MRCS May 2/52 Flashcards

1
Q

Muscles supplied by deep branch of ulnar nerve

A
Hypothenar muscles
All interossei muscles
Ulnar 2 lumbricals
Adductor pollicis 
medial head of flexor pollicis brevis
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2
Q

Describe the ulnar paradox

A

Flexion of LF and RF at MCPJ but not at DIPJ (less clawing) due to more proximal ulnar injury causing dysfunction of ulnar half of FDP (FDS still functional)

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3
Q

Claw hand VS hand of benediction

A

Claw hand is a sign during attempted extension, indicating distal ulnar injury due to loss of ulnar 2 lumbricals

Hand of benediction is an active sign seen on flexion of fingers with a proximal median nerve injury due to loss of FDS and radial half of FDP, but functional ulnar half of FDP

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4
Q

What is ape hand?

A

Sign at rest, due to median nerve injury, thumb will be extended at rest

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5
Q

Which level of sympathetic ganglia are responsible for sweating in the arms

A

T2 T3 make the hand sweat free

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6
Q

Which C spine level is the hyoid, thyroid cartilage prominence and cricoid cartilage?

A

Hyoid - C3
Thyroid artilage - C4
Cricoid inferior edge - c6

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7
Q

Where does the trachea begin and at what lvl?

A

At the inf edge of cricoid cartilage at c6

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8
Q

What does obturator nerve supply

A

Medial compartment of thigh

External obturator, Adductor longus, adductor brevis, medial part of adductor magnus, gracilis

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9
Q

where is the azygos vein in relation to the bronchus

A

lies superior to right main bronchus

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10
Q

origin and course of azygos vein

A

right common iliac vein -> right ascending lumbar vein -> azygos vein (posterior mediastinum) arches over right bronchus and enters SVC

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11
Q

origin and course of inferior mesenteric vein

A

anorectal vein -> IMV -> splenic vein -> hepatic portal vein

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12
Q

what are top two most common histology found in gallbladder cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma ~90%

squamous cell carcinoma ~10%

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13
Q

what is the MOA of heparin?

A

binds to antithrombin III and enhances it’s effect

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14
Q

which thyroid hormone is most active peripherally

A

T3

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15
Q

what kind of gait is seen in common peroneal nerve injury?

A

high shuffling gait - patient lifts foot higher to clear the dropped foot

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16
Q

what electrolyte abnormality can be seen in heparin use? why?

A

hyperkalaemia due to aldosterone inhibition

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17
Q

what is thrombophlebitis migrans associated with? what is the sign called?

A

visceral cancer - pancreas, lung, stomach, GU tract - AKA trosseau’s sign of malignancy, due to hypercoagulable state caused by cancer

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18
Q

which sinus most commonly causes osteomyelitis as a complication?

A

frontal

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19
Q

what is codman’s triangle and what is it a sign of

A

radiological appearance of new bone forming under periosteum causing elevation of periosteum. a/w osteosarcomas or ewings sarcoma

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20
Q

what type of antibodies are responsible for hyperacute rejection reactions

A

IgG

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21
Q

which HLA class rejection is worst of all?

A

HLA class 1 rejection

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22
Q

what is beck’s triad?

A

hypotension
quiet heart sound
raised JVP

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23
Q

which type of colonic polyps have the highest risk of malignant transformation

A

Villous adenomas

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24
Q

which part of the urethra does semen enter?

A

prostatic urethra

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25
describe the production of semen
sperm move from testes towards ejaculatory duct where seminal vesicles add fluid to it, then goes through prostatic duct where prostate adds fluid to it, finally the bulbourethral gland adds fluid to it
26
what is the function of protein c
inactives factor Va and VIIIa
27
which thyroid artery is closely related to the external laryngeal nerve?
superior thyroid artery
28
which structure does the ayzgous vein travel with as it passes through the diaphragm? what lvl?
aorta and thoracic duct at T12
29
in men, which structures arise from the embryological mesonephric ducts?
the genitourinary system: collecting tubules, renal pelvis, calyces, ureter, vas deferens, epididymis, seminal vesicle
30
what is the goldstandard investigation for DVT
venography, but venous duplex is more commonly used
31
where is secretin produced in the GIT?
duodenum
32
what is the role of secretin
stimulate pancreatic enzyme release
33
what stimulates release of secretin
acid gastric chyme in ddnm
34
which syndrome is the amsterdam criteria useful for?
lynch syndrome
35
what is the amsterdamn criteria
3 colorectal cancers 2 generations apart 1 < 50 y/o
36
what does PEEP and IPPV do to intracranial pressure?
increases
37
how does IPPV affect cardiac output and BP
decreases cardiac output, reduces blood pressure due to increases intrathoracic pressure
38
what forms the medial border of the hasselbach triangle
linea semilunaris - lateral aponeurosis of rectus sheath
39
what is a spigelian hernia?
hernia through linea semilunaris
40
where does the inferior epigastric vessels perforate the rectus abdominis?
arcuate line
41
where are spiegellian hernias commonly seen
at the intersection of linea semilunaris and the arcuate line
42
which artery supplies the lateral nasal wall and nasal septum?
sphenopalatine artery
43
describe the blood supply of the nose
1) ICA branches -> opthalmic artery -> anterior and posterior ethmoid arteries 2) ECA branches -> sphenopalatine, greater palatine, sup. labial and angular arteries
44
what supplies the superior portion of the nose
anterior and posterial ethmoid arteries
45
what is the kiesselbach plexus?
point of anatamoses of 3 main blood supplies to the nose -> sphenopalatine, anterior, posterior ethmoid art.
46
what veins does the superior sagittal sinus receive blood from
superior cerebral veins
47
where does the superior sagittal sinus drain into
confluence of sinus
48
what drains into the cavernous sinuses
sup. & inf. opthalmic veins, sphenoparietal sinus, superficial middle cerebral vein
49
where do the cranial nerves 1 to 12 exit the skull?
``` CN 1 - cribiform plate CN 2 - optic canal CN 3, 4, V1, 6 - SOF CN V2 - foramen rotundum CN v3 - foramen ovale C7 - internal acoustic meatus - stylomastoid foramen CN 8 - internal acoustic meatus CN 9 - jugular foramen CN 10 - jugular foramen CN 11 - jugular foramen CN 12 - hypoglossal canal ```
50
what investigation required to diagnose hereditary haemochromatosis?
liver biopsy
51
where does iron sequester in the liver between hereditary haemochromatosis VS 2ndary iron overload?
in HH - parenchymal cells | in 2ndary causes - kuppfer cells
52
in suspicion of DDH in newborns, when should the US scan be scheduled for?
4-6 weeks to allow some to resolve by themselves
53
when is a single or double pneumatic cuff used?
single cuff - e.g. knee arthroscopy | double cuff - biers block
54
what is linitis plastica?
a type of gastric adenocarcinoma
55
in what form is most of CO2 transported to the lungs?
form of bicarbonate ions
56
which nerve supplies taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue
glosspharyngeal (CN IX)
57
which nerve supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
chorda tympani
58
which nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
V3 via lingual nerve
59
which nerve supplies general sensation to posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
glosspharyngeal CN IX
60
what facia lies posterior to the ascending colon?
gerota's fascia AKA anterior renal fascia
61
what is the posterior renal fascia also called
zuckerkandl's fascia
62
what does the APC gene do? what type of gene is it?
controls cell growth and reproduction, tumour supression gene
63
which peritoneal structure is attached to the pancreas
transverse mesocolon
64
what plane is the pancreas on
transpyloric plane at L1
65
what is the relation between the pancreas and the two kidneys
head of pancreas lies next to the hilum of right kidney | but the tail of the pancreas is anterior to the left kidney
66
which part of the pancreas does the SMV pass behind of
the body of the pancreas
67
which cell receptor is associated with HIV entry into cells
CCR-5
68
what do barlow's and ortolani's test test for
barlows check if the hip is dislocatable | ortolani check if it's dislocated and relocatable
69
what is the MOA of rapamycin? what is it AKA? what is it used as?
inhibits interleukin 2, AKA sirolimus, used as immunosuppressant in organ transplants
70
what is the narrowest and widest part of the male urethra?
membranous is narrowest, prostatic is widest
71
Dystrophic calcification vs metastatic calcification
Dystrophic Calc - in damaged/necrotic tissues, happens in normal range serum calcium e.g. atherosclerosis, TB, more localised Metastatic calc - in high serum calcium, diffused calcification in multiple areas of the body
72
which complement is polymerised to from MAC
C9
73
what is the final product of the classical, alternative and lethicin pathway in complement system
c3 convertase
74
what is C3b involved in
1) activation and formation of MAC | 2) opsonisation of pathogens to induce phagocytosis
75
what is c3a and c5a involved in
recruitment of phagocytes and stimulators of inflammation
76
what are the complements involved in MAC formation
c3b -> c5b c6 c7 c8 [c9]
77
what is the origin of the sural nerve
tibial nerve
78
what nerve supplies cutaneous sensation to the medial posterior lower limb (calf) and its origin
saphenous nerve
79
what nerve supplies sensation to the skin over the head of the fibular
lateral sural nerve
80
what is the alcock canal AKA? what is inside? what is it formed by
aka pudendal canal, contains internal pudendal artery and veins, and pudendal nerve, formed by fascia of obturator internus
81
what can pulmonary wedge pressure be used to help diagnose
a raised PWP can be used to diagnosed pulmonary edema due to left heart failure
82
what does pulmonary wedge pressure measure?
pressure in left atrium
83
which veins would oseophageal varices be found in? which part of the oseophagus do they drain and where do they drain into?
superficial oesophageal veins, drains lower 1/3 of oseophagus, drains into left gastric vein and then portal vein
84
what is the arterial blood supply of the oseophagus?
upper 1/3 - branches from inf thyroid artery middle 1/3 - branches from thoracic aorta lower 1/3 - oseophageal branches from left gastric art
85
where does the eustachian tube drain into?
nasopharynx
86
enlargement if what tonsils can cause glue ear ?
adenoids
87
what muscle attaches to the eustachian tube ?
tensor vili palitini
88
what happens to eustachian tube during swallowing
closes
89
what are the muscles innervated by trigeminal
v3 innervates tensor tympani tensor vili palitini mylohyoid anterior belly of digastric
90
what does anterior branch of v3 innervate
ipsilateral inner cheek mucosa
91
what does gluteus medius and minimus attach to?
lateral surface of greater trochanter of the hip
92
what does gluteus maximus attach to?
gluteal tuberosity of femur
93
where do the external rotators of the hip attach to?
medial, posterior and superior surface of greater trochanter of the hip
94
which bone is the carotid canal on
temporal bone
95
common cancers that mets to bone
particular tumours like killing bone | prostate thyroid lung kidney breast
96
according to ATLAS 2018 formula, how much fluids should be given in burn patients in the first 24h?
2mls X weight X TBSA %
97
what L-spine level is the transpyloric plane found?
L1 lower border
98
what can be found at the transpyloric plane
1st part of duodenum, pylorus of stomach, fundus of gallbladder, origin of hepatic portal vein, transverse mesocolon, splenic hilum
99
injury to which nerve causes numbness of medial upper arm in axillary node clearance?
intercostobrachial nerve < lateral cutaneous branch < 2nd intercostal nerve (T2)
100
what forms the medial, super, infe, lat, ant, post and floor of the axilla?
medial: serratus anterior, ribs 1-4 superior: first rib, clavicle, superior scapula infe: skin, subcut tissue and axillary fascia lat: bicipital groove ant: pect major and minor post: lats dorsi, teres maj, subscap, humerus, scapula floor: axillary fascia