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whiskey (Why Am I Saying What What Way?) > MQF > Flashcards

MQF Flashcards

1
Q

Fire extinguishing capability is reduced above____ KIAS due to the airflow through the engine compartment at higher airspeeds. Airspeed should be reduced to ____KIAS or below before discharging the fire extinguishers.

A

100, 100

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2
Q

When extending the cable, use small weight bags of ____ lbs. If no wieghts are available extend the cable at no more than ____ speed.

A

5-20, 1/4

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3
Q

…It is for this reason that ____broken wires are allowed for the hoist cable.

A

No

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4
Q

IF A QUESTION IS TRUE OR FALSE WHICH IS IT?

A

It’s true.

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5
Q

Checklists in the TO CL-2 Gunner/Hoist ____ be verbalized.____notify the crew up on initiation and completion of a TO CL 2 checklist.

A

Do not need to, only

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6
Q

The MTR HOT light will reset once the motor has cooled sufficiently, approximately____ minutes, depending on…

A

30

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7
Q

The CABLE FEET reading on the rescue hoist pendant is for reference only. Accuracy is +-_____ft .

A

5

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8
Q

The hoist contains _____ usable ft of cable an dhas a fuillotine-type cable cutter…

A

250’

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9
Q

The hoist capacity of 600lbs and speed is variable from —– fpm when raising a load (4th cable layer) using…

A

0-345

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10
Q

…fuel quantity indicator may take up to —-to stabilize at the actual fuel quantity. Indicated fuel quantity may lag actual fuel quantity by as much as —– lbs. Fuel dumping will stop when the switch is placed in the OFF position, or automatically when either the left or right tank reaches the actual stand pipe that prevents fuel dump below — lbs per tank.

A

60 seconds, 600, 250

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11
Q

The stabilator manual slew switch should be —- until limit switch stops stabilator movement.

A

Bumped

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12
Q

If the helicopter is shut down and/or hydraulic power is removed with one tail rotor cable failure, disconnection of the other tail rotor cable —- occur when force from the boost servo cannot react against control cable quadrant spring tension. The quadrant spring —- displace the cable and boost servo piston enough to unlatch the quadrant cable.

A

Will, Will

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13
Q

With the UES II prior to starting engines, ensure main rotor blades are aligned with the aircraft centerling +- ____ degrees before engaging the rotor brake.

A

20

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14
Q

Regarding TGT the 2.5 minute limit (contingency power) range is

A

879-903

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15
Q

Regarding TGT the 10 minute limit range is

A

846-879

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16
Q

During takeoff, the stabilator has not begun trailing edge up movement by —– KIAS and manual control is not available, do not exceed the variable VNE arc on the PFD or longitudinal control may be lost.

A

30-50

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17
Q

Fuel dumping…This can leave one fuel tank with 250 lbs and the other with up to —-lbs.

A

1450

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18
Q

The term —-is used to report a complete failure of the weapon to fire.

A

Misfire

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19
Q

—-refers to a weapon not rendering a dangerous condition.

A

Safe

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20
Q

No further attemp to clear the weapons will be made after intiating the —-. Do not attempt to remove the affected weapon in flight.

A

Join Up Checklist

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21
Q

The yaw boost servo is still pressurized and the mechanical control system is still intact allowing limited tail rotor control. Because of the limited yaw control range available, —– is required.

A

A roll on landing 40 KIAS or above

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22
Q

During fuel dumping a fuel venting condition is extremely hazardous when the helicopter is on the ground or in a hover since —- produced by the helicopter could ignite vapor and spilled fuel.

A

Static electricity

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22
Q

If NR decreases from 100-96% with an increase in Q during steady flight with no engine malfunction the ____ may have failed.

A

Main transmission planetary carrier

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22
Q

The STAB DEGRADED advisory indicates that the stabilator control has reverted to a condition of reduced functionality in either speed or control. Full stabilator range of motion ______ available.

A

May not be

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22
Q

Loss of DC power will result in the engine anti-ice and engine inlet anti ice valves failing to the open position. This will reduce power available _______. The respective anti-ice advisory lights will not illuminate.

A

Up to 20% Q per engine

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22
Q

During electrical system failures, although not specifically listed as checklist steps, it is prudent to check for______.

A

Popped circuit breakers

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22
Q

If AC electrical power is not available _____ fire bottle (s) can be discharged.

A

Only the reserve

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23
Q

Opening the cockpit windows before the cabin doors will draw smoke from the cabin into the cockpit. ______ to help prevent smoke generated in the cabin from entering the cockpit.

A

Point blower vents aft

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24
Q

….if the decision is made to shut down an engine in flight______ while retarding the PCL from FLY to IDLE, monitoring Q, NG, TGT, NP, and ENG OUT warning light on.

A

Take at least five full seconds

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25
Q

If lighting strike occurs whereby all aircraft electrical power and electronics subsystems and controls are lost (including EDECU and the engine alternator) both engines immediately advance to maximum power with no ________ protection.

A

Both B and C
NP over speed protection
TGT limiting

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26
Q

After performing an aircraft emergency shutdown, when egressing from an aircraft with munitions and flares in board requires a minimum egress distance of _____ from the aircraft.

A

600’

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27
Q

Even though not specifically listed as checklist steps, making _______ are prudent actions during critical emergencies if time permits.

A

Mayday transmissions and setting the transponder to EMER

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28
Q

If APU OIL HOT caution illuminates a _______ cooling period is required before checking oil level.

A

30 minute

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29
Q

Bank angles shall be limited to _____ when PRI SERVO 1 FAIL or PRI SERVO 2 FAIL caution is illuminated.

A

30 degrees

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30
Q

While operating in a salt spray environment for any period of time, a TGT ride of ____ or more for constant torque is an indication of engine performance degradation and possible salt encrustation. A TGT ride of greater than ____ for constant torque may result in compressor stall.

A

20, 40

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31
Q

A ____ kt crosswind or tailwind may increase torque required by up to 4% over 0 wind values.

A

3-5

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32
Q

The cooling cart should be utilized when OAT is greater than ______ and the avionics system is operating.

A

39

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33
Q

If icing conditions are encountered, turn on all anti-icing equipment immediately. If torque required increases ____ above that required for level flight…

A

20%

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34
Q

Prolonged hovering flight in temperatures above ____ at higher gross weight may cause transmission oil temperature to rise into the yellow precautionary range.

A

35

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35
Q

All anti-ice systems must be turned on prior to entering visible moisture at ambient temperature of _____ or less.

A

4

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36
Q

When aerial refueling the No 2 tank will fill faster than the No 1 tank. If both fuel tanks are not refueled to the full level, a fuel imbalance of up to _____ is possible

A

1200 lbs

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37
Q

If AC electrical power is not available, only the _____ compartment or the _____ compartment has fire protection.

A

Number 1 engine
APU

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38
Q

Upon impact of a crash of _____ G’s or more the omnidirectional inertia switch will automatically fire both extinguishing containers into both engine compartments.

A

10

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39
Q

If an emergency start must be made without AC electrical power, the ____ engine must be started first because only the ____ engine start control valve can receive power from the battery via DC essential bus.

A

Number 1
Number 1

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40
Q

Landing, searchlight, and rescue hoist searchlight have less than ____ ground clearance when extended. Use caution when ground taxiing over rough terrain with landing light and/or searchlight extended.

A

1’

41
Q

The IR laser diode emitters produce invisible energy that is harmful to the human eye if viewed at distances of less than ____’ for more than ____ seconds. Invisible IR laser radiation is emitted when on. Stand back _____ when in operation.

A

5.3, 10, 5.3

42
Q

To avoid potential of fire during refueling, ensure weather radar power is removed via the weather radar power switch during helicopter refueling or any other refueling operations within _____ft

A

100

43
Q

During HAAR the receiver to tanker light signal of flashing formation/position lights for 5 seconds indicates what?

A

Receiver is preparing to disconnect

44
Q

During HAAR the tanker to receiver light signal of two white light indicates

A

Tanker directed crossover

45
Q

During HAAR the tanker to receiver light signal of two amber lights indicates

A

Tanker is unable to pass fuel go to spare

46
Q

During HAAR the tanker to receiver light signal of one amber light indicates

A

Prepare to turn

47
Q

A_____ is made when the probe engages the drogue

A

Contact

48
Q

Emission Control Option _____ (Silent R/T) is defined as….

A

3 HAAR

49
Q

EMCON _____ is defined as: any and all emitters are authorized

A

EMCON 1 (HAAR)

50
Q

EMCON_____ (Emission Out) is defined as….

A

4

51
Q

The observation Position Is defined as a position to the left or right of the tanker____ of the wingtip and slight above and ___\ the tanker horizontal stabilizer.

A

Outboard, behind

52
Q

During a “Toboggan” procedures, the rate of descent is between ____ and ______ feet per minute.

A

300/500

53
Q

Astern is the stabilized formation position behind the AAR equipment (approximately _____ directly aft of the drogue) with zero rate of closure.

A

5-20 ft

54
Q

When conducting RV procedures both the receivers and the tankers should plan to arrive at the ARCP on time; however if a deviation is required….

A

Receivers should arrive at the ARCP earlier (no more than 1 minute) tankers should arrive later (no more than 1 minute)

55
Q

The ARCP (HAAR Track Only) is defined as

A

Normally the earliest point the tanker can pass abeam the receiver during join-up.

56
Q

Under no circumstances should the pilot stare at the _____ as this will result in poor aircraft control….

A

Drogue

57
Q

During HAAR Formation Option 2 (Trail) the helicopter flight separates into two elements in trail. Standard spacing between helicopter elements is_____ however it may be as little as _____

A

2 NM, 0.5 NM

58
Q

Once the tanker assume ______ the ______ are responsible for all navigation, weather avoidance, and position reporting.

A

Formation lead, tankers

59
Q

Two conditions may result in formation aircraft losing visual contact with another. ______ is when visual cues required for formation separation no longer provide….

A

Unanticipated Blind

60
Q

If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available, home station maintenance supervision may authorize the _____ to clear the Red X condition.

A

Both A and B
Aircraft Commander
Flight Engineer

61
Q

Rotor turning crew changes are authorized. The new crew will review aircraft forms, ________,________, and complete required flight manual checklists.

A

Weight and balance, TOLD

62
Q

The maximum ground taxi speed is ___

A

15 knots ground speed

63
Q

….will not taxi aircraft within _____ of obstructions without wing walkers and no closer than______ with wing walkers unless exempted or waived.

A

25 feet, 10 feet

64
Q

Aircraft may be flown with ____ strobe light inoperative.

A

One

65
Q

TOLD will be computed and brief prior_____

A

Prior to takeoff

66
Q

While over featureless terrain or water, limit______ to those necessary for mission accomplishment.

A

Formation maneuvers

67
Q

Who may direct arming crew members as deemed necessary by mission threat analysis?

A

Squadron Commanders

68
Q

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so, each shall alter course to the______

A

Right

69
Q

Following HEEDS training, aircrew may only fly if the aircraft’s maximum altitude remains below_____ ft MSL

A

10,000

70
Q

Aircrew members will not fly______

A

Within 72 hours of donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow.

71
Q

In accordance with CFR part 91.3, in the event of a deviation from a flight rule or when given traffic priority by ATC in an emergency, the _____ will verbally report the incident to a supervisor or commander and prepare a detailed written record within _____ hours or as soon as mission permits.

A

8 hours
12 non duty hours

72
Q

Maximum flight duty period with basic crew: rotary wing (without auto flight control system) ____ hrs and (with auto flight control system) ____ hrs

A

12, 14

73
Q

Descend from normal pattern to low altitude autorotation pattern no earlier than _____ the intended termination point.

A

Abeam

74
Q

Complete required rescue hoist checklists_______ for hoist infiltration or exfiltration

A

Prior to final approach

75
Q

If there is no timely acknowledgment of the original “Blind” call then the _______ will maneuver away from the last known position of the other flight member/element and alter altitude if unable to ensure aircraft separation by non-visual means.

A

Flight member/element initiating the call

76
Q

The rescue basket may be lowered on final approach at airspeeds below_____. While in slow forward flight for water recovery….

A

30 KIAS

77
Q

All aircrew must be vigilant for shock loads to the cable. If shock loading is observed:

A

Cease live operations and replace cable prior to the next mission.

78
Q

Helocast altitude is ____ ft AWL and speed is _____ knots ground speed.

A

10,10

79
Q

Night turning rejoins will be limited to a maximum of ______ degrees angle of bank and _____ KIAS.

A

20,80

80
Q

Taxi aircraft with a minimum of _____feet spacing from main rotor to tail rotor.

A

100

81
Q

The minimum separation between the closest portions of any two helicopters in a formation is______rotor diameter. Rotor disk separation will be based on the _____ rotor disk diameter

A

One, largest

82
Q

For practice night autorotations, illuminations must be at or above ______ when conducting them to an unlit surface.

A

40%

83
Q

While flying emergency procedures training in the aircraft, terminate practice autorotations no lower than:

A

15’ AGL and maximum speed of 30 KGS

84
Q

Accomplish a low reconnaissance at a minimum of ____ ft AHO along the flight path at a minimum of ____ KIAS or SEAS, whichever is greater.

A

50,50

85
Q

Accomplish the high reconnaissance at an altitude that allows adequate survey of the intended area. In no case will the aircraft descend below _____ ft ASE AND ______ KIAS during the high recon

A

150, 50

86
Q

When landing to…….such as a pinnacle or a ridge line, you must have the following power available

A

OGE

87
Q

Restricted Escape route Operational Mission power required

A

OGE

88
Q

Restricted Escape route Training power required

A

OGE+5%

89
Q

For water operations, power required operationally

A

OGE

90
Q

For water operations power required for training must be

A

OGE +5%

91
Q

Restricted visibility, for operational missions will not be less than

A

10’ hover power +5%
OGE when the LZ has a restricted escape route
BOTH A AND C

92
Q

Restricted visibility training power required

A

OGE +5%

93
Q

When anticipated power margin is 10% or less…the following methods are approved:

A

Confirmation that accurate numbers were input into the FMS power calculation page
Utilization of other approved TOLD calculation methods
BOTH A AND B

94
Q

Once a forced or precautionary landing has been accomplished and the aircraft is deemed safe for flight, the _____ may authorize a one-time…

A

Aircraft Commander

95
Q

Aircrew members certified in hot refueling _______ perform cold refueling duties.

A

May

96
Q

Use of a tag line and weak link with the SKEDCO litter is _____ and ______ be used with stokes….

A

Mandatory, should

97
Q

The ______ is responsible for providing the ropes and assisting crew member in inspection….

A

Deploying Team

98
Q

The final responsibility regarding equipment required for a mission rests with the ______

A

Aircraft Commander

99
Q

Except during emergencies or when operational needs dictated fuel will not be dumped below _____ ft AGL or over…

A

3000

100
Q

For night unaided flight, minimum en route altitude is _____ ft AHO within _____ NM of the planned route centerline

A

500’, 5

101
Q

When available ambient illumination is insufficient to safely conduct NVG flight the minimum altitude is 500’ ______ in non mtns and 500’ _____ within _____ NM of course centerline in mountainous.

A

AGL, AHO, 2

102
Q

Multiple ship LZs must provide a minimum of ______ rotor diameters of separation….

A

One

103
Q

Single ship training LZs must provide a minimum of ______ clearance from any portion of the helicopter to the nearest obstacle

A

25’

104
Q

For all flights plan to land at the destination with no less than _______ pounds usable fuel.

A

500

105
Q

The following VFR training minimums are incorrect:

A

Day Training 700’ ceiling and 2 SM

106
Q

The _______ is the approving authority for armed passengers

A

Aircraft Commander AC

107
Q

Alert crews will conduct a briefing at the beginning of each alert period. The briefing will be updated every ______ to include…

A

24 hours

whiskey (Why Am I Saying What What Way?) (17 decks)

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