mosby Gen and ORal PAth mosby Flashcards
- Which intraosseous cyst occurs around the crown of
an unerupted tooth?
A. Eruption
B. Primordial
C. Dentigerous
D. Globulomaxillary
ANS: C
A dentigerous cyst (C) occurs around the crown of
an unerupted or developing tooth. An eruption cyst
(A), which is similar to a dentigerous cyst, is found
in the soft tissue around the crown of an erupting
tooth. A primordial cyst (B) develops in the place of
a tooth because of a disturbance in the tooth germ.
A globulomaxillary cyst (D) is a well-defined, pearshaped radiolucency found between the roots of the
maxillary lateral incisor and the canine.
- Which condition occurs when the cementum or dentin
of a tooth fuses with the surrounding alveolar bone?
A. Concrescence
B. Ankylosis
C. Impaction
D. Gemination
ANS: B
Ankylosis (B) is the condition in which the cementum
or dentin of a tooth fuses with the surrounding
alveolar bone. A primary or permanent tooth
fuses with the surrounding alveolar bone, with no
intervening periodontal ligament. Concrescence (A)
is fusion of the cementum of two adjacent teeth only.
With impaction (C), or when a tooth is said to be
impacted, the tooth cannot erupt because of a physical
obstruction. Gemination (D) is a developmental
anomaly that occurs when a single tooth germ
attempts to divide and results in the incomplete
formation of two teeth
- Aphthous ulcers typically occur in all of these sites
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Labial commissure
B. Attached gingiva
C. Buccal mucosa
D. Soft palate
ANS: B
Aphthous ulcers typically do not occur in the
keratinized attached gingiva (B). Aphthous ulcers
typically occur on nonkeratinized mucosa such as the
labial commissure (A), the buccal mucosa (C), and
the soft palate (D)
- Which bluish-gray lesion may appear as a radiopaque
area on a dental image?
A. Hematoma
B. Amalgam tattoo
C. Epulis fissuratum
D. Traumatic neuroma
ANS: B
An amalgam tattoo (B) may appear intraorally as
a flat, bluish-gray lesion of the oral mucosa. If
any amalgam particles are dispersed in tissue, the
tattoo may appear radiopaque on a dental image
and appear bluish-gray intraorally. A hematoma (A)
is a collection of blood within tissue as a result of
trauma. An epulis fissuratum (C) is a soft tissue lesion
associated with ill-fitting dentures and is not likely to be seen radiographically. A traumatic neuroma
(D) is a benign neoplasm of nerve cells. Soft tissue
lesions such as a hematoma, an epulis fissuratum, or a
traumatic neuroma are not visible on dental images.
- Pericoronitis occurs most commonly in which
location?
A. Maxillary first premolars
B. Maxillary central incisors
C. Mandibular third molars
D. Mandibular second molars
ANS: C
Mandibular third molars (C) are the most common
locations for the occurrence of pericoronitis, an
inflammation of the tissue around a partially erupted
tooth. Pericoronitis occasionally occurs during the
eruption of mandibular second molars (D), but much
less frequently than with mandibular third molars.
Pericoronitis does not commonly occur around maxillary
first premolars (A) or maxillary central incisors (B).
- There are several types of candidiasis, including
erythematous candidiasis and denture candidiasis.
Regardless of the type, all forms must be treated with
antibiotics.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, and the second
statement is false.
D. The first statement is false, and the second
statement is true.
ANS: C
The first statement is true, and the second statement
is false (C). Several different types of candidiasis
exist, including erythematous candidiasis and denture
candidiasis. Candidiasis is a fungal infection, so
antibiotics are ineffective in treating this condition. The
treatment of choice is an antifungal medication. Choices
A, B, and D do not accurately reflect the statement
- Enamel hypoplasia is caused by ameloblast formation
of too much enamel. Enamel hypocalcification occurs
when there is too little enamel formation.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, and the second
statement is false.
D. The first statement is false, and the second
statement is true.
ANS: B
Both statements are false (B). Enamel hypoplasia
occurs when there is too little enamel formation (not
too much), and enamel hypocalcification is caused by
a defect in mineralization of enamel, not the amount of
enamel formed. Both enamel hypoplasia and enamel
hypocalcification have many causes, including damage
to the ameloblast by infectious agents, excess fluoride
ingestion during enamel formation, and inherited
conditions such as amelogenesis imperfecta. Choices
A, C, and D do not accurately reflect the statements.
- Cross-reactive (C-reactive) protein is produced in the
A. liver.
B. thyroid.
C. spleen.
D. stomach.
ANS: A
Cross-reactive (C-reactive) protein is produced in the
liver (A) in response to inflammation. High levels
of C-reactive protein are indicative of systemic
inflammation. The thyroid (B) produces thyroid
hormone. The spleen (C) produces blood cells. The
stomach (D) produces intrinsic factor necessary for
absorption of vitamin B12.
- Which lesion may be associated with hormonal
changes?
A. Thyroid nodule
B. Pyogenic granuloma
C. Fordyce granules
D. Hemangioma
ANS: B
A pyogenic granuloma (B), sometimes called a
pregnancy tumor, may be associated with hormonal changes as occurs during puberty and pregnancy.
These lesions may also occur in males and
nonpregnant women, often as a response to injury or
as an increased response to plaque. A thyroid nodule
(A) is a small mass of thyroid tissue located on the
tongue, distant from the normal anatomic location of
the thyroid gland. Fordyce granules (C) are clusters of
ectopic sebaceous glands, commonly seen on the lips
and buccal mucosa. A hemangioma (D) is a benign
proliferation of newly formed blood vessels.
- Which response is NOT a sign or implication of a
local inflammation?
A. Redness
B. Swelling
C. Heat
D. Lymphadenopathy
ANS: D
Lymphadenopathy (D), an enlargement of the lymph
nodes, is not a response to a local inflammation but
may be a sign of systemic inflammation. Redness
(A), swelling (B), and heat (C) are all signs of local
inflammation
- Bulimia is often associated with which oral
condition?
A. Attrition
B. Abrasion
C. Erosion
D. Abfraction
ANS: C
Erosion (C) is tooth loss caused by chemical action.
Bulimia, an eating disorder characterized by food
binges followed by self-induced vomiting, is often
associated with erosion of the lingual surfaces of
teeth. Attrition (A) is wearing of tooth structure
caused by normal wear (i.e., disappearance of
mamelons). Abrasion (B) causes loss of tooth
structure from a repetitive mechanical habit (i.e.,
toothbrush abrasion). Abfraction (D) appears as a
wedge-shaped defect at the cementoenamel junction
(CEJ) and is thought to be a result of biomechanical
forces on teeth.
- Aspirin burn will appear
A. as a nonpainful, chronic lesion on the hard palate.
B. as an acute, painful, white lesion on the buccal
mucosa.
C. as an acute, nonpainful, red lesion the floor of the
mouth.
D. as a red-and-white, chronic, painless lesion
requiring biopsy.
ANS: B
Aspirin burn is a white lesion usually found on the
buccal mucosa caused by the patient placing aspirin
on the mucosa near a tooth that is painful. Aspirin
placed on mucosa produces a chemical burn that is an
acute, painful reaction (B). Diagnosis would usually be made by questioning the patient on the history of
the toothache and the white lesion. A chronic lesion
(A) is present for a long time. Aspirin burn may be
a red-and-white lesion, but it is rarely painless and
is not usually found on the floor of the mouth (C).
Aspirin burn does not require a biopsy (D). Once the
patient stops placing the irritant (aspirin) in the area,
the mucosal tissue will heal.
- The dental hygienist has just done an in-service
presentation to the nurses’ aides at the nursing home,
and one of the nurses’ aides calls and states to the
office that she just noticed a hard lump on the roof of
the mouth of one of the residents, and although it does
not hurt, she is worried that it might be cancer, since
the resident is a smoker. What is the MOST likely
clinical diagnosis?
A. Torus palatinus
B. Paget disease of the bone
C. Compound odontoma
D. Osteosarcoma
ANS: A
The tori palatinus or palatal torus is an exophytic
growth of normal compact bone (A). Palatal tori
have a hereditary tendency to occur more frequently
in women. These asymptomatic growths develop
gradually and are found clinically in the midline
of the palate. Tori may be lobulated. Paget disease
of bone (B), also called osteitis deformans, is a
chronic metabolic bone disease, characterized by
resorption, osteoblastic repair, and remineralization
of the involved bone. More common in older men,
the disease usually affects the spinal column and the
pelvis, although it may affect the skull. The maxilla
is more commonly affected compared with the
mandible, and the disease occurs most commonly
in men over the age of 50 years. When found in the
jawbones, the maxilla is more commonly affected
than the mandible; bone enlarges in the maxilla,
causing spaces between teeth, not the midline
of the palate. Paget disease is often painful, and
radiographically appears as a patchy radiolucency
and radiopacity and is referred to as a cottonwool appearance in the later stages of the disease.
Compound odontomas (C), along with complex
odontomas, are the most common odontogenic
tumors and are often associated with unerupted
teeth. Compound odontomas are more common
in the anterior area and are composed of multiple
small toothlike structures. They are usually detected
radiographically, not clinically, and the midline of
the palate is not a likely location. Osteosarcoma or
osteogenic sarcoma (D) is a malignancy of boneforming tissue and is the most common primary
malignant tumor in persons under 40 years of age.
Tumors involving the jaw are twice as common in
the mandible as in the maxilla and occur as a diffuse
swelling or mass that is often painful or causes
paresthesia.
- Crack cocaine use may exhibit all clinical findings
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Parched lips
B. Xerostomia
C. Irritation of the palate
D. Irritation of the floor of the mouth
E. Increased heart rate and blood pressure
ANS: D
The floor of the mouth (D) does not usually exhibit
clinical findings as effects of crack cocaine use.
The lips (A) are frequently parched, and cocaine’s
stimulation of the sympathetic autonomic nervous
system causes xerostomia (B) and increased heart rate
and blood pressure (E). The heat of smoking crack
cocaine irritates the palate (C).
- What is the BEST method of diagnosis of linea alba?
A. Clinical appearance
B. Biopsy
C. VELscope™
D. Brush test
ANS: A
Linea alba is diagnosed by its unique clinical
appearance (A). Biopsy (B) is not necessary when it
can easily be diagnosed through less invasive means.
VELscope™ (C) and brush test (D) do not make any
contribution to the diagnosis.
- Traumatic ulcers are usually diagnosed through which
diagnostic procedure?
A. History of lesion
B. Clinical appearance only
C. Microscopic diagnosis
D. Therapeutic diagnosis
ANS: A
Traumatic ulcers are diagnosed on the basis of the
history of the lesion (A). Clinical appearance (B) may
resemble other ulcerative conditions. Microscopic
diagnosis (C) would rule out other, more serious
conditions. Therapeutic diagnosis (D) would not be
helpful at all. Traumatic ulcers heal spontaneously
within a few days.
- Actinic cheilitis is only caused by
A. smoking.
B. use of lip gloss.
C. sun.
D. consistent trauma from a pipe stem.
ANS: C
Actinic or solar cheilitis is caused by ultraviolet
radiation from the sun (C). Smoking (A) may cause
other traumatic lip or oral lesions but not solar
cheilitis. Lip gloss (B) with a high sun protection
factor (SPF) helps decrease tissue reaction but will not
cause solar cheilitis. Trauma from a pipe stem (D) may
cause other traumatic lesions but not solar cheilitis.
- Nicotine stomatitis first appears clinically as a/an
A. overall erythroplakia.
B. white lesion.
C. ulcerated area.
D. brown stain.
ANS: A
The initial response in nicotine stomatitis is overall
erythroplakia (A) of the palate. Over time, it becomes
a white lesion (B) (a hyperkeratotic area) with tiny
red spots where the salivary glands are inflamed.
Nicotine stomatitis usually does not manifest as an
ulcerated area (C), and although there may be brown
stain (D) on teeth, the stain would not appear on the
palatal tissues.
- Necrotizing sialometaplasia is clinically
characterized by
A. ulceration in the affected area.
B. fever.
C. lymphadenopathy.
D. lack of saliva
ANS: A
Necrotizing sialometaplasia is characterized by
ulceration in the affected area (A). The ulceration is
caused by lack of blood supply to the area, usually
associated with trauma, and the most common
site is the palate. Fever (B) and lymphadenopathy
(C) are systemic reactions not characteristic of
necrotizing sialometaplasia. Lack of saliva (D),
or dry mouth, is not a characteristic of necrotizing
sialometaplasia.
- Pyogenic granuloma is associated with
A. acute infection.
B. older age.
C. chronic inflammation.
D. a genetic condition.
ANS: C
A pyogenic granuloma is a response to chronic
inflammation (C). An acute infection (A) does
not cause a pyogenic granuloma. The patient’s
advanced age (B) and genetics (D) do not
contribute to the development of a pyogenic
granuloma.
- Which drug does NOT cause gingival enlargement?
A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
B. Nifedipine (Procardia)
C. Penicillin
D. Amlodipine (Norvasc)
ANS: C
Penicillin (C) is an antibiotic, and antibiotics do not
cause gingival enlargement. Phenytoin (Dilantin) (A)
is an anticonvulsant, and nifedipine (Procardia) (B)
and amlodipine (Norvasc) (D) are calcium channel
blockers frequently prescribed for hypertension and
other cardiovascular conditions, and all cause gingival
enlargement.
- Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis is seen clinically
A. within an open carious crown of a tooth.
B. at the apex of the root.
C. between roots.
D. at the gingival margin.
ANS: A
Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis, also known as a
pulp polyp, is found within an open carious crown
of a tooth (A). It is an excessive proliferation of
chronically inflamed dental pulp tissue. Therefore, it
is not found at the apex of the root (B), between roots
(C), or at the gingival margin (D).
- Which does NOT describe the characteristics of a
radicular cyst?
A. Is a true cyst
B. Is caused by caries
C. Is a pseudocyst
D. Occurs in nonvital tooth
ANS: C
A pseudocyst (C) lacks an epithelial lining and does
not fit the characteristics of a true cyst. A true cyst is
a fluid-filled, epithelium-lined sac. A radicular cyst
is a true cyst (A). A radicular cyst is usually caused
by caries (B), and the tooth will test nonvital on a
vitalometer (D).
- The radicular cyst will have a similar radiographic
appearance to all of these pathologies EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Periapical granuloma
B. Abscess
C. Dentigerous or follicular cyst
D. Periapical cyst
ANS: C
Radiographically, a dentigerous or follicular cyst (C)
appears as a radiolucent sac surrounding the crown
of an unerupted tooth. Periapical granulomas (A),
abscesses (B), and periapical cysts (D) all appear
radiographically as a round or oval radiolucency at
the apex of a nonvital tooth.
- Which recurrent aphthous ulcer occurs most
commonly?
A. Major aphthous ulcer
B. Minor aphthous ulcer
C. Herpetiform ulcer
D. Sutton disease ulcer
ANS: B
Of all types of aphthous ulcers, minor aphthous ulcers
(B), which measure 3 to 5 millimeters (mm), occur most
often. Major aphthous ulcers (A) and Sutton disease
ulcers (D) are the same; they are much larger (greater
than 1 centimeter [cm]) than minor or herpetiform ulcers
and may cause scarring upon healing. Herpetiform
aphthous ulcers (C), the smallest of aphthous ulcers,
measure 1 to 2mm and may occur in groups.
- What is another term for hives?
A. Urticaria
B. Sutton disease
C. Pruritus
D. Contact dermatitis
ANS: A
Urticaria (A) is another term for hives, a type 1
hypersensitivity reaction. Sutton disease (B) is
another name for major aphthous ulcers. Pruritus (C)
is itching. Contact dermatitis (D) occurs when an
allergen has direct contact with skin. It is a type IV
hypersensitivity reaction.
- All are characteristics of lichen planus EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. Benign, chronic condition
B. Wickham striae
C. Desquamative gingivitis
D. Bull’s-eye skin lesions
ANS: D
Bull’s-eye skin lesions (D) are associated with
erythema multiforme, not lichen planus. Lichen planus
is a benign, chronic condition (A) characterized by the
white interconnecting lines that are seen clinically on
the mucosa, known as Wickham striae (B). In addition,
desquamative gingivitis (C) may also accompany the
erosive form of lichen planus.
- A triad of symptoms—joint pain, urethritis, and
conjunctivitis—are associated with which condition?
A. Behçet syndrome
B. Hand-Schüller-Christian disease
C. Reactive arthritis
D. Lichen planus
ANS: C
Arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis are a triad
of symptoms associated with reactive arthritis (C).
Behçet syndrome (A) has a triad of locations: (1) oral,
(2) genital, and (3) ocular. Hand-Schüller-Christian
disease (B) is a form of Langerhans cell disease with
a triad of symptoms that includes: (1) “punched out” radiolucencies in the skull, (2) exophthalmos, and
(3) diabetes insipidus. Lichen planus (D) is a benign,
chronic condition affecting the mucosa and skin and
does not present with these symptoms.
- Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
may require modifications to dental hygiene
treatment EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION?
A. Treatment of erosive oral lesions
B. Delay of treatment because of
immunosuppression
C. Increased use of fluorides
D. Use of adaptive oral hygiene aids
ANS: C
Patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) may
have complex medical and dental needs because of the
effects of the disease, but increased caries risk is not
directly related to SLE (C). Skin and mucous membrane
lesions are common, especially the “butterfly or malar
rash” that is associated with SLE. The oral lesions (A)
may be quite painful, requiring palliative treatment.
Patients are often on high doses of corticosteroids,
which suppress the immune system and make the
patient more susceptible to infections (B). There is often
significant joint pain and limited mobility as the disease
course progresses, so the patient may require adaptive
oral hygiene aids (D).
- Acantholysis occurs in:
A. lichen planus.
B. normal mucosa.
C. pemphigus vulgaris.
D. mucosal membrane pemphigoid.
ANS: C
Acantholysis, the separation of intracellular bridges in
epithelial cells, occurs in pemphigus vulgaris (C). In
lichen planus (A), there is degeneration of cells at the
basal cell layer. In normal mucosa (B) and mucosal
membrane pemphigoid (D), there is no separation
within the epithelial cells.
- Oral and genital ulcers and ocular
inflammation are characteristics of
which condition?
A. Erythema multiforme
B. Behçet syndrome
C. Hand-Schüller-Christian disease
D. Reactive arthritis
ANS: B
The diagnosis of Behçet syndrome (B) requires that
two of the following three characteristics be met:
(1) oral ulcers, (2) genital ulcers, and (3) ocular
inflammation. In erythema multiforme (A), oral
lesions and “target eye” or “iris eye” skin lesions are
present. Hand-Schüller Christian disease (C) is a form
of Langerhans cell disease, with a triad of symptoms,
including “punched out” radiolucent areas in the
skull, exophthalmos, and diabetes insipidus. Reactive
arthritis (D) has a triad of symptoms that includes:
(1) arthritis, (2) urethritis, and (3) conjunctivitis.
- Which condition is a bacterial skin infection?
A. Impetigo
B. Erythema multiforme
C. Lichen planus
D. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
ANS: A
Impetigo (A) is a bacterial skin infection seen on the
face and extremities of young children. The lesions, which are vesicles that rupture and form crust or
longer-lasting bullae, are infectious and may itch.
Erythema multiforme (B) is a hypersensitivity
reaction. Lichen planus (C) is a chronic disease
affecting the skin and oral mucosa. Systemic
lupus erythematosus SLE (D) is an inflammatory
autoimmune disease of unknown cause.
- Strawberry tongue is associated with which
condition?
A. Rheumatic fever
B. Scarlet fever
C. Tuberculosis
D. Chickenpox
ANS: B
Strawberry tongue is associated with scarlet fever, a
streptococcal infection (B). Rheumatic fever (A) is
an immunologic response to streptococcal infection
that involves damage to the heart valves, joints, and
the central nervous system. Tuberculosis (C) is an
infection of the lungs. Tubercular oral lesions are
rare, but when they do occur, the tongue and the
palate are the most common locations. Chickenpox
(D) is caused by varicella-zoster virus (VZV), not a
bacterium.
- Which is the MOST characteristic clinical feature of
herpes zoster?
A. Fever
B. Unilateral lesions
C. Patient’s age
D. Ulcers throughout the oral mucosa
ANS: B
The most common clinical feature of herpes zoster is
unilateral vesicles (B) along a sensory nerve. Fever
(A) is a systemic factor and not a key factor in herpes
zoster. Herpes zoster occurs most frequently in adults
as a recurrent infection of the varicella (chickenpox
virus) that manifests as herpes zoster (C). Oral ulcers
in herpes zoster are confined to half the oral cavity
and do not occur throughout the oral mucosa (D).
- Which condition is NOT associated with
tuberculosis?
A. Positive protein derivative (PPD)
B. Granulomatous disease
C. Primary infection in oral tissues
D. Kidney and liver involvement
ANS: C
The primary infection site of tuberculosis (TB) is
the lung, not the oral tissues (C). Purified protein
derivative (A) is the skin test for TB. TB is a
granulomatous disease (B) and a chronic, infectious
disease. In advanced stages, widespread TB involves
the kidneys and the liver (D). Tuberculosis outside
of the lungs is referred to as miliary tuberculosis.
- Actinomycosis is caused by a/an
A. fungus.
B. filamentous bacterium.
C. abscess.
D. spirochete
ANS: B
Actinomycosis is caused by a filamentous bacterium
(B). At one time, the cause was thought to be a
fungus (A), and this gave rise to the term mycosis. An
abscess (C) is present in actinomycosis but is not the
cause. A spirochete (D) causes syphilis.
- An operculum contributes to which condition?
A. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)
B. Syphilis
C. Tuberculosis (TB)
D. Pericoronitis
ANS: D
An operculum is a flap of tissue around the crown
of a partially erupted tooth. When the operculum
becomes inflamed as a result of bacteria or from
trauma, the condition is called pericoronitis (D).
The mandibular third molar is the most commonly
affected tooth. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
(NUG) (A) involves gingival tissues. Syphilis (B)
may present with lesions on the lips or the tongue.
Tuberculosis (C) rarely manifests oral lesions, but
when it does, the lips and the tongue are affected.
- Syphilis is caused by
A. Actinomyces israelii.
B. Treponema pallidum.
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D. Borrelia vincentii.
ANS: B
Treponema pallidum (B) is the spirochete that
causes syphilis. Actinomyces israelii (A) causes
actinomycosis. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (C)
causes tuberculosis. Borrelia vincentii (D) and a
fusiform bacillus are associated with necrotizing
ulcerative gingivitis (NUG).
- Which condition is MOST often associated with loss
of vascularity in bone?
A. Paget disease
B. Sickle cell disease
C. Radiation to bone
D. Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
ANS: C
Radiation to bone (C) damages small vasculature,
increasing the risk of osteoradionecrosis because of
the resulting decreased blood supply. Paget disease
(A) is primarily associated with bone resorption,
osteoblastic repair, “cottonwool” appearance of bone,
and elevated serum alkaline phosphatase levels in
blood. Sickle cell anemia (B) causes radiographic
changes to bone, including loss of trabeculation with
large marrow spaces. Periapical cemento-osseous
dysplasia (D) causes changes in bone density but is not
usually associated with changes in vascularity in bone.
- Candidiasis is an overgrowth of a
A. yeastlike fungus.
B. spirochete.
C. filamentous bacterium.
D. fusiform bacillus.
ANS: A
Candidiasis is an overgrowth of the yeastlike fungus
(A) Candida albicans. It is usually a result of
immunosuppression. A spirochete (B) is a bacterium
of the order Spirochaetales and may cause syphilis,
relapsing fever, yaws, Lyme disease, necrotizing
ulcerative oral diseases, and others. A filamentous
bacterium (C) is part of a long strand of bacteria
that interlock to each other and are associated with
chronic diseases. A fusiform bacillus (D) is formed by
the fused strands of the narrow filaments of bacteria;
it is tapered at both ends and is commonly associated
with several human diseases, including periodontal
disease. None of these is associated with candidiasis.
- Clinically, pseudomembranous candidiasis is
described as
A. a white, curdlike material that cannot be
rubbed off.
B. denture stomatitis.
C. a white, curdlike material that can be wiped off.
D. red and painful mucosa.
ANS: C
Pseudomembranous candidiasis presents as a white,
curdlike material that can be wiped off (C), leaving a
red and painful area underneath. Chronic hyperplastic
candidiasis (A) manifests as a white material that
cannot be rubbed off. Chronic atrophic candidiasis
(B) is often referred to as denture stomatitis. Candidal
infection presents as red, painful mucosa (D) in
erythematous candidiasis
- Types 16 and 18 of human papillomavirus (HPV)
have been specifically linked to anal, cervical,
vulvar, and oropharyngeal cancers. HPV types 6 and
11, which cause condyloma acuminatum, are also
considered oncogenic viruses.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false.
C. The first statement is true, and the second
statement is false.
D. The first statement is false, and the second
statement is true.
ANS: C
The first statement is true, and the second statement is
false (C). Viruses with the potential to turn normal cells
into cancerous cells are termed oncogenic viruses. HPV
is part of a group of over 150 related viruses, with over
40 types that are sexually transmitted. HPV types 16
and 18 are termed “high risk” types of HPV because of
their neoplastic potential. These HPV types are linked
to anal cancer, oropharyngeal squamous cell carcinoma,
and cervical cancer. About 90% of condyloma
acuminatum cases are linked to HPV types 6 and 11,
which have the lowest neoplastic potential (“low risk”)
but are one of the HPV types that can cause genital
warts and may be a marker of sexual abuse if found
in the oral cavity of a child. The current HPV vaccine
protects against HPV types 6, 1l, 16, and 18. Choices A,
B, and D do not accurately reflect the statements.
- The MOST common type of candidiasis affecting the
oral mucosa is
A. pseudomembranous candidiasis.
B. hypertrophic candidiasis.
C. candidal leukoplakia.
D. chronic atrophic candidiasis
ANS: D
Chronic atrophic candidiasis (D), also known as
denture stomatitis, is the most common type of
candidiasis. Pseudomembranous candidiasis (A)
occurs when a white, curdlike material appears on
the mucosa and can be rubbed off, leaving a bloody,
red undersurface. Hypertrophic candidiasis (B) and
candidal leukoplakia (C) are different terms for the
same condition, and these lesions cannot be rubbed of
- Varicella-zoster-virus (VZV) causes chickenpox and
what other disease?
A. Measles
B. Mumps
C. Shingles
D. Mononucleosis
ANS: C
Shingles (C), or herpes zoster, is also caused by
varicella-zoster-virus (VZV). Measles (A) and mumps
(B) are caused by a paramyxovirus. Mononucleosis
(D) is caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV).
