Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MRCS study > MRCS april 4/52 > Flashcards

MRCS april 4/52 Flashcards

1
Q

which lymph nodes would a tumor of the inferior auricle and lobule drain into

A

superficial cervical nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which lymph nodes would a tumor of the lateral auricle and upper half of ear drain into

A

superficial parotid nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which lymph nodes would a tumor of the cranial surface of superior half of the ear drain into

A

deep cervical and mastoid nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

compartments of lower leg

A

anterior, fibular, deep posterior superficial posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

innervation of anterior compartment of leg?

A

deep peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

innervation of peroneal compartment of leg ?

A

superficial peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

innervation of superficial posterior compartment of leg?

A

tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

innervation of deep posterior compartment of leg?

A

tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what structures pass thru the parotid gland

A

facial nerve
external carotid
retromandibular vein
auriculotemporal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

lymph drainage if parotid gland

A

deep cervical nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

invasion of what breast structure causes retraction and dimpling?

A

breast ligament and duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

nerve root supply of breast

A

t4-t6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

arterial supply of breast

A

internal and external mammary arteries

thoraco acromial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

lymph drainage of rectum

A 
mesorectal nodes (superior dentate line)
inguinal nodes (infe dentate line)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how can u tell the diff between sigmoid colon and rectum

A

rectum does not have taenia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the important fascial layers anterior and posterior to the rectum?

A

anteriorly: fascia of Denonvilliers
posterior: waldeyers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does spironolactone cause gynaecomastia ?

A

anti androgenic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

common complication in chemotherapy extravasation?

A

ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what to do in event of doxorubicin extravasation

A

stop infusion, elevate, cold compress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what drugs/compounds would indicate warm compress in extravasation events

A

vinc alkaloids,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when to give hyaluronidase in extravasation events

A

tpn, contrast media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

does phrenic nerve pass anterior or posterior to scalenus anterior ?

A

anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

insertion of psoas muscle ?

A

lesser trochanter of femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what nerve innervates the adrenal medulla, what neurotransmitter does it release and what is its effect ?

A

splanchnic nerves -> acetyl coline -> release of adrenaline and norad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what type of dressing/compound/solution to use for exuberant granulation tissue on healing wound

A

topical silver nitrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

characteristics of osteoid osteoma - who gets it, how does it present, where is it found most often, how does it look on xray?

A

younger 10-25 YO
pain that responds to nsaids
usually in cortex of femur or tibia
<1cm lesions with lucent core and sclerotic edges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

antbx are use prior to mayo repair of para umbilical hernia repair. t or f

A

false, no mash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the margins required for excision of skin SCC and what determines it ?

A

> 20mm is 6mm marginn

<20mm is 4mm margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which part of the face would radiotherapy be unsafe for skin cancer

A

prone to radionecrosis eg nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most common cardiac emergency in pregnant women

A

mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the superficial veins of the lower leg?

A

short saphenous vein

long saphenous vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

name all the veins of the lower limb up till iliac vein

A

(anterior tibial vein + posterior tibial vein + peroneal vein) + (gastrocnemius vein + soleal vein) + (short saphenous vein) -> popliteal vein -> superficial femoral vein + great saphenous vein + femoral profunda veins -SFJ—> iliac vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

course of SFV and GSV?

A

SFV is on lateral side, over lateral malleolus, joins at popliteal vein

GSV goes over medial malleollus and joins at SFJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how many points of communication are there between superficial and deep vein system in lower limb?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

why is it important to differentiate primary vs secondary cause of varicose veins

A

in secondary varicose veins, surgical stripping is not an option as patient will not have viable deep venous system for return of venous blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are symptoms of varicose veins

A

cosmetic, itching, aching, bleeding
thrombophlebitis, engorgement, ankle swelling
haemosiderin deposition, venous stasis eczema, lipodermatosclerosis
venous ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

risk factors for varicose veins

A 
age 50-60s
female
pregnancy
obese
prev DVT
prolonged standing occupation
pelvic malignancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

investigation of varicose veins

A

hand held doppler, duplex us, venography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

options in mx of varicose veins

A

conservative - compression bandage, stockings

surgical - sclerotherapy, endoluminal RF ablation or laser, surgical stripping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

indications for splenectomy post trauma?

A

hilar injuries
major haemorrhage
large associated injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what kind of incision is used for traumatic splenectomy?

A

midline incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what post-op antibiotics should be given post splenectomy?

A

Pen V and pneumococcal vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what kind of spleen injury can be managed conservatively?

A

small subscapular haematoma
minor intra abdominal blood
no hilar disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

production of which clotting agents are inhibited by Warfarin?

A

factor 10 9 7 2 and protein C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

which rib level is the spleen at

A

9 10 11th

46
Q

what are the ant/post/inf/sup/hilar relations of the spleen

A 
anteriorly, the stomach
post, left kidney
inferior, splenic flexure of colon
super: diaphragm 
hilum: tail of pancreas
47
Q

blood supply of spleen

A

coeliac trunk -> splenic artery -> short gastric arteries supply fundus of stomach, splenic artery goes into hilum of spleen, gastroeomental artery supplies body of stomach

48
Q

what nerve supplies the platysma

A

cervical branch of facial nerve

49
Q

where does the facial nerve divide into 5 branches?

A

parotid

50
Q

what lies within the carotid sheath at C7?

A

common carotid, IJV, vagus nerve

51
Q

what are the deep cervical layers in the neck? at C7

A

investing sheath - surrounds everything under the subcutaneous layer

prevertebral sheath

carotid sheath

pretracheal sheath

52
Q

what is within the pretracheal sheath at C7?

A

esophagus, trachea and thyroid gland

53
Q

At C7, what muscles lie between investing sheath and pretracheal sheath

A

sternohyoid and omohyoid

54
Q

describe the blood supply of the thyroid gland?

A

superiorly: superior thyroid artery < ECA
inferiorly: inferior thyroid artery < thyrocervical artery < subclavian

55
Q

where does the superior thyroid artery branch of from?

A

ext carotid artery right after the bifurcation of the common carotid

56
Q

what connects the left and right lobe of the thyroid gland?

A

isthmus

57
Q

which cord does the musculocutaenous nerve branch off from the brachial plexus?

A

lateral cord

58
Q

what nerves come off the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

A

subscap (upper and lower)
thoracodorsal
axillary
radial

59
Q

what are the names of the branches of brachial plexus from root to nerve

A

root -> trunks -> division -> cords

60
Q

what are the trunks of the brachial plexus

A

superior, middle and inferior trunk

61
Q

what are the divisions of the brachial plexus

A 
anterior division of superior trunk
posterior division of superior trunk
anterior division of middle trunk
posterior division middle trunk
posterior division of inferior trunk
62
Q

what forms the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?

A

the posterior division of superior, middle and inferior trunks

63
Q

what forms the lateral cord of the brachial plexus?

A

anterior division of superior trunk

anterior division of middle Itrunk

64
Q

what forms the medial cord of the brachial plexus?

A

anterior div of inferior trunk

65
Q

which cord supply the median nerve?

A

lateral cord and medial cord

66
Q

which cord does the radial nerve come off?

A

posterior cord

67
Q

which cord does the ulnar nerve come off?

A

medial cord

68
Q

where does the cephalic vein usually drain into

A

axillary vein

69
Q

what is the vein that crosses the anatomical snuffbox?

A

cephalic vein

70
Q

what is a potts fracture and how is it sustained?

A

forced foot eversion

bimalleolar ankle fracture

71
Q

what is a barton’s fracture and it’s key feature?

A

fall onto extended and pronated wrist
fracture of distal radius with radiocarpal dislocation
involvement of joint is key feature

72
Q

difference between pri hyperparathyroidism and famlial hypocalciuria hypercalcaemia

A

FHH has mildly high calcium, normal PTH and low 24hr urine calcium excretion

73
Q

what is the likely primary for a hypervascular boney metastasis?

A

renal cancer

74
Q

5 common cancers that spread to bone?

A 
breast
bronchus
prostate
renal 
thyroid
75
Q

mechanism of action of doxorubicin and epirubicin?

A

inhibition of DNA/RNA formation by intercalation of base pairs

76
Q

e.g of chemotherapy agent that works by inhibiting topoisomerase II?

A

etoposide

77
Q

how do platinum based chemotherapy agents work?

A

crosslinks DNA molecules distorting shape, induces apoptosis

78
Q

e.g. of an akylating chemotherapy agent

A

cyclophosphamide

79
Q

how does an alkylating chemotherapy agent work?

A

forms DNA cross links and induces apoptosis

80
Q

how does tamoxifen work?

A

selective estrogen receptor inhibitor

inhibits breast ER, but induces peripheral ER

81
Q

what increased cancer risks does tamoxifen bring about? why?

A

increased endometrial cancer due to peripheral ER stimulating effects

82
Q

what cancer is EBV associated with

A

burkitt’s lymphoma
hodgkin’s lymphoma
post transplant lymphoma
nasopharyngeal carcinoma

83
Q

describe brown seqard syndrome

A

hemisection of spinal cord causing
ipsilateral loss of proprioception, motor and vibratory sense
and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

84
Q

where does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

at the level of the spinal cord

85
Q

where does the dorsal column tract decussate?

A

medulla

86
Q

which spinal tract carries fine touch, vibration and proprioception?

A

dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway

87
Q

which spinal tract carries pain and temperature sensation?

A

lateral spinothalamic tract

88
Q

what does the anterior spinothalamic tract carry?

A

crude touch

89
Q

what holds the spinal cord within the dural sheath

A

denticulate ligaments

90
Q

difference in presentation between a breast fibroadenoma and a breast cyst

A

fibroadenoma usually younger premenopausal females, firm mobile mass, non tender, non fluctuant

breast cyst usually in perimenopausal females, soft, fluctuant

91
Q

boundaries of hesselbachs triangle

A

medially rectus abdominis
laterally inferior epigastric arteries
inferiorly inguinal ligament

92
Q

hernia within hesselbachs triangle is direct or indirect?

A

direct

93
Q

what type of paediatric hernias have to be repaired immediately?

A

premature neonates with hernias at birth - highest risk of strangulation

94
Q

herniotomy VS herniorapphy vs hernioplasty

A

herniotomy: sac ligated and excised
herniorapphy: herniotomy + posterior wall repair
hernioplasty: herniorapphy + reinforcement with mesh

95
Q

what type of hernia repair is commonly done in children?

A

herniotomy

96
Q

relations of the subclavian vein

A

inferiorly: 1st rib
posteriorly: scalenius anterior
anteriorly: middle 3rd of clavicle

97
Q

what separates the subclavian artery and the subclavian vein

A

scalenus anterior

98
Q

which is more anterior, subclavian artery or vein?

A

vein

99
Q

what muscle lies posterior to external jugular vein?

A

inferior belly of omohyoid

100
Q

conservative management options for female urinary bladder incontinence: stress vs urge ?

A

urge: bladder drill training for 6 weeks
stress: pelvic floor exercises for 3 months

101
Q

when should urodynamic studies be done?

A

if etiology not evident from history

or prior to surgery

102
Q

management options for female urge incontinence?

A

bladder training for 6 weeks
oxybutinin (antimuscarinic drug)
sacral nerve stimulation

103
Q

when is a urethral sling type operation done?

A

in female stress incontinence after failure of conservative measures

104
Q

what attaches periosteum to bone?

A

sharpey’s fibres

105
Q

describe schatzkers classification for tibea plataeu fractures

A

1) split in lateral condyle
2) depression in lateral plataeu
3) split and depression in lateral condyle and plataeu
4) split of medial tibia plataeu
5) both medial and lateral condyle fracture
6) condylar, subcondylar highly comminuted fracture dissociation of metaphysis

106
Q

how does 5 FU work?

A

mimics uracil, and incorporates itself into RNA

107
Q

what is the common histology for anal cancer

A

squamous cell carcinoma

108
Q

what accompanies the aorta as it passes thru the diaphragm and at what leve?

A

T12, thoracic duct

109
Q

which structure does the vagus nerve travel with and what level does it go through the diaphragm?

A

oesophagus - T10

110
Q

what does the right phrenic nerve go with when it traverses the diaphragm and at hwat level?

A

T8, Inf Vena cava

111
Q

how does the left phrenic nerve enter the thorax

A

pierces the diaphragm on its own on the left side

MRCS study (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions