KC-46 FSI Checkride GK Flashcards

1
Q

What does putting the Main Fuel Standpipe switch to BYPASS allow? How much fuel is left?

A

Allows the transfer of all main tank fuel to the center tank; presence of AP PUMP EICAS message indicates that fuel for approximately 15 minutes of engine operation remains in the center tank; normally, main tank drain is limited to 10,500 pounds remaining

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2
Q

What is the function of the EEC? What limits does it protect under normal operating conditions? In alternate mode?

A

Commands constant engine output for a given thrust lever position; EPR is primary parameter, whereas N1 is secondary; in Primary Control Mode, target EP for the current thrust lever position is computed as a ratio to the full thrust lever position; in alternate control mode, target N1 for current thrust lever position is computed as a ratio to the full throttle position; thrust limit protection is NOT available in the alternate operating mode; EEC provides N1 and N2 redline over speed protection in both modes, but neither mode provides overtemperature protection

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3
Q

What is on the left hydraulic system?

A

Flight controls, right yaw damper, left AR pump, AR boom (alt), CDS (alt), AAR receptacle (alt), RVS door (alt)

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4
Q

What is on the right hydraulic system?

A

Flight controls, normal brakes, pitch enhancement system, right AR pump, AR boom hoist

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5
Q

What is on the center hydraulic system?

A

Flight controls, left yaw damper, NWS, flaps and slats, alternate brakes, landing gear, hydraulic-driven generator, center AR pump, AR boom, CDS, AAR receptacle, RVS door

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6
Q

Why do we pressurize the right hydraulic system first and de-pressurize it last?

A

To prevent fluid transfer between systems

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7
Q

What is the function of the center Air Demand pump? The Pitch Enhancement System?

A

Provides additional hydraulic power either on demand or continuously for period of high system demand; provides a backup hydraulic power source for the electric motor-driven primary pumps; PES consists of a hydraulic motor in the right system driving a pump which uses trapped left trim system fluid to operate the stabilizer; PES is automatically active if both the left and center hydraulic systems are lost in-flight, but only electric trim is available at approximately 1/4 the normal rate, and alternate/automatic trim will be inoperative

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8
Q

What components does the battery bus power?

A

Wing anti-ice, aileron lockout, alternate stabilizer trim, center fuel pumps, fuel cross feed valves, left outboard and left inboard display units, left display control panel, left cursor control device, passenger address, flight and cabin interphone system, cabin altitude control panel and manual outflow valve control, inboard wheel antiskid, autobrakes, automatic speedbrake, independent disconnect

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9
Q

What components does the standby AC bus power?

A

Left MCDU, left VOR, left ADF

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10
Q

What components does the standby DC bus power?

A

Left engine anti-ice, EEC normal mode, rudder trim, left VHF comm system, left COM radio, ISFD power, leading edge slats primary extension, right outboard and right inboard display units

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11
Q

Does placing the APU switch to OFF completely stop operation of the APU?

A

Closes the bleed air valve (if open), initiates the APU cooling cycle, closes the APU fuel valve and inlet door to shut down the APU when the cooling cycle is complete, and resets auto shutdown fault logic

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12
Q

What is the difference between the taxi light and the nose gear landing light?

A

Taxi light is installed on the steerable portion of the landing gear; two nose gear lights are installed on the non-steerable portion of the landing gear and are optimized for approach

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13
Q

What are the differences between the ignition selector modes and when would you use them?

A

GND: opens start selector valve to supply starter air, arms selected igniter(s), and is magnetically held in this position until 50% N2 RPM
AUTO: releases to this position at 50% N2 RPM, closes the start valve and terminates ignition; selected igniter(s) operate continuously with the leading edge slats extended or engine anti-ice on
OFF: no ignition
CONT: selected igniter(s) operate continuously with no time limit
FLT: both igniters operate continuously regardless of ignition selector position, with no time limit

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14
Q

What happens to the ignition selector mode during engine start if you get a L ENG STARTER or R ENG STARTER EICAS message?

A

The selector for the affected engine goes to AUTO to prevent bleed air from entering the starter if the valve subsequently opens

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15
Q

What is the primary function of the Ram Air Turbine and when does it deploy?

A

Provides hydraulic power to the flight controls, boom, 3D camera door, and CDS system of the center hydraulic system; in flight, deploys automatically when both engines fail, or can be deployed manually by pushing the RAM AIR TURB switch; once deployed, cannot be stowed in-flight

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16
Q

When/Why does the L FWD fuel pump pressure light go out when the switch is not in the ON position?

A

APU fuel is supplied from the left fuel manifold; APU fuel can be provided by any AC fuel pump supplying fuel to the left fuel manifold or by the left main tank DC fuel pump; on the ground, with the APU selector ON and no AC power available, the DC pump runs automatically; with AC power available, the left forward AC fuel pump operates automatically, regardless of the fuel pump switch position, and the DC fuel pump turns off

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17
Q

When are you required to use engine/wing anti-ice? What are the limitations to its usage?

A

Engine anti-ice must be selected ON immediately after both engines are started and remain on during all ground operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except when the temperature is less than -40 degrees C OAT; do not use engine anti-ice when OAT is greater than 10 degrees C; when engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3 degrees C or below, the takeoff must be preceded by a static engine run-up; the wing anti-ice system may be used as a de-icer or anti-icer in-flight ONLY (use WAI), but cannot be used when TAT is greater than 10 degrees C

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18
Q

What is the Main Deck Alerting System (MDAS)? How does your configuration affect it?

A

Provides aural and visual alerts to the ACMC and the MDCC, and is intended to alert crew members to return to their primary crew position and communicate with the pilots about their causing condition; indicated by MDAS ACTIVE memo on the EICAS

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19
Q

When can you change the configuration on the jet?

A

Only on the ground, with both engines shut down

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20
Q

What does putting the MAIN FUEL TRANSFER VALVES to CLOSED do? When must you do this?

A

Closes the secondary transfer valves, thus preventing automatic fuel transfer; as part of the normal procedure during descent, the PM (after all AAR is complete) will set both switches to CLOSED if either main tank quantity is 16,000 pounds or less; alternatively, in the RNDV checklist, pilots are directed to close the valves when offloading beyond 100 minutes from a suitable airport

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21
Q

How can you determine whether or not the cabin is “controllable” during the CABIN ALTITUDE checklist?

A

Unable to regain control of the outflow valve manually = uncontrollable

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22
Q

What is trim air and how does it help control the cabin temperature?

A

Hot trim air from the bleed air system added through 2 trim air valves to control temperature in each of the other compartments; cabin temperature controllers regulate pack output air temperature to satisfy temperature requirement of the compartment(s) requiring the coolest air

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23
Q

When do the autobrakes arm in RTO mode?

A

When set on the ground and ground speed is at or above 85 knots

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24
Q

What powers the alternate flaps? What powers the alternate gear?

A

Alternate flaps are powered by electric motors; alternate gear uses an electric motor to trip the locking mechanism for each gear, which allows the gear to free-fall to the down and locked position

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25
Q

What does VNAV SPD mean? VNAV PTH? VNAV ALT? What do you expect to see on a normal departure?

A

VNAV SPD: AFDS maintains the FMC speed displayed on the FMA and/or the MCDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages; during speed intervention, use the MCP IAS/MACH selector to manually set speed
VNAV PTH: maintains the FMC altitude or descent path using pitch commands; if there is a non-entered headwind, thrust may increase to maintain VNAV descent path; if the MCP altitude window is set to the current CRZ altitude as the airplane approaches the T/D, the MCDU scratch pad message “RESET MCP ALT” displays
VNAV ALT: when a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and MCP altitude, the airplane levels and the pitch FMA changes to VNAV ALT, which maintains altitude

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26
Q

What do you expect to see on a normal departure when using VNAV? Descent? Approach?

A

Expect VNAV SPD or PTH on departure and normal descent; expect VNAV PTH on approach

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27
Q

How can the approach mode be disarmed after capture?

A

Disconnect the autopilot and turn both FD switches to OFF

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28
Q

What is the difference between an LNAV/VNAV approach and an IAN approach?

A

On an IAN approach, you are in APP mode and can set the final flap setting and MAP altitude at glidepath capture; during a VNAV approach, at 2 NM from the FAF and with ALT HOLD, VNAV PTH, or VNAV ALT annunciated, set the DA(H) or the MDA(H) on the MCP (to the nearest hundred feet and rounded down) on the MCP

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29
Q

During an autoland approach, what happens if the TO/GA switch is pressed, you are within 5 feet radio altitude for more than 2 seconds, and FLARE is annunciated on the FMAs?

A

The autopilot will remain in FLARE and the autothrottle go-around mode will be engaged

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30
Q

During an autoland approach, what happens if the aircraft is on the ground but has been below 5 feet radio altitude or less than 2 seconds when the TO/GA switch is pushed?

A

The autopilot GA pitch mode will engage but the autothrottle mode will remain in IDLE

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31
Q

What are the default modes of the flight direction when recycled in the air? On the ground?

A

On the ground, with no autopilot engaged and FD switches OFF: first FD switch moved to ON arms TO roll and pitch modes, while placing second to ON displays the FD steering indications on the second PFD
In-flight, with autopilot engaged and FD switches OFF: first FD switch moved to ON activates D in the selected autopilot mode

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32
Q

What does the hydraulic motor generator power? What powers it? When does it start to provide power?

A

Provides AC power to the left AC transfer bus, right AC transfer bus, standby AC bus (via left transfer bus), and the captain’s flight instrument transfer bus; provides DC power to the hot battery bus, battery bus, and standby bus; powered by the center hydraulic system and automatically activates when both the left and right main AC busses are unpowered

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33
Q

Why is a GEN DRIVE DISC irreversible?

A

Disconnects the generator from the engine, which requires maintenance action on the ground to reconnect the generator drive

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34
Q

What is DESCENT NOW?

A

VNAV starts an early descent and captures the idle flight path; when more than 50 NM from the T/D, perform a cruise descent rather than a descend now for descent to intermediate altitudes

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35
Q

How does the configuration switch affect your cargo fire arm and depressurization switches?

A

Freighter: fire is suppressed by gradually depressurizing and eliminating combustion oxygen; must press the ARM switch and DEPR switch to depressurize the aircraft
COMBI and Passenger: fire suppression accomplished manually; pushing ARM in the COMBI configuration shuts down airflow to the cargo area, but DEPR is inhibited

36
Q

Where are the instructions located for normal checklists?

A

QRH C.I.

37
Q

When do you read the normal checklist items?

A

After the appropriate procedure is complete

38
Q

Who must visually verify the steps in the normal checklist?

A

Both pilots

39
Q

If it becomes apparent that the entire procedure is not done, what do you do?

A

Stop the checklist, complete the entire procedure, and then rerun the checklist from the start

40
Q

If the challenge does not end in SWITCH or LEVER, what does it mean?

A

Refer to the system status on EICAS

41
Q

What do you check on the STAT display during the Preliminary Preflight procedure?

A

Oxygen pressure, hydraulic quantity, and oil quantity

42
Q

What emergency equipment should you look for and check during the Preliminary Preflight procedure?

A

Fire extinguisher, crash axe, escape ropes, and other equipment

43
Q

What do the different positions of the MAIN FUEL STANDPIPE switch correspond to?

A

NORMAL: stops fuel transfer from either main tank to center tank when each main tank decreases to less than approximately 10,500 pounds
BYPASS: allows the transfer of all main tank fuel to the center tank (approximately 15 minutes of fuel remaining once AR PUMP displays on EICAS)

44
Q

Why is the hydraulic center 2 pressure light still illuminated when setting the hydraulic system switches during the Preflight procedure?

A

Load shedding

45
Q

Why are the PRESS lights extinguished during the Preflight Procedure with the CENTER FUEL pump switches in the OFF position?

A

Illumination is inhibited when center tank fuel pump switch is selected to OFF

46
Q

During the Preflight procedure, what altitude do you select in the LDG ALT window on the overhead control panel?

A

The altitude at the landing destination; sets the pressurization schedule

47
Q

What does the AROS power switch do?

A

Supplies power to the AROS station console

48
Q

Why is AROS EQUIP COOLING important?

A

Should be set to AUTO during the Preflight procedure to allow the ARO to complete his preflight

49
Q

What is the range of the FLT DK temperature control selector?

A

65 degrees F - 85 degrees F

50
Q

What FMAs/annunciations are you looking for during the Preflight instrument check?

A

_______/TO/TO; TCAS OFF and NO V SPEED; FLT DIR

51
Q

What items does the ARO require to conduct his preflight?

A
  1. IRS alignment
  2. HYD panel set
  3. AROS POWER - ON
  4. Electrical power (e.g., APU running)
  5. 15,000 pounds in the center fuel tank
  6. AROS EQUIP COOLING - AUTO (and no equipment faults)
  7. 1 or both PACKS OFF
52
Q

How does each respective pilot set up the weather radar for their ND?

A

Click AUTO and WX+T

53
Q

During ACP set-up, what does the “S” indicate?

A

Secure mode

54
Q

What are the expected EICAS messages during engine start?

A

R ENG BLEED OFF and L CENTER PUMP

55
Q

When will the EICAS message L+R PACK OFF clear?

A

After both PACKS are turned ON and BLEED ISLN valve is OFF

56
Q

During the Before Taxi procedure, when would you set the engine start selectors to FLT?

A

When departing as #2 (or proceeding) in formation to avoid surges due to wake turbulence

57
Q

What does setting the engine start selector to AUTO do during flight?

A

Selected igniters operate continuously with the leading edge slats deployed or engine anti-ice ON

58
Q

How much fuel is required in the center tank for the ARO to perform the boom pressure check?

A

Approximately 15,000 pounds, but no more than 22,000

59
Q

What is the restriction associated with manually transferring fuel to the center tank?

A

Do not exceed 22,000 pounds and ensure that the weight of the center tank plus the aircraft’s zero fuel weight does not exceed 273,000 pounds

60
Q

Can you extend the flaps, check the flight controls, and conduct the boom pressure check at the same time? Why?

A

No; reduce the possibility of an ADP overspeed

61
Q

What is the engine oil requirement associated with the Before Takeoff procedure?

A

Run the engine for 5 minutes prior to takeoff, and ensure that the oil temperature is above the lower amber band

62
Q

When you are cleared on to the active runway and given the instructions to line up and wait, which lights should be turned on?

A

Wing strobe and wing illumination

63
Q

What should the initial takeoff rotation rate be?

A

2 - 2.5 degrees per second, smooth and continuous toward 15 degrees

64
Q

When should you start the Climb and Cruise procedure?

A

After completing the After Takeoff checklist

65
Q

Which lights should be turned off at 10,000 feet MSL?

A

Landing lights, wing illumination, taxi and runway turnoff lights

66
Q

What should you do if you get a CENTER FUEL LOW EICAS message during cruise?

A

Turn the pumps OFF

67
Q

What is the fuel burn sequence?

A

Center first, followed by a transfer of fuel from the FWD and then AFT tanks to center tank, until the center tank reaches 0 and you are left with the fuel in the left and right main tanks

68
Q

When do you start the Descent procedure?

A

Before the airplane descends below the cruise altitude for arrival at the destination

69
Q

When do you complete the Descent procedure?

A

By 10,000 feet MSL

70
Q

When do you start and end the Approach procedure?

A

Start at transition level, and should be completed by the IAF or the start of radar vectors to final

71
Q

What are the FMAs during takeoff roll?

A

_______/TO/TO; once TO/GA engaged, EPR/TO/TO until HOLD/TO/TO at 80 knots

72
Q

How does the HOLD FMA affect your thrust levers?

A

Thrust levers remain in the existing position or where manually placed

73
Q

In the climb on “via SID” from VNV SPD, where would you get an intermediate level-off?

A

VNAV PTH

74
Q

If ATC tells you to descend and maintain 15,000 feet, how would you descend if you’re outside of 50 NM from the T/D? Inside T/D?

A

Outside 50 NM: set the MCP altitude and use DESCEND NOW in VNAV DESCENT on the MCDU, or set the MCP altitude and press the knob (if in VNAV)
Inside 50 NM: go in DESCEND mode or RESET MCP and push knob or DESCEND NOW

75
Q

When you’re en-route to the IAF during an RNAV and your current pitch FMA is VNAV PTH, what is the lowest altitude you can set in the MCP?

A

IAF altitude

76
Q

What steps should you take when you’re cleared for an approach?

A

Set the lowest MDA(H), ensuring that you are cleared for the approach, with VNAV PTH, VNAV ALT, or ALT HOLD annunciated

77
Q

During a go-around with both engines operating, what is the minimum commanded VVI after pushing the TO/GA switch?

A

2,000 fpm

78
Q

Where would you find the procedure for cold weather ops?

A

FCOM SP (Chapter 17)

79
Q

Where would you find the altitude corrections tables for altimeter settings during cold weather operations?

A

AFMAN 11-202v3

80
Q

Where would you find instructions on non-normal checklists?

A

QRH CI

81
Q

How can you tell when a checklist is coordinated and read by a boom?

A

Three dots after the checklist title

82
Q

When should the PF call for a non-normal checklist on a go-around?

A
  1. Aircraft under control
  2. Gear UP
  3. Above 400 feet AGL
83
Q

Who is responsible for reading a non-normal checklist?

A

PM

84
Q

Is the QRC required?

A

No; it complements the QRH

85
Q

Which items are located in the Quick Action Index?

A

Time-critical non-normal checklists

86
Q

How long does it take for full IRS alignment? Fast alignment?

A

Approximately 10 minutes, but varies with latitude and can take up to 17 minutes at latitudes greater than 70.2 degrees N or S; fast alignment takes approximately 30 seconds