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KC-46 PIQ > 2019 MQF > Flashcards

2019 MQF Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the KC-46A?

A

40,100 feet PA

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2
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude?

A

9,500 feet PA

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3
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight of the KC-46A?

A

416,000 pounds

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4
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight of the KC-46A?

A

415,000 pounds

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5
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight?

A

273,000 pounds

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6
Q

What is the basic crew of a KC-46?

A

1x AC, 1x Pilot, and 1x Boom Operator

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7
Q

Add _______ additional crew member(s) certified in passenger handling to the mission when passengers (Space A/Duty Pax) are carried on _______ leg. Add another additional crew member certified in passenger handling (two total) to the mission when over _______ passengers are carried on any leg.

A

1; any; 42

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8
Q

_______ boom operator(s) is/are required on missions with planned cargo or AE. An FB supervised by an IB is equivalent to _______ BO(s).

A

Two; one

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9
Q

The maximum FDP for a basic crew is _______ hours (_______ hours when all three autopilots are inoperative). All AAR and tactical events will be accomplished within the first _______ hours of the FDP.

A

16+00; 12+00; 12+00

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10
Q

The minimum runway length is _______ feet. The minimum runway width is _______ feet. The minimum taxiway length is _______ feet.

A

7,000; 147; 74

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11
Q

A pilot non-current in takeoff (P020), approaches (P070), landings (P190), or landing at night (P192) will _______.

A

Not fly unsupervised on any sortie

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12
Q

When lowering the forward entry door, stand clear of the door _______, as the _______ may move as the door is lowered.

A

Handle, handle

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13
Q

Although the main cargo door structure will withstand gusts up to _______ knots in the full open position, the door cannot be opened or closed against steady winds exceeding _______ knots.

A

65, 40

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14
Q

When operating with less than nominal external power delay _______ until after engines are started.

A

Activation of the remaining hydraulic and fuel pumps, setting trim, and checking flight controls

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15
Q

During the Electrical Power Up procedure, after selecting Battery switch to ON and Standby Power selector to AUTO, which lights do you verify illuminate and what light extinguishes?

A

MAIN BAT DISCH and APU BAT DISCH illuminate; standby bus OFF extinguishes

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16
Q

Do not transmit on any HF radios during/when _______.

A

Ground refueling operations; any personnel are within 30 feet of aircraft hull, using headsets connected to the exterior of the airplane, or in proximity to open aircraft door

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17
Q

During the Preliminary Preflight procedure, prior to moving the IRS Mode Selectors from OFF to NAV, how many seconds must you wait?

A

10

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18
Q

During the Preliminary Preflight procedure, when checking the status display, what specific things are mentioned that you must verify are sufficient for flight?

A

Oxygen pressure, hydraulic quantity, and engine oil quantity

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19
Q

The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of _______ consecutive starts or attempts within a _______ minute period.

A

3, 60

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20
Q

Coordination with ground crew is required prior to which items?

A

Airplane movement, air refueling system operation, hydraulic system pressurization/flight control movement

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21
Q

Avoid weather radar operation _______.

A

In a hangar; within 50 feet of fueling operations or a fuel spill; when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome

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22
Q

T/F: The parking brake must be set in order to check the brake wear indicators during the exterior inspection.

A

True

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23
Q

Approximately how many brake applications are possible with a fully charged brake accumulator?

A

4

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24
Q

What must be accomplished before the flight instrument check during the Preflight procedure?

A

Initial data and navigation data entries

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25
Q

The maximum allowable on-the-ground differences between Captain or F/O altitude displays and the field elevation for RVSM at sea level is _______ feet, at 5,000 feet is _______ and at 10,000 feet is _______ feet.

A

75; 75; 75

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26
Q

T/F: Standby altimeters do not meet altimeter accuracy requirements of RVSM.

A

True

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27
Q

T/F: MIL GPS is not authorized for RNP operations.

A

True

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28
Q

In order for LAIRCM initialization to complete, _______ must be loaded.

A

MIL GPS keys

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29
Q

Do not set the LAIRCM mode to _______ until all ground personnel are clear of the aircraft. Rapid movement of the LAIRCM _______ can cause injury if personnel are in close proximity.

A

OPR; turrets

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30
Q

Do not push the _______ switch on the ground. The switch causes _______.

A

RAM AIR TURBINE; deployment of the ram air turbine

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31
Q

Do not put objects between the _______ and the _______. Injury can occur when the _______ is adjusted.

A

Seat; aisle stand; seat

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32
Q

T/F: Start the Before Start procedure after the required papers are on board, and all landing gear pins are verified removed and stowed.

A

True

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33
Q

What is the ARO coordination in the pilot Before Start procedure?

A

Confirm ARO is ready for engine start and ensure the flight deck door is closed

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34
Q

T/F: If the tow bar is connected, do not pressurize the hydraulic systems until the nose gear steering is locked out.

A

True

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35
Q

Max motoring occurs when N2 acceleration is less than _______% in approximately _______ seconds.

A

1; 5

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36
Q

During engine start in sandy or dusty environments, allow maximum motoring for _______ minute(s) to help remove contaminants.

A

2

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37
Q

When operating in sandy or dusty environments, run the APU for _______ full minute(s) before using it as a bleed air source.

A

1

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38
Q

Do not increase thrust above that required to taxi until the oil temperature is a minimum of _______ degrees C.

A

50

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39
Q

Do the Aborted Engine Start checklist for what abort start conditions?

A

EGT does not increase by 20 seconds after fuel control switch is moved to RUN or EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit; no N1 rotation by 40% N2; N2 is not at idle by 2 minutes after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN; oil pressure indication is not normal by the time the engine is stabilized at idle

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40
Q

Stabilized fuel flow indications in excess of _______ within a few seconds after setting the fuel control switch to RUN can be an indication of an _______.

A

1200 pph; impending hot start

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41
Q

Do not use the engine anti-ice when OAT (on the ground) is above _______ degrees C.

A

10

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42
Q

Do not taxi an aircraft within _______ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least _______ feet from any obstruction. EXCEPTION: IAW AFI 11-218, aircraft may taxi without marshallers/wing walkers at home station along locally established taxiway lines which have been measured to ensure a minimum of _______ feet clearance from any obstruction and the obstruction is permanent.

A

25; 10; 10

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43
Q

T/F: During taxi out in cold weather operations, differential thrust may be used to help maintain airplane momentum during turns.

A

True

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44
Q

During the Before Taxi procedure, after the LEFT and RIGHT ISOLATION switches are switched off, what must you verify?

A

ENG BLEED OFF messages not shown, engine bleed air OFF lights are extinguished

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45
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

A

10 knots

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46
Q

What is the runway slope limit?

A

+/- 2%

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47
Q

T/F: If windshear is suspected, takeoff with full-rated takeoff thrust is recommended, unless the use of a fixed derate is required to meet a dispatch performance requirement.

A

True

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48
Q

If windshear is suspected during takeoff _______.

A

Use Flaps 20 for optimum takeoff performance unless limited by obstacle clearance and/or climb gradient; consider increasing Vr speed to the performance limited gross weight rotation speed, not to exceed actual gross weight Vr+20 knots; use of the flight director after takeoff

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49
Q

T/F: Takeoffs are not recommended when slush, wet snow, or standing water depth is more than 1/2 inch or dry snow depth is more than 4 inches.

A

True

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50
Q

During LNAV and VNAV operations, verify all changes to the airplane’s _______.

A

Course, vertical path, thrust, speed

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51
Q

T/F: Before takeoff, the engine oil temperature must be above the lower amber band.

A

True

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52
Q

Which of the following is not one of the engine warm up recommendations when the engines have been shut down for more than 2 hours (there is no need to delay the takeoff for these recommendations)?

A

Engine oil temperature must be above the lower amber band before takeoff

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53
Q

Takeoff into headwinds of _______ or greater may result in _______ before the auto throttle can make final thrust adjustment. If the thrust levers do not advance to the planned takeoff thrust, manually advance the thrust levers before _______.

A

20 knots; THR HOLD; 80 knots

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54
Q

Do not use _______ without verifying that runway length and obstacles do not limit takeoff performance.

A

FMC generate V speeds

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55
Q

What is V1 defined as?

A

The maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the plane within the accelerate-stop distance; the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of an engine at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the surface takeoff surface within the takeoff distance

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56
Q

Takeoff performance assumed the engine failure or event occurs _______ second(s) before V1. In a runway limited situation, this means the airplane reaches a height of _______ feet over the end of the runway if the decision is to continue the takeoff.

A

1; 35

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57
Q

After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below _______ feet AGL.

A

200

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58
Q

For takeoff, EMCON 4 must remain _______ until climbing through 400 feet AGL. For landing, EMCON 4 must remain _______ below 1000 feet above field elevation during approach and landing.

A

OFF

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59
Q

With all engines operating, what are the general pilot “Q” tolerances for heading, airspeed, and altitude?

A

Heading: +/- 5 degrees; Airspeed + 10/-5 knots; Altitude: +/- 100 feet

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60
Q

Do not use engine or wing anti-ice when TAT (in-flight) is above _______ degrees Celsius.

A

10

61
Q

Do not rely on _______ before activating engine anti-ice.

A

Airframe visual icing cues

62
Q

T/F: Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.

A

True

63
Q

The minimum altitude for flap retraction is _______ feet. The altitude selected for acceleration and flap retraction may be specified for each airport.

A

400

64
Q

The first step in the Engine Fire or Engine Severe Damage or Separation checklist is _______.

A

A/T ARM SWITCH…….OFF

65
Q

The Engine Fire or Severe Damage or Separation checklist directs that, for an engine-out landing, use flaps _______ for landing and flaps _______ for go-around.

A

20; 5

66
Q

The turbulent air penetration speed is s_______.

A

290 KIAS or 0.78 Mach, whichever is lower

67
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and F/O altitude displays for RVSM operation is _______ feet.

A

200

68
Q

The APU bleed air is available up to approximately _______ feet.

A

17,000

69
Q

The maximum altitude for flap extension is _______ feet MSL.

A

20,000

70
Q

T/F: Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g., large slide slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below VA.

A

True

71
Q

Do not use _______ for navigation.

A

Terrain display

72
Q

T/F: The autothrottle should be off in severe turbulence.

A

True

73
Q

During flight in IMC, avoid flying directly over significant amber or red returns, _______.

A

Even if there are no returns at airplane altitude

74
Q

The minimum distance from any weather capable of producing lightning while conducting dry contact aerial refueling is _______ NM.

A

25

75
Q

Start the Rendezvous procedure no later than _______ minutes prior to first planned ARCT. Complete the Rendezvous procedure prior to receiver(s) reaching _______ NM in trail.

A

30; 1

76
Q

When completing the Rendezvous procedure, on the TACAN page (NAV RAD 2/2), enter the proper channel and mode settings. To enable both bearing and range information between suitably equipped aircraft, set MODE to _______ and BRG MODE to _______.

A

BCN; INV

77
Q

When completing the Rendezvous procedure, on the THRUST LIM page, select _______ to set the EPR bugs to maximum continuous thrust.

A

CON

78
Q

For onloads, verify/enter the onload quantity on the ONLD CTRL page. The onload value cannot be entered or modified while the AERIAL REFUELING selector is set to _______.

A

ONLOAD

79
Q

When either tanker or receiver, start the Prep for Contact procedure when _______ is established between the tanker and receiver aircraft.

A

Visual contact

80
Q

As the tanker set the TCAS MODE to _______, or as the receiver set the XPDR MODE to _______.

A

TA; STBY

81
Q

Do not transmit on HF radios _______.

A

During air refueling operations within 30 feet of another aircraft

82
Q

The speed operational envelope for deploying the boom, stowing the boom, and operating with the boom down is _______. However, operation above _______ knots with the boom deployed is limited to the extent required to perform the breakaway maneuver or the required emergency maneuver.

A

180 - 325 KCAS; 325 KCAS

83
Q

During cases of emergency or urgent operational need, WARP drogues can be safely retracted up to _______. The left WARP coupler shroud will likely be dented/damaged by contact with the WARP exit tunnel upon retraction faster than _______.

A

325 KCAS or 0.84 Mach; 275 KCAS

84
Q

Fuel offload via the WARPS with the wing vent valves failed closed _______.

A

Could rupture the fuel tanks; could cause severe structural damage

85
Q

ACs may perform receiver AR from the right seat under what conditions?

A

Authorized by SQ/CC and with direct IP supervision; after SQ/CC AC right seat receiver air refueling certification

86
Q

With the autopilot off, during tanker A/R, what are the “Q” tolerances for airspeed, altitude, and heading?

A

Airspeed: +15/-10 KIAS; Altitude: +/- 300 feet; Heading: +/- 10 degrees

87
Q

The _______ mode does not provide automatic low speed protection and permits flight away from selected altitude. For level-off protection, always select new level-off altitude prior to engaging vertical speed mode.

A

Vertical speed

88
Q

Start the Post-Air Refueling procedure when _______ and the tanker and receiver aircraft are _______. Complete the Post-Air Refueling procedure prior to _______.

A

Refueling operations are terminated; separated from each other; the Descent procedure

89
Q

Coordinate with the ARO to ensure the Boom or CDS Fill procedure is complete, if applicable, before moving the _______ selector out of _______.

A

AERIAL REFUELING; OFFLOAD

90
Q

Start the Descent procedure before the airplane descends below _______.

A

The cruise altitude for arrival at destination

91
Q

Complete the Descent procedure by _______ feet MSL.

A

10,000

92
Q

The Approach procedure is normally started at _______.

A

Transition level

93
Q

Complete the Approach procedure before:

A

The initial approach fix; the start of radar vectors to the final approach course; the start of a visual approach

94
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below _______ feet AFE.

A

1,000

95
Q

For an instrument approach using IAN, select the G/S prompt OFF _______.

A

If flying an ILS approach where the G/S transmitter is inoperative; when the G/S data is unreliable

96
Q

The final approach deviation scales are proportional to RNP. They _______ become more sensitive as ILS/GLS scales do.

A

Do not

97
Q

When using _______ to intercept the localizer, ________ might parallel the localizer without capturing it. The airplanes can then descend on the VNAV path with the localizer not captured.

A

LNAV, LNAV

98
Q

Do not use the autopilot below _______ feet radio altitude at airports with field elevations above 6,200 feet.

A

100

99
Q

Automatic approaches must be terminated at no less than _______ feet AGL for airport field elevations between 6,200 feet and 9,500 feet.

A

100

100
Q

From _______ feet HAT to the runway, if the stabilized approach criteria for minor deviations are exceeded the _______ will announce _______ and the PF will _______.

A

500; PM or other crew member; Go-around; execute a go-around

101
Q

WARNING: When performing a missed approach from an ILS or GLS with the autopilot engaged and _______ inoperative, the autopilot releases all _______ inputs immediately after reversion to single channel operation. This can occur as early as the initiation of the go-around/missed approach when above _______ feet AGL. The pilot flying must anticipate this transition and _______ as needed to maintain coordinated flight.

A

One engine; rudder inputs; 200; manually apply rudder

102
Q

According to the Engine Failure or Shutdown checklist, one engine inoperative landing flap position for landing is flaps _______ and speed _______.

A

20; VREF 20

103
Q

What is the maximum landing weight?

A

310,000 pounds

104
Q

With all engines operating, what are the landing “Q” tolerances for airspeed, touchdown zone, centerline, and TCH (airspeed tolerances apply to computed threshold speed)?

A

Airspeed: +10/-5 KIAS with proper wind corrections; Touchdown zone: 1,000 - 3,000 feet; Centerline: +/- 15 feet left or right

105
Q

Pilots _______ fly touch-and-go landings with passengers or hazardous cargo on board. Touch-and-go landings and stop-and-go landings are _______ with MEP on board.

A

Shall not; authorized

106
Q

Landing with fuel in the body tanks is _______.

A

Prohibited under non-failure conditions

107
Q

Auto land is limited to what flap setting(s)?

A

25 and 30

108
Q

The maximum allowable wind speeds when landing weather minima are predicated on auto land operations are _____ knots headwind, _______ knots crosswind, and _______ knots tailwind.

A

25; 25; 10

109
Q

During the Landing Roll procedure, when must you disconnect the autopilot?

A

Before turning off the runway

110
Q

During the Landing Roll procedure, when must you disarm the autobrakes and use manual brakes as needed?

A

Before taxi speed

111
Q

Start the After Landing procedure when _______.

A

Clear of the active runway

112
Q

What is (are) the engine cool down recommendation(s)?

A

Run the engines for at least 5 minutes; use a thrust setting no higher than that normally used for all engine taxi operations

113
Q

During the Shutdown procedure, depressurize the _______ hydraulic system last to prevent fluid transfer between systems.

A

Right

114
Q

T/F: Do not power the LAIRCM off while SYSTEM BUSY is shown on the CIU display. Doing so can corrupt engagement data being written to the HCC.

A

True

115
Q

Do not use the FMC generated V speeds without verifying that _______ and _______ do not limit takeoff performance.

A

Runway length; obstacles

116
Q

Do not set LAIRCM mode to ______ until all ground personnel are clear of the aircraft. Rapid movement of the LAIRCM turrets can cause injury if personnel are in close proximity.

A

Operate (OPR)

117
Q

Fuel offload via the WARPS with the wing vent valves failed _______ could rupture the fuel tanks and cause severe structural damage.

A

CLOSED

118
Q

Protection against vapor ignition in the aerial refueling boom and aerial manifold is _______ with the boom isolation valve in the closed position. Therefore, the boom should be powered off when not in use.

A

maximized

119
Q

Do not select Emission Control (EMCON) 4 to ON until at least _______ above ground level after takeoff. If EMCON 4 is set to ON below _______ AGL, control column forces during approach to stall may be lighter than normal. Elevator feel returns to normal once a valid radio altitude is received.

A

400 feet

120
Q

Do not use EMCON 4 below _______ AFE during approach.

A

1000 feet

121
Q

With EMCON 4 set to ON, the _______ alerts will be disabled.

A

TOO LOW FLAPS, TOO LOW GEAR, DON’T SINK, SINK RATE, GLIDESLOPE; TCAS traffic alerts and resolution; predictive and reactive windshear alerts

122
Q

T/F: Severe windshear may exceed the performance capability of the AFDS. The PF must be prepared to disconnect the autopilot and autothrottle and fly manually.

A

True

123
Q

Although the door structure will withstand gusts up to _______ knots in the full open position, the door cannot be opened or closed against steady winds exceeding _______ knots. Should it become necessary to lower the door in high winds, the airplane should be positioned with the door opening on the downwind side.

A

65; 40

124
Q

T/F: Do not use windshield wipers on a dry window.

A

True

125
Q

Once an AR pump message displays, fuel for approximately _______ minutes of engine operation remains in the center tank. This may not be sufficient enough to reach a suitable landing surface.

A

15

126
Q

When flying an approach with V/S, if required to maintain at or above the MDA(H) during the missed approach, missed approach must be initiated at least _______ feet above the MDA(H).

A

50

127
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below _______ feet AFE.

A

1,000

128
Q

Do not taxi or tow an aircraft within _______ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between the aircraft and the obstruction. Do not taxi aircraft closer than _______ feet to any obstruction.

A

25; 10

129
Q

T/F: Air Force pilots may passively participate in LAHSO (land or take-off when another aircraft has been given a LAHSO clearance). PIC is the final authority whether to takeoff, land or continue a touch-and-go when a merging aircraft has received a LAHSO clearance.

A

True

130
Q

When must aircraft anti-collision lights be displayed?

A

From just prior to engine start until engine shutdown

131
Q

You are approaching another aircraft on the ground head-on. What should you do?

A

Alter the course to the right to remain well clear, or stop

132
Q

T/F: No HF transmissions are to be made from a tanker or receiver when a receiver is in contact or about to make contact and all HF equipment must be switched to STANDBY/MONITOR when possible.

A

True

133
Q

For all _______ AARs, do not transmit on the HF radio when the receiver is within 1/2 NM; this includes datalink.

A

Foreign aircraft

134
Q

The position approximately 50 feet behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilized with zero rate of closure before being cleared to the contact position is called _______.

A

Astern or pre-contact

135
Q

Tanker responsibilities during a RV Delta is (are) to:

A

Be at the base AAR altitude; enter the refueling holding orbit from any direction; attempt to arrive at least 15 minute before the RVCT and, normally, establish a left-hand holding pattern using the RVCP as an anchor point

136
Q

When planning to conduct a RV Golf, a common track length equivalent to _______ minutes flying time should be planned to allow for tanker descent to RF FL/altitude/height, visual acquisition and timing corrections.

A

15

137
Q

Unless otherwise directed, an altimeter setting of _______ is to be used for AAR operations at or above transition altitude, or when over water and operating in accordance with ICAO procedures. When not operating on standard pressure settings, tanker crews _______ to include the altimeter setting in the RV initial call.

A

29.92, are required

138
Q

T/F: Tanker crew will advise ATC of tanker and receiver end AR altitude requests at least 5 minutes prior to AREX.

A

True

139
Q

Normally, tanker orbit patterns are located within a rectangle, 60 nm long, 25 nm wide with left turns. While established in and awaiting their receivers, tanker aircraft:

A

Must receive clearance from the box to the IP, if airspace is desired

140
Q

T/F: Routing and altitude(s) of aircraft established on an approved ALTRV shall not be changed except in the interest of safety of flight or as outlined in Chapter 3 of JO 7610.4P.

A

True

141
Q

To avoid an automatic rejection of the logon request, the flight crew ensures that the flight-specific information entered into the aircraft system is the same as the corresponding details filed _______.

A

In the flight plan

142
Q

After obtaining and reading back the clearance, the pilot should monitor the forward estimate for oceanic entry, and if this changes by _______ minutes or more, the pilot must pass a revised estimate to ATC.

A

3

143
Q

If operating on an ALTRV and mission is to be delayed beyond the AVANA time, rescheduling the ALTRV, _______.

A

Will normally be in 24-hour increments after the original schedule; can be in less than the time specified previously, subject to CARF discretion and after approval from the affected ARTCC/CERAP/HCF

144
Q

If a logon request has been initiated with incorrect aircraft identification and aircraft registration, the logon process will fail. The flight crew will need to _______.

A

Correct the information and reinitiate the logon request

145
Q

Approximately _______ minutes after exiting CPDLC and/or ADS-C service areas, the flight crew should ensure there are no active CPDLC or ADS-C connections.

A

15

146
Q

Experience has shown that many of the track-keeping errors in the NAT MNPS Airspace occur as a result of crews programming the navigation system(s) with incorrect waypoint data. There are referred to as Waypoint Insertion Errors. They frequently originate from:

A

Failure to observe the principles of checking waypoints to be inserted in the navigation systems, against the ATC cleared route; failure to load the waypoint information carefully; failure to cross-check on-board navigation systems

147
Q

If OAT is above _______, leave the LAIRCM power off until within _______ minutes before takeoff. Ground ops longer than _______ minutes with OAT above _______ can result in degraded LAICRM performance or LAIRCM failure.

A

38 degrees C or 100 degrees F; 25; 25; 38 degrees C or 100 degrees F

148
Q

If OAT is above _______, set the LAIRCM power off within _______ minutes after landing. Ground ops longer than _______ minutes with OAT above _______ can result in degraded LAIRCM performance or LAIRCM failure.

A

38 degrees C or 100 degrees F; 25; 25; 30 degrees C or 100 degrees F

KC-46 PIQ (4 decks)

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