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KC-46 PIQ > MQF (CAO May 2023) > Flashcards

MQF (CAO May 2023) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the KC-46A?

A

40,100 feet PA

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2
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude?

A

9,500 feet PA

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3
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight?

A

416,000 pounds

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4
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight?

A

415,000 pounds

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5
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

A

273,000 pounds

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6
Q

What is the Basic Crew of a KC-46?

A

1x AC, 1x Pilot, and 1x Boom Operator

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7
Q

Add _____ additional crew member(s) certified in passenger handling to the mission when passengers (Space-A/Duty Pax) are carried on _____ leg. Add another additional crew member certified in passenger handling (two total) to the mission when over _____ passengers are carried on any leg.

A

1; any; 42

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8
Q

_____ boom operator(s) is/are required on missions with planned cargo or AE. An FB supervised by an IB is equivalent to _____ MB(s)?

A

Two; one

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9
Q

The maximum FDP for a basic crew is _____ hours (_____ hours when automation cannot be fully utilized). All AAR and tactical events will be accomplished within the first _____ hours of the FDP.

A

16; 12; 12

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10
Q

Minimum runway length is _____ feet. Minimum runway width is _____ feet. Minimum taxiway width is _____ feet.

A

7,000; 147; 74

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11
Q

A crewmember who is non-current in takeoff (AT59YM), instrument approach (AP15YM), or landing (AL01YM) will _____.

A

Be supervised on all sorties until currency is regained

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12
Q

When lowering forward entry door, stand clear of the door _____, as the _____ may move as the door is lowered.

A

Handle, handle

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13
Q

Although the main cargo door structure will withstand gusts up to _____ knots in the full open position, the door cannot be opened or closed against steady winds exceeding _____ knots.

A

65, 40

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14
Q

When operating with less than nominal external power delay _____ until after engines are started.

A

Activation of remaining hydraulic and fuel pumps; setting trim; checking flight controls - ALL OF THE ABOVE

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15
Q

During the Electrical Power Up procedure, after selecting Batter switch to ON and Standby Power selector to AUTO, verify _____ and _____ lights illuminate and _____ light(s) extinguish(es).

A

MAIN BAT DISCHARGE and APU BAT DISCH; standby bus OFF

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16
Q

Do not transmit on HF ratios during/when _____?

A

Ground refueling operations; any personnel are within 30 feet of the aircraft hull, using headsets connected to the exterior of the airplane, or in proximity to an open aircraft door

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17
Q

During the Preliminary Preflight Procedure, prior to moving the IRS Mode Selectors from OFF to NAV, how many seconds must you wait?

A

10 sec

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18
Q

During the Preliminary Preflight Procedure, when checking the status display, what must you verify are sufficient for flight?

A

Oxygen pressure, hydraulic quantity, and engine oil quantity

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19
Q

The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of _____ consecutive starts or attempts within a _____ minute period.

A

3, 60

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20
Q

Coordination with ground crew is required prior to which of the following items?

A

Airplane movement; Air Refueling System operation; Hydraulic system pressurization/flight control movement - ALL OF THE ABOVE

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21
Q

Avoid weather radar operation _____.

A

In a hangar; when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome

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22
Q

T/F: The parking brake must be set in order to check the brake wear indicators during the exterior inspection.

A

True

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23
Q

Approximately how many brake applications are possible with a fully charged brake accumulator?

A

4

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24
Q

What must be accomplished before the flight instrument check during the Preflight Procedure?

A

Initial data and navigation data entries

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25
Q

The maximum allowable on-the-ground differences between Captain or First Officer altitude displays and the field elevator for RVSM operation at sea level is _____ feet, at 5,000 feet is _____ feet and at 10,000 feet is _____ feet.

A

75; 75; 75

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26
Q

T/F: Standby altimeters do not meet altimeter accuracy requirements of Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM).

A

True

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27
Q

T/F: MIL GPS is not authorized for RNP operations.

A

True

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28
Q

In order for LAIRCM initialization to complete _____ must be loaded.

A

MIL GPS keys

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29
Q

Do not set the LAIRCM mode to _____ until all ground personnel are clear of the aircraft. Rapid movement of the LAIRCM _____ can cause injury if personnel are in close proximity.

A

OPR; turrets

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30
Q

Do not push the _____ switch on the ground. The switch causes _____.

A

RAM AIR TURBINE, deployment of the ram air turbine

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31
Q

Do not put objects between the _____ and the _____. Injury can occur when the _____ is adjusted.

A

Seat; aisle stand; seat

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32
Q

T/F: Start the Before Start Procedure after the required papers are on board, and all landing gear pins are verified removed and stowed.

A

True

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33
Q

What is the ARO coordination in the pilot Before Start Procedure?

A

Confirm ARO is at crew position; Taxi and Takeoff briefings complete

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34
Q

T/F: If the tow bar is connected, do not pressurize the hydraulic systems until the nose gear steering is locked out.

A

True

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35
Q

Maximum motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than _____% in approximately _____ seconds.

A

1, 5

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36
Q

During engine start in sandy or dusty environments, allow maximum motoring for _____ minute(s) to help remove contaminants.

A

2

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37
Q

When operating in dusty environments, run the APU for _____ full minute(s) before using it as a bleed air source.

A

1

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38
Q

Do not increase the thrust above that required to taxi until the oil temperature is a minimum of _____ degrees C.

A

50

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39
Q

Do the Aborted Engine Start checklist for one or more of the following abort start conditions:

A

EGT does not increase by 20 seconds after fuel control switch is moved to RUN or EGT quickly needs or exceeds start limit; No N1 rotation by 40% N2; N2 is not at idle by 2 minutes after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN; Oil pressure indication is not normal by the time the engine is stabilized at idle - ALL OF THE ABOVE

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40
Q

Stabilized fuel flow indications in excess of _____ within a few seconds after setting the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN can be an indication of an _____.

A

1200 pph; impending hot start

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41
Q

Do not use engine anti-ice on the ground when OAT is above _____ degrees C.

A

10

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42
Q

Personnel should plan taxi and towing operations so that no part of an aircraft is within _____ horizontal feet of any obstruction without wing walkers. Do not operate aircraft within _____ horizontal feet of any obstruction.

A

25; 10

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43
Q

T/F: During taxi out in cold weather operations, differential thrust may be used to help maintain aircraft momentum during turns.

A

True

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44
Q

During the Before Taxi Procedure, after the LEFT and RIGHT ISOLATION switches are switched Off, what must you verify?

A

ENG BLEED OFF messages not shown; engine bleed air OFF lights are extinguished

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45
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind components?

A

10 knots

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46
Q

What is the runway slope limit?

A

+/- 2 percent

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47
Q

T/F: If windshear is suspected, takeoff with full rated takeoff thrust is recommended, unless the use of a fixed derate is required to meet a dispatch performance requirement.

A

True

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48
Q

If windshear is suspected during takeoff, _____.

A

Use Flaps 20 for optimum takeoff performance unless limited by obstacle clearance and/or climb gradient; Consider increasing Vr speed to the performance limited gross weight rotation speed, not to exceed actual gross weight Vr+20 knots; Use the flight director after takeoff - ALL OF THE ABOVE

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49
Q

T/F: Takeoffs are not recommended when wet snow depth is more than 1/2 inches or dry snow depth is more than 4 inches.

A

True

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50
Q

During LNAV and VNAV operations, verify all changes to the airplane’s _____.

A

Course; Vertical path; Thrust; Speed - ALL OF THE ABOVE

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51
Q

T/F: Before takeoff, the engine oil temperature must be above the amber band.

A

True

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52
Q

Which of the following is not one of the engine warm up recommendations when the engines have been shut down for more than 2 hours (there is no need to delay the takeoff for these recommendations)?

A

Engine oil temperature must be above the lower amber band before takeoff

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53
Q

Takeoff into headwinds of _____ or greater may result in _____ before the auto throttle can make final thrust adjustment. If the thrust levers do not advance to the planned takeoff thrust, manually advance the thrust levers before _____.

A

20 knots; THR HLD; 80 knots

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54
Q

Do not use _____ without verifying that runway length and obstacles do not limit takeoff performance.

A

FMC generated V speeds

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55
Q

What is V1 defined as?

A

The maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speedbrakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance; The minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of an engine at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance

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56
Q

Takeoff performance assumes the engine failure or event occurs _____ second(s) before V1. In a runway limited situation, this means the airplane reaches a height of _____ feet over the end of the runway if the decision is to continue the takeoff.

A

1; 35

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57
Q

After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below _____ feet AGL.

A

200

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58
Q

With all engines operating, what are the general pilot “Q” tolerances for heading, airspeed, and altitude?

A

Heading: +/- 5 degree; Airspeed: +10/-5 knots; Altitude: +/-100 feet

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59
Q

Do not use engine or wing anti-ice when TAT (in-flight) is above _____ degrees C.

A

10

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60
Q

Do not rely on _____ before activating engine anti-ice.

A

Airframe visual icing cues

61
Q

T/F: Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

A

True

62
Q

The minimum altitude for flap retraction is _____ feet.

A

400

63
Q

The first step in the ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist is:

A

A/T ARM switch….OFF

64
Q

The ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist directs that for an engine-out landing, use flaps _____ for landing and flaps _____ for go-around.

A

20; 5

65
Q

The severe turbulent air penetration speed is _____.

A

290 KIAS/.78 Mach, whichever is lower

66
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between the Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operation is _____ feet.

A

200

67
Q

Use of bleed air above _____ feet pressure altitude is prohibited.

A

17,000

68
Q

The maximum altitude with flaps extended is _____ feet pressure altitude.

A

20,000

69
Q

T/F: Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g., large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below VA.

A

True

70
Q

Do not use the _____ or Tactical Situational Awareness System (TSAS) display for navigation.

A

Terrain display

71
Q

T/F: The autothrottle should be off in severe turbulence.

A

True

72
Q

During flight in IMC, avoid flying directly over significant amber or red radar returns, _____.

A

Even if there are no returns at airplane altitude

73
Q

Dry contacts are prohibited within _____ NM of weather that is known or suspected to be producing lightning.

A

25

74
Q

Start the Rendezvous Procedure no later than _____ minutes prior to first planned ARCT. Complete the Rendezvous Procedure prior to receiver(s) reaching _____ NM in trail.

A

30; 1

75
Q

When completing the Rendezvous Procedure, on the TACAN page (NAV RAD 2/2) enter the proper channel and mode settings. To enable both bearing and range information, set MODE to _____ and BRG MODE to _____.

A

BCN; INV

76
Q

For onloads, verify/enter the onload quantity on the ONLD CTRL page. The onload value cannot be entered or modified while the AERIAL REFUELING selector is set to _____.

A

ONLOAD

77
Q

When either tanker or receiver, start the Prep for Contact Procedure when _____ is established between the receiver and tanker aircraft.

A

Visual contact; Radio contact

78
Q

As the tanker set the TCAS MODE to _____, or as the receiver set the XPDR MODE to _____.

A

TA; STBY

79
Q

Do not transmit on HF radios _____.

A

During air refueling operations within 30 feet of another aircraft

80
Q

The speed operational envelope for deploying the boom, stowing the boom, and operating with the boom down is _____. However, operation above _____ knots with the boom deployed is limited to the extent required to perform the breakaway maneuver or the required emergency.

A

180 - 325 KCAS; 325 KCAS or 0.84 Mach

81
Q

During cases of emergency or urgent operational need, WARP drogues can be safely retracted up to _____. The left WARP coupler shroud will likely be dented/damaged by contact with the WARP exit tunnel upon retraction faster than _____.

A

325 KCAS/0.84 Mach; 275 KCAS

82
Q

Fuel offload via the WARPs with the wing vent valves failed closed _____.

A

Could rupture the fuel tanks; Could cause severe structural damage

83
Q

Start the Post-Air Refueling Procedure when _____ and the tanker and receiver aircraft are _____. Complete the Post-Air Refueling Procedure prior to _____.

A

Refueling operations are terminated; separated from each other; the Descent Procedure

84
Q

Coordinate with the ARO to ensure the Boom or CDS Fill procedure is complete, if applicable, before moving the _____ selector out of _____.

A

AERIAL REFUELING; OFFLOAD

85
Q

Start the Descent Procedure before the airplane descends below _____.

A

The cruise altitude for arrival at destination

86
Q

Complete the Descent Procedure by _____ feet MSL.

A

10,000

87
Q

The Approach Procedure is normally started at _____.

A

Transition level

88
Q

Complete the Approach Procedure before:

A

The initial approach fix; the start of radar vectors to the final approach course; the start of a visual approach - ALL OF THE ABOVE

89
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below _____ feet AFE.

A

1,000

90
Q

For an instrument approach using IAN, select the G/S prompt OFF _____.

A

If flying an ILS approach where the G/S transmitter is inoperative; when he G/S data is unreliable

91
Q

The final approach deviation scales are proportional to RNP. They _____ become more sensitive as ILS/GLS scales do.

A

Do not

92
Q

When using _____ to intercept the localizer, _____ might parallel the localizer without capturing it. The airplane can then descent on the VNAV path with the localizer not captured.

A

LNAV, LNAV

93
Q

Do not use the autopilot below _____ feet radio altitude at airports with field elevations above 6,200 feet.

A

100

94
Q

Automatic approaches must be terminated at no less than _____ feet AGL for airport field elevations between 6,200 feet and 9,500 feet.

A

100

95
Q

From _____ feet HAT to the runway, if the stabilized approach criteria are exceeded, the _____ will announce _____ and the PF will _____.

A

500; PM or other crewmember; Go-around; execute a go-around

96
Q

When performing a missed approach from an ILS or GLS with the autopilot engaged and _____ inoperative, the autopilot releases all _____ inputs immediately after reversion to single channel operation. This can occur as early as the initiation of the go-around/missed approach when above _____ feet AGL. The pilot flying must anticipate this transition and _____ as needed to maintain coordinated flight.

A

One engine; rudder inputs; 200; manually apply rudder

97
Q

According to the ENG FAIL or Engine Shutdown checklist, one engine inoperative landing flap position for landing is flaps _____ and speed _____.

A

20; VREF 20

98
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

310,000 pounds

99
Q

With all engines operating, what are the landing “Q” tolerances for airspeed, touchdown zone, centerline?

A

Airspeed: +10/-5 knots with proper wind corrections; Touchdown zone: 1,000 - 3,000 feet; Centerline: +/-15 feet left or right

100
Q

Touch-and-go landings with passengers or cargo on board are _____. For local training sorties, the _____ may waive this restriction on a case-by-case basis.

A

Prohibited; OG/CC

101
Q

Landing with fuel in the body tanks is _____.

A

Prohibited under non-failure conditions

102
Q

Autoland is limited to what flap setting(s)?

A

25 or 30

103
Q

The maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations are _____ knots headwind, _____ knots crosswind, and _____ knots tailwind.

A

25; 25; 10

104
Q

During the Landing Roll Procedure, when must you disconnect the autopilot?

A

Before turning off the runway

105
Q

During the Landing Roll Procedure, when must you disarm the autobrakes and use manual brakes as needed?

A

Before taxi speed

106
Q

Start the After Landing Procedure when _____.

A

Clear of the active runway

107
Q

What is (are) the engine cooldown recommendations?

A

Run the engines for at least 5 minutes; Use a thrust setting no higher than that normally used for all engine taxi operations

108
Q

During the Shutdown Procedure, depressurize the _____ hydraulic system last to prevent fluid transfer between systems.

A

Right

109
Q

T/F: Do not power LAIRCM off while SYSTEM BUSY is shown on the CIU display. Doing so can corrupt engagement data being written to the HCC.

A

True

110
Q

Do not use the Flight Management Computer (FMC) generated V speeds without verifying that _____ and _____ do not limit takeoff performance.

A

Runway length; obstacles

111
Q

Do not set Large Aircraft Infrared Countermeasures (LAIRCM) mode to _____ until all ground personnel are clear of the aircraft. Rapid movement of the LAIRCM turrets can cause injury if personnel are in close proximity.

A

Operate (OPR)

112
Q

Do not select Emission Control (EMCON) 4 to ON until at least _____ above ground level after takeoff. If EMCON 4 is set to ON below _____ above ground level, control column forces during approach to stall may be lighter than normal. Elevator feel returns to normal once a valid radio altitude is received.

A

400 feet

113
Q

Do not use Emission Control (EMCON) 4 below _____ above field elevation during approach.

A

1000 feet

114
Q

With Emission Control (EMCON) 4 set to ON, the following alerts will be disabled:

A

TOO LOW FLAPS, TOO LOW GEAR, DON’T SINK, SINK RATE, GLIDESLOPE, TERRAIN; Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) traffic alerts and resolution advisories; Predictive and reactive windshear alerts - ALL OF THE ABOVE

115
Q

T/F: Severe windshear may exceed the performance capability of the Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS). The pilot flying must be prepared to disconnect the autopilot and autothrottle and fly manually.

A

True

116
Q

Although the door structure will withstand gusts up to _____ knots in the full open position, the door cannot be opened or closed against steady winds exceeding _____ knots. Should it become necessary to lower the door in high winds, the airplane should be positioned with the door opening on the downwind side.

A

65; 40

117
Q

T/F: Do not use windshield wipers on a dry window.

A

True

118
Q

When flying an approach with vertical speed, if required to remain at or above the Minimum Descent Altitude (Height) (MDA[H]) during the missed approach, missed approach must be initiated at least _____ feet above MDA(H).

A

50

119
Q

Do not use Flight Level Change (FLCH) on final approach below _____ feet Above Field Elevation (AFE).

A

1,000

120
Q

Do not operate an aircraft within _____ feet of any obstruction without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not operate closer than _____ feet to any obstruction.

A

25, 10

121
Q

T/F: Air Force pilots may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). The PIC is the final authority whether to takeoff, land, or continue a touch-and-go when LAHSO is in effect.

A

True

122
Q

When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?

A

From just prior to engine start until after engine shutdown

123
Q

You are approach another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?

A

Alter the course to the right to remain well clear, or stop

124
Q

T/F: No HF transmissions are to be made from a tanker or receiver when a receiver is in contact or about to make contact and all HF equipment must be switched to STANDBY/MONITOR when possible.

A

True

125
Q

For all _____ AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when he receiver is within 1/2 NM; this includes datalink.

A

Foreign aircraft

126
Q

The position approximately 50 ft behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes with zero rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position is called:

A

Astern or Pre-contact

127
Q

Tanker responsibilities during a Rendezvous Delta is (are) to:

A

Be at the base AAR altitude; Enter the refueling holding orbit from any direction; Attempt to arrive at least 10 min before ARCT and, normally, establish a left-hand holding pattern using the ARCP as an anchor point - ALL OF THE ABOVE

128
Q

When planning to conduct a Rendezvous G, a common track length is equivalent to _____ min flying time should be planned to allow for tanker descent to RV FL/altitude/height, visual acquisition and timing corrections.

A

15

129
Q

Unless otherwise direction, an altimeter setting of _____ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude, or when over water and operating in accordance with ICAO procedures. When not operating on standard pressure setting, tanker crews _____ to include the altimeter setting in the RV initial call.

A

29.92, are required

130
Q

T/F: Tanker aircrew will advise ATC of tanker and receiver end aerial refueling altitude requests at least five (5) minutes prior to AREX.

A

True

131
Q

Normally, tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle 60 NM long and 25 NM wide with left turns. While established in and awaiting their receivers, tanker aircraft:

A

Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired

132
Q

T/F: Routing and altitude(s) of aircraft established on an approved ALTRV shall not be changed except in the interest of safety of flight or as outlined in Chapter 3 of JO 7610.4V.

A

True

133
Q

To avoid a datalink initialization failure, the flight crew ensures that the flight-specific information entered into the aircraft system is the same as the corresponding details filed _____.

A

In the flight plan

134
Q

After obtaining and reading back the clearance, the pilot should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by _____ minutes or more, unless providing position reports via _____, the pilot must pass a revised estimate to ATC.

A

3; ADS-C

135
Q

If operating on an ALTRV and mission is to be delayed beyond the AVANA time, rescheduling the ALTRV _____.

A

Will normally be in 24-hour increments after the original schedule; Can be in less than the time specified above, subject to CARF discretion and after approval from the affected ARTCC/CERAP/HCF

136
Q

If a logon request has been initiated with incorrect aircraft identification and aircraft registration, the logon process will fail. The flight crew will need to _____.

A

Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request

137
Q

Approximately _____ minutes after exiting CPDLC and/or ADS-C areas, the flight crew should ensure there are no active CPDLC or ADS-C connections.

A

15

138
Q

Experience has shown that many of the track-keeping errors in the NAT MNPS Airspace occur as a result of crews programming the navigation system(s) with incorrect waypoint data. There are referred to as Waypoint Insertion Errors. They frequently originate from:

A

Failure to observe the principles of checking waypoints to be inserted in the navigation systems, against the ATC cleared route; Failure to load waypoint information carefully; Failure to cross-check on-board navigation systems - ANY COMBINATION OF THE ABOVE

139
Q

If OAT is above _____, leave the LAIRCM power off until within _____ minutes before takeoff.

A

38 degrees C/100 degrees F; 25

140
Q

If OAT is above _____, set the LAIRCM power to OFF within _____ minutes after landing.

A

38 degrees C/100 degrees F; 25

141
Q

For takeoff, EMCON 4 must remain _____ until climbing through 400 feel AGL. For landing, EMCON 4 must remain _____ below 1000 feet above field elevation during approach and landing.

A

OFF

142
Q

The _____ mode does not provide automatic low speed protection and permits flight away from selected altitude. For level-off protection, always select new level-off altitude prior to engaging vertical speed mode.

A

Vertical Speed

143
Q

Protection against vapor ignition in the aerial refueling boom and aerial manifold is _____ with the boom isolation valve in the closed position. Therefore, the boom should be powered off when not in use.

A

Maximized

144
Q

Once an AR pump message displays, fuel for approximately _____ minutes of engine operation remains in the center tank. This may not be sufficient to reach a suitable landing surface.

A

15

145
Q

The classified _____ and/or unclassified _____ Data Transfer Devices (DTD) may be inserted by aircrew during the Preliminary Preflight Procedure.

A

2A; 4A

146
Q

What is the required mid field Runway Visual Range (RVR) for a CAT III Fail Operational (FO) ILS approach?

A

600’

147
Q

During Low Visibility approaches, what 2 EICAS alerts must not be shown when planning an AUTOLAND?

A

RUDDER RATIO and ELEVATOR FEEL

148
Q

With Brake Temperature Monitoring System (BTMS) indications above _____, fire and ramp personnel should be alerted.

A

7.0

149
Q

When may the Pattern Checklist be used?

A

Subsequent approaches to the same airfield

KC-46 PIQ (4 decks)

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