Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Boards > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

Age of presentation SUFE ve Perthe’s disease

A

SUFE: 10-16 yrs

Perthe’s disease: 3-11 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Presentation of Perthe’s disease + pathophys

A

Path: avascular necrosis of the femoral head

Pain in hip or knee + limp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What nerve roots are in Erb’s palsy?

A

C5-C6

Note: Klumpks is C8-T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Damage to what nerve causes foot drop?

A

Common peroneal nerve (L5, S1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Obligate external rotation is characteristic of what?

A

SUFE

Note: this means when the hip is flexed, external rotation of the limb occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mgmt of SCFE

A

Urgent fixation w/pinning (epiphysiodesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often is SCFE bilateral?

A

20-25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In the management of an open fracture it is important to probe it in the ER T/F

A

F - it should not be probed as this may dislodge debris further into the wound and introduce infection

Note: should check neuromuscular status and then immobilise, check tetanus status, ref to ortho and start IV antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In a pt with suspected Duchenne MD what is the 1st appropriate investigation?

A

Serum CK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Inguinal hernia in children are usually direct or indirect ?

A

Indirect

Direct hernias are very rare in the absence of a connective tissues disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Inguinal hernia in premature males have a high recurrence rate T/F

A

T - about 5% recur post op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When would it be expected for achondroplasia and hypochondroplasia to present?

A

Achondroplasia: usually in the neonatal period, growth in utero is normal until 22 weeks hence unless patient was getting a late scan for some reason.

Hypochondroplasia: presents later with short stature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does achondroplasia usually present clinically?

A

Proximal (rhizomelic) limb shortening, esp in the upper limbs and normal head circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Telephone handle femurs on X-ray what pathology?

A

Thanatophoric dwarfism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which ligament is injured in nursemaid elbow?

A

Annular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Teenage athlete presents with pain, swelling and locking of knee after sports, arthroscopy showing 3 loose bodies in synovial cavity. What pathology

A

Oestochondritis dissescans

Due to underlying necrosis of articular cartilage and its underlying bone. Cause of this is unknown

Note: if only one body was seen another differential would be a chip (avulsion) fracture

17
Q

> 50 loose bodies in a joint cavity on arthroscopy, what disease?

A

Synovial chondromatosis

18
Q

Metaphyseal fracture (AKA corner or bucket handle fracture) of lower limb is specifically associated with NAT T/F

A

T

19
Q

Trethowan’s sign is indicative of what pathology

A

SUFE

Note: in this sign line of Klein passes above the femoral head.

20
Q

What is the treatment of a toddlers fracture?

A

Long leg cast

Note: healing is rapid, 4-5 weeks

21
Q

What is the most common elbow fracture?

A

Supracondylar fracture of the distal humerus

22
Q

Complications of supracondylar fracture of the distal humerus?

A
  • radial or median nerve damage
  • brachial artery damage
  • compartment syndrome
  • Volkmann contracture
  • improper reduction can lead to cubits varus
23
Q

What is Blount disease? What is mgmt?

A

Developmental deformity resulting from abnormal endochondral ossification of the medial aspect of the proximal tibial physis leading to varus deformity and internal rotation of tibia

Mgmt: if diagnosis before three knee brace. If >3 at diagnosis or failure of knee brace ortho referral for surgery

24
Q

Hyperkyphosis and X-ray showing wedging of > 5 degrees in at least 3 consecutive vertebrae bodies. What pathology and mgmt?

A

Scheuermann disease (AKA juvenile kyphosis)

Mgmt: bracing if < 70 degrees. > 70 degrees requires surgery

Note: usually minimal pain and normal neuro exam

25
Q

Traumatic myositis ossificans is a bony mass, always slightly separated from the bone

A

T

More common in adolescent athletes. Painless
On xray round mass with mature peripheral ossification and a more radiolucent centre of mature osteoid. This tends to be a reverse of tumour appearance

26
Q

Most common cause of intoeing in less than 2 yrs old and its management?

A

Internal tibial torsion
Mgmt: reassurance, usually resolves without intervention. Refer to surgeon if persists > 8 yrs of age, interferes with activity or has poor cosmetic appearance

27
Q

At what age is genu vagum normal?

A

2-4 yrs (knock knee)

Note: birth - 2 yrs varus (bowing) is normal

28
Q

Intermittent knee pain that worsens with activity. Sometimes knee “locks up/gives way”. Full extension of knee limited. Most likely pathology?

A

Osteochondritis dissecans

Note: most commonly affected is the medial condyl of femur; sometimes a boney fragment will be seen in joint space

29
Q

When does polydactyly occur in utero? What race is it more common?

A

6 - 7 weeks

African American

30
Q

A positive McMurrary test is characteristic of what injury?

A

Meniscal

31
Q

Peripheral oedema, hyperglycaemia, HTN and arthralgia are side effects of what performance enhancing drug?

A

Growth hormone

Note: can also cause cardiomegaly

32
Q

Tennis elbow vs golfers elbow locations?

A

Tennis: lateral epicondylitis
Golfer: medial epicondylitis

Note: little league elbow is also medial pain

33
Q

SUFE is associated with hypothyroidism and T1 DM T/F

A

F - not associated with DM but is associated with hypothyroidism

Also associated with growth hormone therapy, renal osteodystrophy and obese males with hypogonadal conditions

34
Q

Forward slippage of upper vertebra in relation to the vertebra below, spondylolesthesis or spondylolysis?

A

Spondylolesthesis

Note: 85% of spondylolesthesis is due to spondylolysis (bone defect in pars interarticularis of the vertebra)

35
Q

Mgmt of spondylolesthesis vs spondylolysis

A

Spondylolysis: NSAIDs and can return to sport once pain free. Surg referral only if not improvement in pain

Spondylolesthesis: ortho referral. Surgical treatment is usually needed for high slip (> 50%). No contact sports if the slippage is more than 50% of the vertebral width

36
Q

Mechanism of action associated with ACL or PCL tear?

A

ACL - sudden declaration and pivoting of knee

PCL - direct blow to anterior knee with knee flexed (often knee hits dashboard)

37
Q

Mechanism of action of medial meniscus tear?

A

Twisting motion of planted leg

38
Q

Mgmt of scoliosis

A

Mild < 20 degrees: no activity restrictions
Mod (25-45) : considering bracing
Severe (> 45): spinal fusion/Harrington rod

Boards (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions