KC-46 Limitations & Operational Information Flashcards

1
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude of the KC-46A?

A

40,100 feet PA

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2
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude of the KC-46A?

A

9,500 feet PA

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3
Q

What is the maximum takeoff and landing tailwind component?

A

10 knots

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4
Q

What is the maximum runway slope permitted for takeoff and landing in the KC-46A?

A

+/- 2%

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5
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude with the AR receptacle doors open?

A

35,000 feet PA

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6
Q

If icing conditions greater than _______ are encountered while AR equipment is deployed, discontinue AR and stow all equipment until exiting the icing condition.

A

Trace

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7
Q

The minimum fuel temperature to begin AR offload is _______. Fuel temperature on the offloading tanker must be greater than or equal to _______ prior to commencing AR onload.

A

-40 degrees C

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8
Q

Takeoff or landing is prohibited on a contaminated runway when the Pilot Reported Braking Action conditions are _______ or worse (Runway Condition Code _______ or less).

A

Medium-to-Poor; 2

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9
Q

For takeoff, EMCON 4 must remain OFF until climbing through _______. For landing, EMCON 4 must remain OFF below _______ during approach and landing.

A

400 feet AGL; 1000 feet AFE

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10
Q

The use of _______ for RNP approaches is prohibited.

A

Mil-GPS

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11
Q

Severe turbulent air penetration speed is _______/_______, whichever is _______.

A

290 KIAS/0.78M, lower

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12
Q

Do not transmit on HF radios during _______ operations, or during _______ within _______ of another aircraft.

A

Ground refueling, AR, 30 feet

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13
Q

Do not transmit on any HF radios when any personnel are within _______ of the aircraft hull, using _______ connected to the exterior of the airplane, or in proximity to an _______.

A

30 feet, headsets, open aircraft door

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14
Q

The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of _______ consecutive starts or attempts within a _______ period.

A

3; 60 minute

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15
Q

Do not use FLCH on final approach below _______.

A

1000 feet AFE

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16
Q

The maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain and F/O altitude displays for RVSM operation is _______. The maximum allowable on-the-ground differences between Captain and F/O altitude displays for RVSM operation is _______ at sea level, _______ at 5,000 feet, and _______ at 10,000 feet.

A

200 feet; 40 feet; 45 feet; 50 feet

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17
Q

On the ground with the aircraft powered, at least one AC pack must be on for OAT at or above _______. If dispatching with the FWD EQUIP COOLING selector in STBY, AC packs must be on for OAT at or above _______. The maximum OAT for dispatching with the FWD EQUIP COOLING selector in STBY is _______.

A

33 degrees C or 91 degrees F; 18 degrees C or 65 degrees F; 35 degrees C or 95 degrees F

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18
Q

Avoid weather radar operation _______.

A

In a hangar

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19
Q

What is the maximum taxi weight of the KC-46A?

A

416,000 pounds

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20
Q

What is the maximum takeoff weight for the KC-46A?

A

415,000 pounds

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21
Q

What is the maximum landing weight of the KC-46A?

A

310,000 pounds

22
Q

What is the maximum zero fuel weight of the KC-46A?

A

273,000 pounds

23
Q

With autopilot disengaged, disregard any NO AUTOLAND annunciation that occurs at or below _______ while flying an IAN approach.

A

100 feet AGL

24
Q

After takeoff, the autopilot must not be engaged below _______.

A

200 feet AGL

25
Use of _______ with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.
Aileron trim
26
Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must be disengaged below _______.
190 feet radio altitude
27
Do not use the autopilot below _______ at airports with a field elevation greater than _______.
100 feet radio altitude; 6,200 feet
28
Automatic approaches must be terminated at no less than _______ for airport field elevations between _______ and _______.
100 feet AGL; 6,200 feet; 9,500 feet
29
Autoland is limited to flaps _______.
25 or 30
30
What are the maximum allowable headwind, crosswind, and tailwind components when landing weather minima are predicated on autoland operations?
Headwind: 25 knots Crosswind: 25 knots Tailwind: 10 knots
31
Use of APU bleed air above _______ is prohibited.
17,000 feet PA
32
During takeoff, the center tank may contain up to _______ of fuel with less than full _______ tanks provided the _______ weight plus actual ZFW does not exceed the maximum ZFW, and CG limits are observed.
22,050 pounds; main; actual zero fuel
33
For dispatch with fuel temperature below 5 degrees C/41 degrees F, limit fuel quantity in the forward tank to no greater than _______, and in the aft tank no greater than _______.
10,700 pounds; 32,100 pounds
34
Landing with fuel in the _______ tank(s) is prohibited under non-failure conditions.
Body
35
When any body tank contains fuel, use of the FUEL OFF switch to offload fuel is limited to a maximum of _______ above the entered offload amount,
3,000 pounds
36
Fuel density must be between the minimum allowable fuel density of _______ and the maximum allowable fuel density of _______.
6.1 LB/GAL; 7.1 LB/GAL
37
Jettison fuel while _______ is prohibited.
On the ground
38
CDS operation is prohibited when the KC-46A TAT indicates below _______. WARPs operation is prohibited when the TAT is below _______.
-33 degrees C; -40 degrees C
39
The maximum altitude with flaps extended is _______.
20,000 feet PA
40
Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g., large slide slip angles) as they may result in _______ at any speeds, including below _______.
Structural failure, VA
41
The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions are prohibited within _______ of takeoff, approach, or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS database.
15 NM
42
With the boom or any drogue deployed, do not exceed _______ wheel and/or _______ pedal inputs, and avoid abrupt control movements in all axes. AR flight maneuvering load acceleration limits are _______.
Half; half; +1.5g - +0.5g
43
Operation above _______ with the boom deployed is limited to the extent required to perform a breakaway maneuver or required emergency procedure.
325 KIAS or 0.84M
44
Normal WARP operation is limited to flaps _______.
UP, 1, and 5
45
During cases of emergency or urgent operational need, WARP drogues can be safely retracted up to _______. The left WARP coupler shroud may be dented/damaged by contact with the WARP exit tunnel upon retraction at airspeeds above _______.
325 KIAS or 0.84M; 275 KIAS
46
The boom contact envelope is between _______ left and right roll, _______ elevation, and _______ telescope extension. The largest selectable boom disconnect envelope is _______ left and right roll, _______ degrees elevation, and _______ telescope extension.
10 degrees; 25 - 35 degrees; 6 - 21 feet; 25 degrees; 20 - 40 degrees; 6 - 21 feet
47
What are the memory items for an aborted engine start?
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine)……. CUTOFF
48
What are the memory items for an ENGINE FIRE or Engine Severe Damage or Separation?
A/T ARM switch……. OFF Thrust level (affected engine)…….Confirm…….Idle FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine)…….Confirm…….CUTOFF Engine fire switch (affected engine)…….Confirm…….Pull
49
What are the memory items for Smoke, Fire or Fumes?
Don oxygen masks and smoke goggles, as needed…….(ALL) Establish crew and cabin communications…….(ALL)
50
What are the memory items for Dual Engine Failure?
ENG START selectors (both)……. FLT Thrust levers (both)……. Idle FUEL CONTROL switches (both)……. CUTOFF, then RUN
51
What are the memory items for CABIN ALTITUDE or Rapid Decompression?
Don the oxygen masks……. (ALL) Establish crew communications……. (ALL)
52
What are the five reasons to abort an engine start?
1. EGT does not increase by 20 seconds after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN 2. There is no N1 rotation by 40% N2 3. EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit 4. N2 is not at idle by 2 minutes after the fuel control switch is moved to RUN 5. Oil pressure indication is not normal by the time that the engine is stabilized at idle