MS treatment Flashcards

1
Q

Brand name of daclizumab

A

Zinbryra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brand name of Glatiramer Acetate

A

Copaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Brand name of Dimethyl fumarate

A

Tecfidera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Brand name of Fingolimod

A

Gilenya

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Brand name of Teriflunomide

A

Aubagio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Brand name of Alemtuzumab

A

Lemtrada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Brand name of Mitoxantrone

A

Novantrone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Brand name of Natalizumab?

A

Tysabri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Brand name of Ocrelizumab

A

Ocrevus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mechanism of action of daclizumab?

A

modulation of IL-2 mediated activation of lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Common Adverse effects of daclizumab?

A

URI, pharyngitis, increased ALT, UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Labs to follow for daclizumab and how often?

A

get baseline ALT/AST/Tbili and check Q mo up to 6 mo after last dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mechanism of action of the Inf b-1b and 1a?

A

anti-inflam: down regulates cytokines, MHC Ags, decrease transmigration of T lymphocytes across the BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Side effects of Inf b-1b and 1a?

A

flu-like sx, leukopenia, elevated liver enzymes, thyroid dysfunction, injection site reaction, depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Labs to follow for Inf b-1b and 1a?

A

CBC, LFT q 3 mos during frst yr and then q6mos thereafter; TSH q3-6 mos during 1st year and yearly thereafter, monitor mood changes, site rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mechanism of action of dimethyl fumarate?

A

unknown; activates Nrf2 pathway (involved in cellular response to oxidative stress)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Common side effects of dimethyl fumarate?

A

flushing, abdominal pain, nausea, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Warnings of dimethyl fumarate?

A

lymphopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Labs to monitor for dimethyl fumarate?

A

CBC < 6 mo before starting txt and annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mechanism of action of fingolimod?

A

binds to immune cells and sequesters them in lymph nodes, reducing availability for cell mediated immune response

-fingolimod crosses BBB –> phosphorylated to form fingolimod-phosphate –> binds to S1P receptors and down regulation of S1P receptors –> reduces release of lymphocytes

21
Q

Major possible side effects of fingolomod?

A

Bradycardia after 1st dose, infection, macular edema, decreased PFTs, liver injury, HTN and increased risk of herpes zoster

22
Q

What do you need to monitor with fingolomod?

A

screen: WBC, AST/ALT,bili, serum varicella zoster ab testing (in pts withno hx of chicken pox), baseline EKG, ophthalmologic evaluation. Observe brady x 6hrs after 1st dose, ophtho eval after 3-4 mo of txt, PFT if indicated, use contraception during txt and for 2 mo after stopping txt

23
Q

Efficacy of fingolomod?

A

it is more effective than injectables; less effective than Tysabri. A good alternative to Tysabri. Per Dr. Eicher, 54% efficacy.

24
Q

Contraindications to starting fingolomod? (5)

A

preexisting or recent heart conditions, baseline QTc > 500ms, txt with class Ia or class III antiarrhythmic drugs, TIA, stroke

25
Q

Mechanism of teriflunomide

A

inhibits DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells such as lymphocytes. Alternate salvage pathway allows pyrimidine synthesis to continue at reduced rate in resting cells

26
Q

Common side effects of teriflunomide?

A

abnormal liver function, alopecia, diarrhea, influenza, nausea, paresthesias

27
Q

Black box warnings of teriflunomide?

A

black box: elevated LFTs and fetal death/malformations; skin rxn, BP increase, respiratory effects

28
Q

Pre-treatment evaluation for teriflunomide? What do you monitor during treatment?

A

pre-txt: eval for infxn, pregnancy, RF, peripheral neuropathy, interstitual pulm disease, HTN, WBC, AST/ALT/tbili. During txt: BP monitoring and AST/ALT

29
Q

Indications for alemtuzumab?

A

Only approved for patients who have had inadequate response to 2+ therapies due to high side effect profile.

30
Q

Mechanism of alemtuzumab?

A

binds CD52 (cell surface Ag on T and B lymphocytes, nKC, macrophages) –> ab-dependent cytolysis and complement mediated lysis

31
Q

Possible side effects of alemtuzumab?

A

infusion rxn in 92% of pts during infusion and up to 24 hours after (3% are severe such as anaphylactic shock, angioedema, bronchospasm, hypotension). Serious autoimmune conditions such as thrombocytopenia and increase risk of malignancy

32
Q

What to monitor before and during treatment with alemtuzumab?

A

premedicate with corticosteroids prior to 1st three infusions, antiviral agents for herpetic ppx for 2 months or until CD4 count is > 200, check TSH Q3mo and CBC Q month, until 48 mo after last infusion, avoid during active infxn, avoid live viral vaccines

33
Q

Mechanism of action of mitoxantrone?

A

inhibits DNA synthesis, reduces lymphocytes, reduces Th1 cytokines

34
Q

Common side effects of Novantrone?

A

blue-green urine 24 hours after administration, infections, bone marrow suppression, nausea, hair thinning, bladder infections, mouth sores

35
Q

Major side effect of mitoxantrone?

A

dose dependent cardiac toxicity, AML (esp with cumulative doses > 60mg/m2)

36
Q

What to monitor while on mitoxantrone?

A

baseline LVEF prior to each dose and after txt completed

37
Q

Mechanism of natalizumab?

A

binds to alpha4/beta 1 integrin on activated lymphocytes and monocytes; inhibits leukocyte migration across the BBB

38
Q

Major side effects of natalizumab?

A

PML, hepatotoxicity including acute liver failure, encephalitis/meningitis with HSV and VZV

39
Q

What is the general risk of PML when on natalizumab?

A

1 in 1000

40
Q

What are risk factors that increase risk of PML in natalizumab recipients to 11 in 1000?

A

JC ab+, prior txt with immunosuppressant, > 2 years on Tysabri

41
Q

What to monitor while on natalizumab?

A

JC virus titers

42
Q

Mechanism of ocrelizumab?

A

binds CD20, cell surface antigen on pre-B and mature B lymphocytes, causing antibody-dependent and complement-mediated cytolysis

43
Q

Potential side effects of ocrelizumab?

A

Respiratory tract infxns, herpes, potentially PML, hepatitis B reactivation, possible increased immunosuppressive effect, increase risk of malignancy

44
Q

What to do prior to treatment with ocrelizumab?

A

premedicate with corticosteroids and antihistamine and observe 1hr after infusion, administer all vaccines 6 weeks prior to Ocrevus, no live attenuated or live vaccines during txt until B cell repletion, breast cancer screening protocol

45
Q

What drugs can be used to treat MS-related fatigue?

A

Modafinil, SSRI, amantadine

46
Q

What drugs can be used to treat MS-related spasticity?

A

baclofen, tizanidine

47
Q

What drugs can be used to treat MS-related paroxysmal symptoms and pain?

A

carbamazepine, phenytoin, gabapentin, TCAs, Botox

48
Q

What drugs can be used to treat MS-related cerebellar tremor?

A

Clonazepam, Valproic acid, Isoniazid, thalamic stimulator