Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NCM 112 > MS SEMIS > Flashcards

MS SEMIS Flashcards

1
Q

A test that will detect the presence of autoantibodies in the skin or mucous membrane tissue

a. direct immunofluorescence
b. Skin Biopsy
c. ELISA
d. indirect immunofluorescence

A

A. direct immunofluorescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

It is the period of time between initial infection of HIV and development of antibody.

a. incubation period
b. window period
c. serologic period
d. infectious stage

A

b. window period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Immune responses are:

a. non-specific defense mechanism
b. Specific defense mechanism

A

b. Specific defense mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The nurse understands that due to Increased permeability of the blood vessels results in an exudation (leakage) of plasma proteins and fluid into the tissue, one of the inflammatory s/sx will appear which is

a. loss of function
b. redness and heat
c. pain
d. Swelling

A

d. Swelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

These tests are considered as inflammatory markers:

a. direct immunofluorescence
b. C-reactive protein and ESR
c. CBC
d. skin biopsy

A

b. C-reactive protein and ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following laboratory results support the diagnosis of bacterial infection?

a. increase WBC
b. decrease WBC
c. negative blood culture
d. decrease sedimentation rate

A

a. increase WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The cicatricial pemphigoid primarily affects the:

a. eyes
b. nose
c. skin and mucous membrane
d. mouth

A

c. skin and mucous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Play a major role in humoral immunity

a. T cells
b. antibodies
c. B cells
d. granulocytes

A

c. B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Immunity that is acquired in response to vaccines

a. artificial passive acquired immunity
b. artificial active acquired immunity
c. Natural passive acquired immunity
d. Natural active acquired immunity

A

b. artificial active acquired immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following precautions is best in the care of the patient?

a. Gown, gloves, and mask if splashing with body fluids is likely
b. Only hand washing is needed
c. Gown, gloves, mask, and placement into a negative-pressure room
d. Gloves and an N-95 mask

A

a. Gown, gloves, and mask if splashing with body fluids is likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When a client receives incompatible blood:

a. Type 2
b. Type 4
c. Type 3
d. Type 1

A

a. Type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Blood screening tests of the immune system of a client with AIDS would indicate:

a. An increase in thymic hormones
b. A decrease in the serum level of glucose
c. An increase in immunoglobulin E
d. A decrease in CD4 T cells

A

d. A decrease in CD4 T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A client tested positive with the EIA test. This means:

a. he definitely has HIV
b. he should not be worried, its false positive
c. another test will still be done to confirm HIV-AIDS
d. it means he has early infection

A

c. another test will still be done to confirm HIV-AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The normal result of an EIA test is:

a. positive
b. negative
c. false positive
d. false negative

A

b. negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

lt is the predominant cell type in the epidermis, the outermost layer of the skin, constituting 90% of the cells found there:

a. desmosomes
b. acantholysis
c. keratinocytes
d. desmogleins

A

c. keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When the inflammation is localized, it means to say that the inflammatory response is:

a. non-specific symptoms develop
b. neutrophils and macrophages are released
c. injurious agents persists
d. confined to the site

A

d. confined to the site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A client hospitalized with AIDS who has a white blood cell count of 1500 mm3 is scheduled for a chest x-ray. The best action of the nurse would be to:

a. Have the x-ray staff wear gowns, gloves, and mask while doing the x-ray
b. Have housekeeping clean the x-ray room thoroughly before the client arrives.
c. Arrange for an x-ray to be done with a portable machine in the client’s room
d. Put a mask and a gown to the client before transporting to the x-ray department

A

c. Arrange for an x-ray to be done with a portable machine in the client’s room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that individual:

a. Makes a donation of a pint of whole blood b. Has intercourse with just the spouse
c. Limits sexual contact to those without HIV antibodies
d. Uses a condom each time there is sexual intercourse

A

a. Makes a donation of a pint of whole blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Results when immune system no longer recognizes certain body tissues as “self” and attempts to destroy those tissues.

a. autoimmune diseases
b. inflammation
c. immunity
d. hypersensitivity reactions

A

a. autoimmune diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

An immunosuppressed client has a WBC count of 12,000/mm3. The instruction that should receive the highest priority by the nurse is:

a. Omit the daily dose of prednisone
b. Increase the intake of high-protein foods
c. Shave with an electric rather than a safety razor
d. Avoid large crowds and persons with infections

A

d. Avoid large crowds and persons with infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The nurse knows that a positive diagnosis for HIV infection is made based on:

a. Positive EIA and Western blot tests
b. Evidence of extreme weight loss and high fever
c. A History of high risk sexual behaviors
d. Identification of an associated opportunistic infection

A

a. Positive EIA and Western blot tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Presence of autoantibodies against the connections between epidermal cells.

a. pemphigus
b. desmosomes
c. pemphigoid
d. acantholysis

A

a. pemphigus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lymphocytes that decrease B cell activity to a level at which the immune system is compatible with life

a. natural killer T cells
b. null lymphocytes
c. memory cells
d. suppressor T cells

A

d. suppressor T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Breastfeeding will provide:

a. Natural passive acquired immunity
b. artificial active acquired immunity
c. Natural active acquired immunity
d. artificial passive acquired immunity

A

a. Natural passive acquired immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Removes foreign material from the lymph system before it enters the bloodstream

a. bone marrow
b. stem cells
c. lymph nodes
d. spleen

A

c. lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Artificial passive acquired immunity would result from:

a. ingesting colostrums
b. having measles
c. receiving gamma globulins
d. receiving an attenuated vaccines

A

c. receiving gamma globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

It is the loss of cohesion between keratinocytes

a. acantholysis
b. pemphigus
c. apoptosis
d. pemphigoid

A

a. acantholysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Involves different cell types including macrophages, T cells etc:

a. cell mediated immunity
b. non-specific immunity
c. Humoral immunity

A

a. cell mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Dennis was tested positive in EIA, meaning:

a. DNA levels are present in the plasma
b. Trackings of viral load in the blood
c. antibodies are identiFled directed specifically against HIV
d. Measures viral burden in the blood

A

c. antibodies are identified directed specifically against HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The following can help manage and reduce the risk of flare-ups EXCEPT:

a. Reduce stress
b. smoking and alcohol
c. balanced diet
d. gentle skin care

A

b. smoking and alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An increasing CD4 T cell count of an HIV positive client indicates:

a. The need for aggressive therapy
b. Improvement in the client’s condition
c. That infection is likely to develop
d. That the count is normal pattern in HIV infection

A

b. Improvement in the client’s condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Presence of autoantibodies against some parts of the dermis

a. desmosomes
b. pemphigoid
c. acantholysis
d. pemphigus

A

b. pemphigoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When taking the blood pressure of a client who has AIDS, the nurse must:

a. Use barrier techniques
b. wear a mask and a gown
c. wash the hands thoroughly
d. Wear clean gloves

A

b. wear a mask and a gown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If the immune system is not functioning properly it is said to be:

a. immunosuppressed
b. B and C
c. immunocompromised
d. immunocompetent

A

c. immunocompromised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Ways in which the body protects itself from pathogens

a. Febrile reactions
b. host defense mechanisms
c. General body responses
d. chemical factors

A

b. host defense mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Diana develops drug induced SLE. When reviewing her medication history, what drug could have specifically caused her SLE?

a. nifedipine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. insulin
d. furosemide

A

b. Chlorpromazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

This test can measure specific autoantibodies in the blood.

a. direct immunofluorescence
b. ELISA
c. indirect immunofluorescence
d. SKIN BIOPSY

A

b. ELISA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When discussing immunity with a client who has returned from living in a foreign country for 10 years, the nurse recalls that active immunity occurs when:

a. Protein substances are formed within the body to neutralize antigens
b. Protein antigens are formed in the blood to Bght invading antibodies
c. Sensitized lymphocytes from an immune donor act as antibodies against invading pathogens
d. Blood antigens are aided by the phagocytes in defending the body against pathogens

A

a. Protein substances are formed within the body to neutralize antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Structure that ensures the epidermal keratinocyte cells stick to the dermis

a. dystonin
b. hemidesmosomes
c. desmosomes
d. keratinocytes

A

b. hemidesmosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Patient Ana has been diagnose to have SLE, clinical manifestation that least expected is:

a. pruritus
b. arthritis
c. pericarditis
d. skin lesions

A

a. pruritus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Considered as the first line treatment for blistering diseases to rapidly reduce inflammation and control disease activity.

a. rituximab
b. cyclosporine
c. corticosteroids
d. azathioprine

A

c. corticosteroids

43
Q

A client is tested for HIV with ELISA test and the test result is positive. The client is very upset and asks the nurse if this means that he definitely has HIV. The nurse most appropriately tells the client that:

a. False-positive results are reported all of the time and that he should not be worried He definitely has HIV
b. Another test will be done to determine whether he has HIV
c. A positive EIA means that the infection was diagnosed early in the infection period

A

b. Another test will be done to determine whether he has HIV

44
Q

Precursors of all blood cells, reside primarily in the bone marrow

a. B cells
b. stem cells
c. WBC, RBC, PLATELETS
d. T cells

A

b. stem cells

45
Q

Which is not TRUE in SLE?

a. usual onset during the older years
b. all
c. is a chronic multisystem disease that is most likely a failure of immune regulation
d. is a result of disturbed immune regulation that causes an exaggerated production of autoantibodies

A

a. usual onset during the older years

46
Q

The classic signs and symptoms of acute inflammation:

a. Redness, Swelling, Heat, Pain, fever
b. Redness, swelling, pain and loss of function c. Redness, Swelling, Heat, Pain, Loss of function
d. Redness, paleness, tenderness

A

c. Redness, Swelling, Heat, Pain, Loss of function

47
Q

A physician’s office nurse is assessing a client who is recently had a renal transplant. The nurse monitors for which signs of graft rejection?

a. Fever, hypertension, graft tenderness and malaise
b. Hypotension, graft tenderness, and anemia
c. Hypertension, oliguria, thirst and hypothermia
d. Fever, vomiting hypotension, and copious amounts of dilute urine

A

a. Fever, hypertension, graft tenderness and malaise

48
Q

Each of the following is a primary purpose of the inflammatory response EXCEPT:

a. To localize the infection
b. To stimulate the production of opsonins
c. To aid in the repair of damaged tissue
d. To prevent the spread of microbial invaders

A

b. To stimulate the production of opsonins

49
Q

In linear IgA Dermatosis, blisters form due to the deposition of:

a. IgE
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgA

A

d. IgA

50
Q

Results from the separation of the desmoepidermal junction.

a. bullae
b. itching
c. ulcer
d. exudates

A

a. bullae

51
Q

Body’s specific protective response to a foreign agent or organism

a. immunization
b. vaccination
c. immunity
d. Inflammation

A

c. immunity

52
Q

Which of the following activities would present the least risk of exposure to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

a. Exposure to used needles
b. Perinatal exposure
c. Multiple sex partners
d. Teeth cleaning

A

d. Teeth cleaning

53
Q

A farmer steps on a rusty nail and the puncture site becomes swollen and painful. Tetanus antitoxin is prescribed. The nurse explains that this is used because it:

a. Stimulates plasma cells
b. facilitates long-lasting immunity
c. Provide antibodies
d. produces active immunity

A

c. Provide antibodies

54
Q

A patient is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse is preparing to discuss discharge instructions. Which of the following would not be including in the instructions?

a. “Activity will need to be decreased during an exacerbation.”
b. “Sunbathing decreases symptoms.
c. “Body temperature should be monitored.”
d. “Corticosteroid treatment must be slowly tapered off.”

A

b. “Sunbathing decreases symptoms.

55
Q

Antibodies responsible for allergic reactions:

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. IgG

A

c. IgE

56
Q

A series of enzymatic proteins in the serum that, when activated destroy bacteria and other cells.

a. stem cells
b. platelets
c. RBC
d. WBC

A

c. RBC

57
Q

Mr. X is tested positive for HIV. The nurse interprets it as:

a. antibodies to HIV are present in the blood
b. patient is immune to the virus
c. patient have AIDS
d. antibodies to HIV are not present in the blood

A

a. antibodies to HIV are present in the blood

58
Q

A health care provider has accidentally been stuck with a used needle. The health care provider is going to be tested for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the following would be the testing schedule for the health care provider?

a. Tested in six months and then again in one year.
b. Tested immediately and then again at two months
c. Tested immediately and then again at six months
d. Tested at two months, four months, and then at six months

A

c. Tested immediately and then again at six months

59
Q

One of the drug prescribed for Dennis is Sustiva. It acts by:

a. attaching to the reverse transcriptase enzyme
b. prevent the protease enzyme from cutting HIV viral protein
c. act by becoming part of the HIVs DNA and derails its building process
d. all of the above

A

a. attaching to the reverse transcriptase enzyme

60
Q

After years of unprotected sex, a 20 y.o. man is diagnosed as having AIDS. The client states, “I’m not worried because they have a cure for AIDS”. The best response by the nurse should be:

a. “Repeated phlebotomies may be able to rid you of the virus”
b. There is no cure for AIDS but there are drugs that can slow down the virus”
c. You may be cured of of AIDS after prolonged pharmacologic therapy”
d. Perhaps you should have worn condoms to prevent contracting the virus”

A

b. There is no cure for AIDS but there are drugs that can slow down the virus”

61
Q

Is a cell structure specialized to cell adhesion

a. dystonin
b. desmogleins
c. hemidesmosomes
d. desmosomes

A

d. desmosomes

62
Q

Non specific host defense mechanism that slows down the rate of growth of certain pathogens

a. immunity
b. inflammation
c. fever
d. All

A

c. fever

63
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about the HIV?

a. can survive outside the body
b. it is a cellular parasite
c. it is a retrovirus, RNA virus
d. carries genetic material DNA

A

c. it is a retrovirus, RNA virus

64
Q

In pemphigoid, the immunoglobulin is targeted to the:

a. dystonin
b. desmosomes
c. hemidesmosomes
d. keratinocytes

A

c. hemidesmosomes

65
Q

Four 6-month-old children arrived at the center for DPT immunization. Which of the following children can safely receive the immunization at this time?

a. The child with a runny nose and cough
b. The child with difficulty breathing after the last immunization
c. The child with a temperature of 39.4°c
d. The child taking prednisone for the treatment of leukemia

A

a. The child with a runny nose and cough

66
Q

Substances that invoke fever are referred to as:

a. pyrogens
b. macrophages
c. pathogens
d. interferons

A

a. pyrogens

67
Q

Normal protective immune response paradoxically turns against or attacks the body, leading to tissue damage:

a. gammopathies
b. autoimmunity
c. immune deficiency
d. hypersensitivity

A

b. autoimmunity

68
Q

Defense mechanisms directed against a particular foreign substance or pathogen that entered the body.

a. immunity
b. specific host defenses
c. inflammation
d. C and A

A

b. specific host defenses

69
Q

Natural passive acquired immunity would result from:

a. ingesting colostrums
b. having measles
c. receiving gamma globulins
d. receiving an attenuated vaccine

A

a. ingesting colostrums

70
Q

Which of the following tests can be used to initially identify human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies present?

a. enzyme immunoassay
b. IgG count
c. Western Blot Assay
d. CD4T cell count

A

a. enzyme immunoassay

71
Q

Dennis, 56 years old and a homosexual was diagnosed with HIVAIDS. The risk factor that cause the transmission of HIV-AIDS for Dennis could be:

a. Sexual relations
b. born to a mother with HIV infection
c. Blood transfusion
d. Injection drug use

A

a. Sexual relations

72
Q

Substances that stimulate the immune system to produce antibodies

a. complements
b. B cells
c. antigens
d. T cells

A

c. antigens

73
Q

A pregnant woman diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is asking about her baby’s risk of infection. Which of the following does put the newborn at risk?

a. Vaginal birth
b. Changing diapers
c. Bottle-feeding
d. Kissing the baby

A

a. Vaginal birth

74
Q

Is a defect in gluten metabolism.

a. bullous dermatoses
b. psoriasis
c. dermatitis herpetiformis
d. bullous pemphigoid

A

c. dermatitis herpetiformis

75
Q

Client Anna develops allergy to pollens. She has what type of hypersensitivity reactions?

a. Type 4
b. Type 2
c. Type 1
d. Type 3

A

c. Type 1

76
Q

Immunity that is acquired in response to the entry of live pathogens

a. Natural passive acquired immunity
b. artificial active acquired immunity
c. Natural active acquired immunity
d. artificial passive acquired immunity

A

c. Natural active acquired immunity

77
Q

He asked the nurse how the HIV is transmitted. The possible answer of the nurse will include:

a. All
b. blood and seminal fluid
c. amniotic fluid
d. vaginal secretions and breast milk

A

a. All

78
Q

The nurse knows that drugs considered as the only most important treatment for SLE is:

a. NSAIDS
b. antimalarial drugs
c. corticosteroids
d. methothrexate

A

c. corticosteroids

79
Q

Each of the following is considered a part of the body’s second line of defense EXCEPT

a. fever
b. inflammation
c. complement cascade
d. lysozyme

A

d. lysozyme

80
Q

Protection is usually long-lasting:

a. artificial passive acquired immunity
b. Natural active acquired immunity
c. Natural passive acquired immunity

A

b. Natural active acquired immunity

81
Q

When approaching homosexual clients with AIDS, it is more important for nurses to:

a. Pay particular attention to establishing a meaningful rapport
b. Have a strong sense of their own sexual identity
c. Admit their own feelings of discomfort to the clients
d. Become aware of their own attitudes regarding homosexuality

A

a. Pay particular attention to establishing a meaningful rapport

82
Q

Immunity that is acquired when a person receives gamma globulins

a. artificial passive acquired immunity
b. Natural passive acquired immunity
c. artificial active acquired immunity
d. Natural active acquired immunity

A

a. artificial passive acquired immunity

83
Q

It is the loss of the intercellular connections such as desmosomes, resulting in loss of cohesion between keratinocyte.

a. desmogleins
b. keratinocytes
c. desmosomes
d. acantholysis

A

d. acantholysis

84
Q

Rid the body of unwanted or harmful substances:

a. fever
b. kinins
c. phagocytes
d. all

A

c. phagocytes

85
Q

Immunity that results from the active production or receipt of antibodies during one’s lifetime is called:

a. acquired immunity
b. innate immunity
c. natural immunity

A

a. acquired immunity

86
Q

It is considered the first line of host defense following antigen exposure:

a. inflammatory response
b. physical and chemical barriers
c. natural immunity
d. immune regulation

A

a. inflammatory response

87
Q

Which of the following is not a consequence of activation of the complement system?

a. Attraction and activation of leukocytes
b. Initiation and amplification of inflammation
c. Repair of damaged tissue
d. Increased phagocytosis

A

c. Repair of damaged tissue

88
Q

Believed to be the main cause of dermatitis herpetiformis.

a. bacteria
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. glutein

A

d. glutein

89
Q

Which of the following is not part of the body’s first line of defense?

a. skin
b. perspiration
c. fever
d. pH of the stomach ccontents

A

c. fever

90
Q

Which of the following does not always occur during inflammation?

a. edema
b. heat
c. pain
d. loss of function

A

d. loss of function

91
Q

What type of isolation should the nurse prepare for a client with HIV?:

a. reverse
b. general
c. respiratory
d. enteric

A

a. reverse

92
Q

A patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is sitting alone crying. Which of the following is an appropriate response for the nurse to give?

a. “Let me call your doctor about your depression.”
b. “What’s wrong now?”
c. “Everything will be okay.”
d. “Would you like to talk?”

A

d. “Would you like to talk?”

93
Q

Which of the following foods is not a cause of dermatitis herpitiformis?

a. rice
b. rye
c. wheat
d. barley

A

a. rice

94
Q

A protein that helps hold skin cells together

a. keratinocytes
b. desmoglein
c. hemidesmosomes
d. desmosomes

A

d. desmosomes

95
Q

A nurse is assigned to care for a client with AIDS. The nurse develops a plan of care for the client and includes which priority client goal in the plan?

a. The client moves through the grief process
b. The client will not have sexual relations during the remainder of the pregnancy
c. The client will not experience development of an opportunistic infection during the remainder of the pregnancy.
d. The nurse knows about local AIDS support group

A

c. The client will not experience development of an opportunistic infection during the remainder of the pregnancy.

96
Q

Humans do not get some of the infectious diseases that animals have.

a. passive immunity
b. natural immunity
c. acquired immunity
d. artificial immunity

A

b. natural immunity

97
Q

A protein substance developed by the body in response to and interacting with a specific antigen.

a. antigen
b. antibody
c. cytokines
d. interferons

A

b. antibody

98
Q

Immunity that is involved in the production of antibodies

a. Cell-mediated immunity
b. Passive Immunity
c. Acquired Immunity
d. Humoral immunity

A

d. Humoral immunity

99
Q

Defense mechanism that serve to protect the body from a variety of foreign substances or pathogens

a. antibodies
b. inflammation
c. immunity
d. specific host defenses

A

c. immunity

100
Q

Allan is a 55 year old patient with a history of HIV. Who is hospitalized with fever, chills, and cough that has lasted for 5 days. The doctor suspects Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia. Which of the following isolation precautions should be instituted with Allan?

a. standard precautions
b. blood and body 7uid precautions
c. enteric precautions
d. no isolation precautions are needed at this time

A

a. standard precautions

101
Q

A nurse is teaching a small group about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) at a health clinic. Which of the following statements by the group will need further clarification?

a. “Needles should never be reused or shared.”
b. “Exposure can occur to a baby during pregnancy.”
c. “Condoms should be used during sexual contact.”
d. “HIV-infected mothers can breastfeed their babies.”

A

d. “HIV-infected mothers can breastfeed their babies.”

102
Q

A client diagnosed with AIDS is admitted to the hospital. The nurse develops a plan of care and determines that which intervention is the priority?

a. Identifying the ways that AIDS can be contracted by others
b. Discussing the ways that the client contracted the AIDS virus.
c. Providing emotional support to the client.
d. Instituting measures to prevent infection in the client

A

d. Instituting measures to prevent infection in the client

103
Q

The CD4 T cell count of a client with HIV is expected to be:

a. low
b. normal
c. Option 4
d. high

A

a. low

NCM 112 (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions