamicin

If penicillin allergic or MRSA
vancomycin + rifampicin + low-dose gentamicin

273
Q

What is the suggested antibiotic therapy for endocarditis caused by strep viridans?

A

Benzylpenicillin

274
Q

Which form of cardiomyopathy is associated with S3?

A

Dilated

275
Q

Which form of cardiomyopathy is associated with S4?

A

HCOM

276
Q
A
277
Q

All patients with non-ST elevation myocardial infarction should receive?

A

300mg aspirin

278
Q

Name a dermatological adverse effect of warfarin

A

Skin necrosis

279
Q

What is the approximate half-life of adenosine?

A

8-10 seconds

280
Q

What valve is most commonly affected in infective endocarditis?

A

Mitral valve

281
Q

What factors can exacerbate orthostatic hypotension?

A

Venous pooling during exercise (exercise-induced), after meals (postprandial hypotension) and after prolonged bed rest (deconditioning)

282
Q

Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic region. There is no radiation of the murmur to the carotid arteries.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Aortic sclerosis

283
Q

Patient with symptomatic stable angina on a calcium channel blocker but with a contraindication to a beta-blocker. Next line treatment?

A

Long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil or ranolazine

284
Q

What is most common cause of endocarditis within 2 months of prosthetic valve surgery?

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

285
Q

What is usually the most common cause of endocarditis?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

286
Q

What drugs should be given to a patient with symptomatic HFrEF if they are already on ACEi/ARB and a beta blocker?

A

Mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist

287
Q

What is the main ECG abnormality seen in hypercalcaemia?

A

Shortening of the QT interval

288
Q

Patient develops infective endocarditis. Streptococcus sanguinis isolated. What is the most appropriate followup?

A

Dental review

289
Q

How does VSD present in a newborn?

A

Heart failure after a few weeks of life, or asymptomatic, pansystolic murmur at lower left sternal edge and louder P2

290
Q

What is the PESI score?

A

The Pulmonary Embolism Severity Index (PESI) score is recommended by BTS guidelines to be used to help identify patients with a pulmonary embolism that can be managed as outpatients

291
Q

Symptomatic bradycardia, atropine has failed. Next step in management?

A

External pacing

292
Q

STEMI undergoing PCI, not taking oral anticoagulant prior to MI. What drugs?

A

Aspirin and prasugrel

293
Q

STEMI undergoing PCI, taking oral anticoagulant prior to MI. What drugs?

A

Aspirin and clopidogrel

MBChB Finals (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions