Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCS study > MRCS May 2/52 > Flashcards

MRCS May 2/52 Flashcards

1
Q

Muscles supplied by deep branch of ulnar nerve

A 
Hypothenar muscles
All interossei muscles
Ulnar 2 lumbricals
Adductor pollicis 
medial head of flexor pollicis brevis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the ulnar paradox

A

Flexion of LF and RF at MCPJ but not at DIPJ (less clawing) due to more proximal ulnar injury causing dysfunction of ulnar half of FDP (FDS still functional)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Claw hand VS hand of benediction

A

Claw hand is a sign during attempted extension, indicating distal ulnar injury due to loss of ulnar 2 lumbricals

Hand of benediction is an active sign seen on flexion of fingers with a proximal median nerve injury due to loss of FDS and radial half of FDP, but functional ulnar half of FDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is ape hand?

A

Sign at rest, due to median nerve injury, thumb will be extended at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which level of sympathetic ganglia are responsible for sweating in the arms

A

T2 T3 make the hand sweat free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which C spine level is the hyoid, thyroid cartilage prominence and cricoid cartilage?

A

Hyoid - C3
Thyroid artilage - C4
Cricoid inferior edge - c6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does the trachea begin and at what lvl?

A

At the inf edge of cricoid cartilage at c6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does obturator nerve supply

A

Medial compartment of thigh

External obturator, Adductor longus, adductor brevis, medial part of adductor magnus, gracilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where is the azygos vein in relation to the bronchus

A

lies superior to right main bronchus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

origin and course of azygos vein

A

right common iliac vein -> right ascending lumbar vein -> azygos vein (posterior mediastinum) arches over right bronchus and enters SVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

origin and course of inferior mesenteric vein

A

anorectal vein -> IMV -> splenic vein -> hepatic portal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are top two most common histology found in gallbladder cancer?

A

adenocarcinoma ~90%

squamous cell carcinoma ~10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the MOA of heparin?

A

binds to antithrombin III and enhances it’s effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which thyroid hormone is most active peripherally

A

T3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what kind of gait is seen in common peroneal nerve injury?

A

high shuffling gait - patient lifts foot higher to clear the dropped foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what electrolyte abnormality can be seen in heparin use? why?

A

hyperkalaemia due to aldosterone inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is thrombophlebitis migrans associated with? what is the sign called?

A

visceral cancer - pancreas, lung, stomach, GU tract - AKA trosseau’s sign of malignancy, due to hypercoagulable state caused by cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which sinus most commonly causes osteomyelitis as a complication?

A

frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is codman’s triangle and what is it a sign of

A

radiological appearance of new bone forming under periosteum causing elevation of periosteum. a/w osteosarcomas or ewings sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what type of antibodies are responsible for hyperacute rejection reactions

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which HLA class rejection is worst of all?

A

HLA class 1 rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is beck’s triad?

A

hypotension
quiet heart sound
raised JVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which type of colonic polyps have the highest risk of malignant transformation

A

Villous adenomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which part of the urethra does semen enter?

A

prostatic urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

describe the production of semen

A

sperm move from testes towards ejaculatory duct where seminal vesicles add fluid to it, then goes through prostatic duct where prostate adds fluid to it, finally the bulbourethral gland adds fluid to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the function of protein c

A

inactives factor Va and VIIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which thyroid artery is closely related to the external laryngeal nerve?

A

superior thyroid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

which structure does the ayzgous vein travel with as it passes through the diaphragm? what lvl?

A

aorta and thoracic duct at T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

in men, which structures arise from the embryological mesonephric ducts?

A

the genitourinary system: collecting tubules, renal pelvis, calyces, ureter, vas deferens, epididymis, seminal vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the goldstandard investigation for DVT

A

venography, but venous duplex is more commonly used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where is secretin produced in the GIT?

A

duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the role of secretin

A

stimulate pancreatic enzyme release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what stimulates release of secretin

A

acid gastric chyme in ddnm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

which syndrome is the amsterdam criteria useful for?

A

lynch syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the amsterdamn criteria

A

3 colorectal cancers
2 generations apart
1 < 50 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what does PEEP and IPPV do to intracranial pressure?

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how does IPPV affect cardiac output and BP

A

decreases cardiac output, reduces blood pressure due to increases intrathoracic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what forms the medial border of the hasselbach triangle

A

linea semilunaris - lateral aponeurosis of rectus sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is a spigelian hernia?

A

hernia through linea semilunaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

where does the inferior epigastric vessels perforate the rectus abdominis?

A

arcuate line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

where are spiegellian hernias commonly seen

A

at the intersection of linea semilunaris and the arcuate line

42
Q

which artery supplies the lateral nasal wall and nasal septum?

A

sphenopalatine artery

43
Q

describe the blood supply of the nose

A

1) ICA branches -> opthalmic artery -> anterior and posterior ethmoid arteries
2) ECA branches -> sphenopalatine, greater palatine, sup. labial and angular arteries

44
Q

what supplies the superior portion of the nose

A

anterior and posterial ethmoid arteries

45
Q

what is the kiesselbach plexus?

A

point of anatamoses of 3 main blood supplies to the nose -> sphenopalatine, anterior, posterior ethmoid art.

46
Q

what veins does the superior sagittal sinus receive blood from

A

superior cerebral veins

47
Q

where does the superior sagittal sinus drain into

A

confluence of sinus

48
Q

what drains into the cavernous sinuses

A

sup. & inf. opthalmic veins, sphenoparietal sinus, superficial middle cerebral vein

49
Q

where do the cranial nerves 1 to 12 exit the skull?

A 
CN 1 - cribiform plate
CN 2 - optic canal
CN 3, 4, V1, 6 - SOF
CN V2 - foramen rotundum
CN v3 - foramen ovale
C7 - internal acoustic meatus - stylomastoid foramen
CN 8 - internal acoustic meatus
CN 9 -  jugular foramen
CN 10 - jugular foramen
CN 11 - jugular foramen
CN 12 - hypoglossal canal
50
Q

what investigation required to diagnose hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

liver biopsy

51
Q

where does iron sequester in the liver between hereditary haemochromatosis VS 2ndary iron overload?

A

in HH - parenchymal cells

in 2ndary causes - kuppfer cells

52
Q

in suspicion of DDH in newborns, when should the US scan be scheduled for?

A

4-6 weeks to allow some to resolve by themselves

53
Q

when is a single or double pneumatic cuff used?

A

single cuff - e.g. knee arthroscopy

double cuff - biers block

54
Q

what is linitis plastica?

A

a type of gastric adenocarcinoma

55
Q

in what form is most of CO2 transported to the lungs?

A

form of bicarbonate ions

56
Q

which nerve supplies taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue

A

glosspharyngeal (CN IX)

57
Q

which nerve supplies taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

chorda tympani

58
Q

which nerve supplies general sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

V3 via lingual nerve

59
Q

which nerve supplies general sensation to posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

glosspharyngeal CN IX

60
Q

what facia lies posterior to the ascending colon?

A

gerota’s fascia AKA anterior renal fascia

61
Q

what is the posterior renal fascia also called

A

zuckerkandl’s fascia

62
Q

what does the APC gene do? what type of gene is it?

A

controls cell growth and reproduction, tumour supression gene

63
Q

which peritoneal structure is attached to the pancreas

A

transverse mesocolon

64
Q

what plane is the pancreas on

A

transpyloric plane at L1

65
Q

what is the relation between the pancreas and the two kidneys

A

head of pancreas lies next to the hilum of right kidney

but the tail of the pancreas is anterior to the left kidney

66
Q

which part of the pancreas does the SMV pass behind of

A

the body of the pancreas

67
Q

which cell receptor is associated with HIV entry into cells

A

CCR-5

68
Q

what do barlow’s and ortolani’s test test for

A

barlows check if the hip is dislocatable

ortolani check if it’s dislocated and relocatable

69
Q

what is the MOA of rapamycin? what is it AKA? what is it used as?

A

inhibits interleukin 2, AKA sirolimus, used as immunosuppressant in organ transplants

70
Q

what is the narrowest and widest part of the male urethra?

A

membranous is narrowest, prostatic is widest

71
Q

Dystrophic calcification vs metastatic calcification

A

Dystrophic Calc - in damaged/necrotic tissues, happens in normal range serum calcium e.g. atherosclerosis, TB, more localised
Metastatic calc - in high serum calcium, diffused calcification in multiple areas of the body

72
Q

which complement is polymerised to from MAC

A

C9

73
Q

what is the final product of the classical, alternative and lethicin pathway in complement system

A

c3 convertase

74
Q

what is C3b involved in

A

1) activation and formation of MAC

2) opsonisation of pathogens to induce phagocytosis

75
Q

what is c3a and c5a involved in

A

recruitment of phagocytes and stimulators of inflammation

76
Q

what are the complements involved in MAC formation

A

c3b -> c5b c6 c7 c8 [c9]

77
Q

what is the origin of the sural nerve

A

tibial nerve

78
Q

what nerve supplies cutaneous sensation to the medial posterior lower limb (calf) and its origin

A

saphenous nerve

79
Q

what nerve supplies sensation to the skin over the head of the fibular

A

lateral sural nerve

80
Q

what is the alcock canal AKA? what is inside? what is it formed by

A

aka pudendal canal, contains internal pudendal artery and veins, and pudendal nerve, formed by fascia of obturator internus

81
Q

what can pulmonary wedge pressure be used to help diagnose

A

a raised PWP can be used to diagnosed pulmonary edema due to left heart failure

82
Q

what does pulmonary wedge pressure measure?

A

pressure in left atrium

83
Q

which veins would oseophageal varices be found in? which part of the oseophagus do they drain and where do they drain into?

A

superficial oesophageal veins, drains lower 1/3 of oseophagus, drains into left gastric vein and then portal vein

84
Q

what is the arterial blood supply of the oseophagus?

A

upper 1/3 - branches from inf thyroid artery
middle 1/3 - branches from thoracic aorta
lower 1/3 - oseophageal branches from left gastric art

85
Q

where does the eustachian tube drain into?

A

nasopharynx

86
Q

enlargement if what tonsils can cause glue ear ?

A

adenoids

87
Q

what muscle attaches to the eustachian tube ?

A

tensor vili palitini

88
Q

what happens to eustachian tube during swallowing

A

closes

89
Q

what are the muscles innervated by trigeminal

A

v3 innervates

tensor tympani
tensor vili palitini
mylohyoid
anterior belly of digastric

90
Q

what does anterior branch of v3 innervate

A

ipsilateral inner cheek mucosa

91
Q

what does gluteus medius and minimus attach to?

A

lateral surface of greater trochanter of the hip

92
Q

what does gluteus maximus attach to?

A

gluteal tuberosity of femur

93
Q

where do the external rotators of the hip attach to?

A

medial, posterior and superior surface of greater trochanter of the hip

94
Q

which bone is the carotid canal on

A

temporal bone

95
Q

common cancers that mets to bone

A

particular tumours like killing bone

prostate thyroid lung kidney breast

96
Q

according to ATLAS 2018 formula, how much fluids should be given in burn patients in the first 24h?

A

2mls X weight X TBSA %

97
Q

what L-spine level is the transpyloric plane found?

A

L1 lower border

98
Q

what can be found at the transpyloric plane

A

1st part of duodenum, pylorus of stomach, fundus of gallbladder, origin of hepatic portal vein, transverse mesocolon, splenic hilum

99
Q

injury to which nerve causes numbness of medial upper arm in axillary node clearance?

A

intercostobrachial nerve < lateral cutaneous branch < 2nd intercostal nerve (T2)

100
Q

what forms the medial, super, infe, lat, ant, post and floor of the axilla?

A

medial: serratus anterior, ribs 1-4
superior: first rib, clavicle, superior scapula
infe: skin, subcut tissue and axillary fascia
lat: bicipital groove
ant: pect major and minor
post: lats dorsi, teres maj, subscap, humerus, scapula
floor: axillary fascia

MRCS study (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions