MQF Flashcards
Fire extinguishing capability is reduced above____ KIAS due to the airflow through the engine compartment at higher airspeeds. Airspeed should be reduced to ____KIAS or below before discharging the fire extinguishers.
100, 100
When extending the cable, use small weight bags of ____ lbs. If no wieghts are available extend the cable at no more than ____ speed.
5-20, 1/4
…It is for this reason that ____broken wires are allowed for the hoist cable.
No
IF A QUESTION IS TRUE OR FALSE WHICH IS IT?
It’s true.
Checklists in the TO CL-2 Gunner/Hoist ____ be verbalized.____notify the crew up on initiation and completion of a TO CL 2 checklist.
Do not need to, only
The MTR HOT light will reset once the motor has cooled sufficiently, approximately____ minutes, depending on…
30
The CABLE FEET reading on the rescue hoist pendant is for reference only. Accuracy is +-_____ft .
5
The hoist contains _____ usable ft of cable an dhas a fuillotine-type cable cutter…
250’
The hoist capacity of 600lbs and speed is variable from —– fpm when raising a load (4th cable layer) using…
0-345
…fuel quantity indicator may take up to —-to stabilize at the actual fuel quantity. Indicated fuel quantity may lag actual fuel quantity by as much as —– lbs. Fuel dumping will stop when the switch is placed in the OFF position, or automatically when either the left or right tank reaches the actual stand pipe that prevents fuel dump below — lbs per tank.
60 seconds, 600, 250
The stabilator manual slew switch should be —- until limit switch stops stabilator movement.
Bumped
If the helicopter is shut down and/or hydraulic power is removed with one tail rotor cable failure, disconnection of the other tail rotor cable —- occur when force from the boost servo cannot react against control cable quadrant spring tension. The quadrant spring —- displace the cable and boost servo piston enough to unlatch the quadrant cable.
Will, Will
With the UES II prior to starting engines, ensure main rotor blades are aligned with the aircraft centerling +- ____ degrees before engaging the rotor brake.
20
Regarding TGT the 2.5 minute limit (contingency power) range is
879-903
Regarding TGT the 10 minute limit range is
846-879
During takeoff, the stabilator has not begun trailing edge up movement by —– KIAS and manual control is not available, do not exceed the variable VNE arc on the PFD or longitudinal control may be lost.
30-50
Fuel dumping…This can leave one fuel tank with 250 lbs and the other with up to —-lbs.
1450
The term —-is used to report a complete failure of the weapon to fire.
Misfire
—-refers to a weapon not rendering a dangerous condition.
Safe
No further attemp to clear the weapons will be made after intiating the —-. Do not attempt to remove the affected weapon in flight.
Join Up Checklist
The yaw boost servo is still pressurized and the mechanical control system is still intact allowing limited tail rotor control. Because of the limited yaw control range available, —– is required.
A roll on landing 40 KIAS or above
During fuel dumping a fuel venting condition is extremely hazardous when the helicopter is on the ground or in a hover since —- produced by the helicopter could ignite vapor and spilled fuel.
Static electricity
If NR decreases from 100-96% with an increase in Q during steady flight with no engine malfunction the ____ may have failed.
Main transmission planetary carrier
The STAB DEGRADED advisory indicates that the stabilator control has reverted to a condition of reduced functionality in either speed or control. Full stabilator range of motion ______ available.
May not be
Loss of DC power will result in the engine anti-ice and engine inlet anti ice valves failing to the open position. This will reduce power available _______. The respective anti-ice advisory lights will not illuminate.
Up to 20% Q per engine
During electrical system failures, although not specifically listed as checklist steps, it is prudent to check for______.
Popped circuit breakers
If AC electrical power is not available _____ fire bottle (s) can be discharged.
Only the reserve
Opening the cockpit windows before the cabin doors will draw smoke from the cabin into the cockpit. ______ to help prevent smoke generated in the cabin from entering the cockpit.
Point blower vents aft
….if the decision is made to shut down an engine in flight______ while retarding the PCL from FLY to IDLE, monitoring Q, NG, TGT, NP, and ENG OUT warning light on.
Take at least five full seconds
If lighting strike occurs whereby all aircraft electrical power and electronics subsystems and controls are lost (including EDECU and the engine alternator) both engines immediately advance to maximum power with no ________ protection.
Both B and C
NP over speed protection
TGT limiting
After performing an aircraft emergency shutdown, when egressing from an aircraft with munitions and flares in board requires a minimum egress distance of _____ from the aircraft.
600’
Even though not specifically listed as checklist steps, making _______ are prudent actions during critical emergencies if time permits.
Mayday transmissions and setting the transponder to EMER
If APU OIL HOT caution illuminates a _______ cooling period is required before checking oil level.
30 minute
Bank angles shall be limited to _____ when PRI SERVO 1 FAIL or PRI SERVO 2 FAIL caution is illuminated.
30 degrees
While operating in a salt spray environment for any period of time, a TGT ride of ____ or more for constant torque is an indication of engine performance degradation and possible salt encrustation. A TGT ride of greater than ____ for constant torque may result in compressor stall.
20, 40
A ____ kt crosswind or tailwind may increase torque required by up to 4% over 0 wind values.
3-5
The cooling cart should be utilized when OAT is greater than ______ and the avionics system is operating.
39
If icing conditions are encountered, turn on all anti-icing equipment immediately. If torque required increases ____ above that required for level flight…
20%
Prolonged hovering flight in temperatures above ____ at higher gross weight may cause transmission oil temperature to rise into the yellow precautionary range.
35
All anti-ice systems must be turned on prior to entering visible moisture at ambient temperature of _____ or less.
4
When aerial refueling the No 2 tank will fill faster than the No 1 tank. If both fuel tanks are not refueled to the full level, a fuel imbalance of up to _____ is possible
1200 lbs
If AC electrical power is not available, only the _____ compartment or the _____ compartment has fire protection.
Number 1 engine
APU
Upon impact of a crash of _____ G’s or more the omnidirectional inertia switch will automatically fire both extinguishing containers into both engine compartments.
10
If an emergency start must be made without AC electrical power, the ____ engine must be started first because only the ____ engine start control valve can receive power from the battery via DC essential bus.
Number 1
Number 1
Landing, searchlight, and rescue hoist searchlight have less than ____ ground clearance when extended. Use caution when ground taxiing over rough terrain with landing light and/or searchlight extended.
1’
The IR laser diode emitters produce invisible energy that is harmful to the human eye if viewed at distances of less than ____’ for more than ____ seconds. Invisible IR laser radiation is emitted when on. Stand back _____ when in operation.
5.3, 10, 5.3
To avoid potential of fire during refueling, ensure weather radar power is removed via the weather radar power switch during helicopter refueling or any other refueling operations within _____ft
100
During HAAR the receiver to tanker light signal of flashing formation/position lights for 5 seconds indicates what?
Receiver is preparing to disconnect
During HAAR the tanker to receiver light signal of two white light indicates
Tanker directed crossover
During HAAR the tanker to receiver light signal of two amber lights indicates
Tanker is unable to pass fuel go to spare
During HAAR the tanker to receiver light signal of one amber light indicates
Prepare to turn
A_____ is made when the probe engages the drogue
Contact
Emission Control Option _____ (Silent R/T) is defined as….
3 HAAR
EMCON _____ is defined as: any and all emitters are authorized
EMCON 1 (HAAR)
EMCON_____ (Emission Out) is defined as….
4
The observation Position Is defined as a position to the left or right of the tanker____ of the wingtip and slight above and ___\ the tanker horizontal stabilizer.
Outboard, behind
During a “Toboggan” procedures, the rate of descent is between ____ and ______ feet per minute.
300/500
Astern is the stabilized formation position behind the AAR equipment (approximately _____ directly aft of the drogue) with zero rate of closure.
5-20 ft
When conducting RV procedures both the receivers and the tankers should plan to arrive at the ARCP on time; however if a deviation is required….
Receivers should arrive at the ARCP earlier (no more than 1 minute) tankers should arrive later (no more than 1 minute)
The ARCP (HAAR Track Only) is defined as
Normally the earliest point the tanker can pass abeam the receiver during join-up.
Under no circumstances should the pilot stare at the _____ as this will result in poor aircraft control….
Drogue
During HAAR Formation Option 2 (Trail) the helicopter flight separates into two elements in trail. Standard spacing between helicopter elements is_____ however it may be as little as _____
2 NM, 0.5 NM
Once the tanker assume ______ the ______ are responsible for all navigation, weather avoidance, and position reporting.
Formation lead, tankers
Two conditions may result in formation aircraft losing visual contact with another. ______ is when visual cues required for formation separation no longer provide….
Unanticipated Blind
If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available, home station maintenance supervision may authorize the _____ to clear the Red X condition.
Both A and B
Aircraft Commander
Flight Engineer
Rotor turning crew changes are authorized. The new crew will review aircraft forms, ________,________, and complete required flight manual checklists.
Weight and balance, TOLD
The maximum ground taxi speed is ___
15 knots ground speed
….will not taxi aircraft within _____ of obstructions without wing walkers and no closer than______ with wing walkers unless exempted or waived.
25 feet, 10 feet
Aircraft may be flown with ____ strobe light inoperative.
One
TOLD will be computed and brief prior_____
Prior to takeoff
While over featureless terrain or water, limit______ to those necessary for mission accomplishment.
Formation maneuvers
Who may direct arming crew members as deemed necessary by mission threat analysis?
Squadron Commanders
When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so, each shall alter course to the______
Right
Following HEEDS training, aircrew may only fly if the aircraft’s maximum altitude remains below_____ ft MSL
10,000
Aircrew members will not fly______
Within 72 hours of donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow.
In accordance with CFR part 91.3, in the event of a deviation from a flight rule or when given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency, the _____ will verbally report the incident to a supervisor or commander and prepare a detailed written record within _____ hours or as soon as mission permits.
8 hours
12 non duty hours
Maximum flight duty period with basic crew: rotary wing (without auto flight control system) ____ hrs and (with auto flight control system) ____ hrs
12, 14
Descend from normal pattern to low altitude autorotation pattern no earlier than _____ the intended termination point.
Abeam
Complete required rescue hoist checklists_______ for hoist infiltration or exfiltration
Prior to final approach
If there is no timely acknowledgment of the original “Blind” call then the _______ will maneuver away from the last known position of the other flight member/element and alter altitude if unable to ensure aircraft separation by non-visual means.
Flight member/element initiating the call
The rescue basket may be lowered on final approach at airspeeds below_____. While in slow forward flight for water recovery….
30 KIAS
All aircrew must be vigilant for shock loads to the cable. If shock loading is observed:
Cease live operations and replace cable prior to the next mission.
Helocast altitude is ____ ft AWL and speed is _____ knots ground speed.
10,10
Night turning rejoins will be limited to a maximum of ______ degrees angle of bank and _____ KIAS.
20,80
Taxi aircraft with a minimum of _____feet spacing from main rotor to tail rotor.
100
The minimum separation between the closest portions of any two helicopters in a formation is______rotor diameter. Rotor disk separation will be based on the _____ rotor disk diameter
One, largest
For practice night autorotations, illuminations must be at or above ______ when conducting them to an unlit surface.
40%
While flying emergency procedures training in the aircraft, terminate practice autorotations no lower than:
15’ AGL and maximum speed of 30 KGS
Accomplish a low reconnaissance at a minimum of ____ ft AHO along the flight path at a minimum of ____ KIAS or SEAS, whichever is greater.
50,50
Accomplish the high reconnaissance at an altitude that allows adequate survey of the intended area. In no case will the aircraft descend below _____ ft ASE AND ______ KIAS during the high recon
150, 50
When landing to…….such as a pinnacle or a ridge line, you must have the following power available
OGE
Restricted Escape route Operational Mission power required
OGE
Restricted Escape route Training power required
OGE+5%
For water operations, power required operationally
OGE
For water operations power required for training must be
OGE +5%
Restricted visibility, for operational missions will not be less than
10’ hover power +5%
OGE when the LZ has a restricted escape route
BOTH A AND C
Restricted visibility training power required
OGE +5%
When anticipated power margin is 10% or less…the following methods are approved:
Confirmation that accurate numbers were input into the FMS power calculation page
Utilization of other approved TOLD calculation methods
BOTH A AND B
Once a forced or precautionary landing has been accomplished and the aircraft is deemed safe for flight, the _____ may authorize a one-time…
Aircraft Commander
Aircrew members certified in hot refueling _______ perform cold refueling duties.
May
Use of a tag line and weak link with the SKEDCO litter is _____ and ______ be used with stokes….
Mandatory, should
The ______ is responsible for providing the ropes and assisting crew member in inspection….
Deploying Team
The final responsibility regarding equipment required for a mission rests with the ______
Aircraft Commander
Except during emergencies or when operational needs dictated fuel will not be dumped below _____ ft AGL or over…
3000
For night unaided flight, minimum en route altitude is _____ ft AHO within _____ NM of the planned route centerline
500’, 5
When available ambient illumination is insufficient to safely conduct NVG flight the minimum altitude is 500’ ______ in non mtns and 500’ _____ within _____ NM of course centerline in mountainous.
AGL, AHO, 2
Multiple ship LZs must provide a minimum of ______ rotor diameters of separation….
One
Single ship training LZs must provide a minimum of ______ clearance from any portion of the helicopter to the nearest obstacle
25’
For all flights plan to land at the destination with no less than _______ pounds usable fuel.
500
The following VFR training minimums are incorrect:
Day Training 700’ ceiling and 2 SM
The _______ is the approving authority for armed passengers
Aircraft Commander AC
Alert crews will conduct a briefing at the beginning of each alert period. The briefing will be updated every ______ to include…
24 hours
