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,.RLBL sample > HEMATO DSE > Flashcards

HEMATO DSE Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Pernicious anemia is caused by deficiency of ________ .

(a) Folic acid
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin B6
(d) Vitamin B1

A

(b) It is a megaloblastic anemia caused by poor absorption
of vitamin B12 or extrinsic factor, due to absence of an
intrinsic factor in the parietal cells of the lining mucosa of
stomach.

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2
Q
  1. The deficiency of vitamin B12 in pernicious anemia is caused by
    lack of

(a) von Willebrands factor
(b) Extrinsic factor of Castle
(c) Intrinsic factor of Castle
(d) Christmas factor

A

(c) The yet unidentified intrinsic factor of castle is produced
by the parietal cells of stomach mucosa. It has been proved
that absence of this factor leads to poor absorption of
vitamin B12.

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3
Q
  1. Aplastic anemia usually results in
    (a) Polycythemia
    (b) Agranulocytosis
    (c) Neutropenia
    (d) Pancytopenia
A

(d) It is characterized by failure of the hematopoietic precursor
cells in the bone marrow to produce adequate numbers of
all types of blood cells thus leading to pancytopenia.

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3
Q
  1. The average daily requirement of vitamin B12 for an adult is about

(a) 2.4 µg
(b) 1 mg
(c) 1 g
(d) 1 dL

A

(a) Vitamin B12 is a nutrient that helps keep the body’s nerve
and blood cells healthy and helps make DNA. As per the
FDA guidelines,The recommended dietary intake as per the
FDA (USA) guidelines is about 2.4 µg for a normal healthy
adult.

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4
Q
  1. Which amongst the following antibiotics is strongly associated
    with pancytopenia?
    (a) Chloramphenicol
    (b) Sulfonamides
    (c) Ciprofloxacin
    (d) Penicillins
A

(a) Chloramphenicol has been strongly implicated in causing
aplastic anemia leading to pancytopenia due to its effect on
the hematopoietic cells.

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5
Q
  1. All of the following except ____ are lab findings associated with
    thalassemia.

(a) Macrocytic normochromic RBCs
(b) Hypochromic microcytic RBCs
(c) Nucleated RBCs in circulating blood
(d) Elevated WBC count up to 10,000–25,000 per cc of blood

A

(a) Macrocytic normochromic red blood cells are a feature of
pernicious anemia.

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6
Q
  1. The characteristic radiographic change produced in the skulls of
    thalassemic persons is termed as ________ appearance.

(a) Cotton wool
(b) Ground glass
(c) Hair on end
(d) Peau d’ orange

A

(c) This appearance is produced due to extreme thickening
of diploe and the trabeculae between the inner and outer
cortical plates becoming elongated.

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7
Q
  1. Sickle cell anemia occurs almost exclusively in blacks and in
    whites of ______ origin.

(a) Mediterranean
(b) Slavic
(c) Russian
(d) American

A

(a) Sickle cell anemia is a hereditary type of Mendelian
dominant, nonsex-linked chronic hemolytic anemia
that occurs almost exclusively in blacks and in whites of
mediterranean origin.

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8
Q
  1. Compared to the normal 120 day lifespan of normal erythrocytes,
    the sickle-shaped RBCs have a lifespan of only

(a) 30–40 days
(b) 10–20 days
(c) 3–5 days
(d) 50–60 days

A

(b) In this disease, normal adult hemoglobin HbA is genetically
altered to sickle hemoglobin HbS. This altered hemoglobin
molecule undergoes gelation or crystallization to distort
the shape of RBC to sickle shape when it is deoxygenated
as happens in cases of exercise, infection, pregnancy or
administration of general anesthesia

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9
Q
  1. Ground sections of teeth stained by blood pigments in infants
    suffering from erythroblastosis fetalis shows the presence of

(a) Bilirubin
(b) Biliverdin
(c) Bilinogen
(d) Hemoglobin

A

(a) It is a congenital hemolytic anemia brought about by Rh
factor incompatibility between mother’s blood and that of
the infant. Fetal hemolysis occurs when mother’s antibodies to Rh factor leaks through the placenta. The bilirubin
produced due to hemolysis gets deposited in the teeth of
infants giving them a green, brown or bluish discoloration.

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10
Q
  1. Patterson Kelly syndrome is one of the manifestations of
    deficiency of
    (a) Vitamin B12
    (b) Folic acid
    (c) Iron
    (d) Calcium
A

(c) It is a rare condition characterized by iron deficiency anemia,
in conjunction with glossitis and dysphagia.

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11
Q
  1. Which amongst the following is usually the cause of faulty
    absorption of iron?

(a) Chronic blood loss
(b) Inadequate dietary intake
(c) Achlorhydria
(d) Increased iron requirement

A

(c) Achlorhydria referes to absence of gastric hydrochloric
acid. In the absence of hydrochloric acid, conversion of
unabsorbable dietary ferric iron to absorbable ferrous state
is impaired.

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12
Q
  1. An apparent increase in the number of circulating RBCs occurring
    as a result of loss blood fluid with hemoconcentration of cells is
    called as

(a) Relative polycythemia
(b) Polycythemia rubra vera
(c) Secondary polycythemia
(d) True polycythemi

A

(a) Relative polycythemia is not an actual disease and is usually
caused by loss of blood with resultant hemoconcentration.
It is seen often in cases of chronic vomiting, diarrhea or loss
of electrolytes with accompanying loss of water.

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13
Q
  1. Cyclic neutropenia refers to a periodic/cyclic reduction in
    circulating

(a) Leukocytes
(b) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Monocytes

A

(b) It is a rare idiopathic hematologic disorder characterized by
regular periodic reduction in the neutrophils of the affected
patient. The underlying pathology seems to be related to a
defect in the hematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow.

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13
Q
  1. Which amongst the following is not a form of leukopenia?

(a) Agranulocytosis
(b) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
(c) Cyclic neutropenia
(d) Infectious mononucleosis

A

(d) Infectious mononucleosis is a viral disease caused by
Epstein-Barr virus and is characterized by fever, sore throat,
lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Blood investigations
reveal leukocytosis which is invariably a lymphocytosis.

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14
Q
  1. Infectious mononucleosis is caused by

(a) Epstein-Barr virus
(b) Cytomegalovirus
(c) Varicella zoster virus (d) Staph. aureus

A

(a) The Epstein-Barr virus is also implicated in the causation
of Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma
and lymphoblastic leukemia. An important means of
transmission of this virus in this disease is through deep
kissing which results in exchange of saliva.

15
Q
  1. The _________ lymph nodes are usually the first nodes to enlarge
    in infectious mononucleosis.

(a) Axillary
(b) Cervical
(c) Submandibular
(d) Inguinal

A

(b) Lymphadenopathy is one of the prominent signs of this
disease, with cervical lymph nodes usually the first ones to
enlarge followed by those of axilla and groin.

16
Q
  1. The chromosomal abnormality observed in 85% to 90% of patients
    suffering from chronic myeloid leukemia is in

(a) Chromosome 21
(b) Chromosome 27
(c) Chromosome 23
(d) Chromosome 22

A

(d) Leukemias are believed to arise from a combination of
genetic and environmental factors, with Philadelphia
chromosome an abnormality of chromosome 22 being
observed in 85–90 percent of patients suffering from chronic
myeloid leukemia.

17
Q
  1. Lymph node enlargement is not a common occurrence in _______
    leukemia.
    (a) Acute lymphoid
    (b) Chronic myeloid
    (c) Chronic lymphoid
    (d) Acute monocytic
A

(b) Lymphadenopathy is not generally observed in leukemias
of myeloid series as they involve the cells of granulocyte
series, i.e. PMNL, eosinophils and basophils.

18
Q
  1. A positive Paul-Bunnell test showing a titer up to 1:4096 is
    characteristic and pathognomonic of

(a) Leukemia
(b) Infectious mononucleosis
(c) Agranulocytosis
(d) Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

A

(b) Normal titer of agglutinins and hemolysins in human blood
against sheep RBCs does not exceed 1:8, but in infectious mononucleosis, this is raised to above 1:4096. This is referred
to as a positive Paul-Bunnell test and is pathognomonic of
this disease.

19
Q
  1. Purpura is defined as a purplish discoloration of
    (a) Bones
    (b) Eyes
    (c) Skin
    (d) Teeth
A

(c) Purpura is defined as a purplish discoloration of skin and
mucous membranes owing to spontaneous extravasation
of blood

20
Q
  1. Indicate which amongst the following is not a clotting factor?
    (a) Calcium
    (b) Hageman factor
    (c) von Willebrand factor
    (d) Christmas factor
A

(c) von Willebrand’s factor is not a factor but the name of a
hereditary disease characterized by tendency for excessive
bleeding in patients who have a normal platelet count,
normal clotting and prothrombin time and normal serum
fibrinogen levels. Only the bleeding time is prolonged.

21
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is normal in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura?

(a) Clotting time
(b) Bleeding time
(c) Tourniquet test
(d) Capillary fragility

A

(a) Thrombocytopenia is a hematologic disorder that is
characterized by a markedly decreased number of
circulating blood platelets. The idiopathic form of this
disorder is believed to be an autoimmune disease in which
the body forms antibodies against its own platelets.

22
Q
  1. The clotting factor deficient in hemophilia C is
    (a) Factor VIII (b) Factor XI
    (c) Factor X (d) Factor IX
A

(b) Hemophilia is classified into three types based on the
deficiency of clotting factors into—hemophilia A (factor
VIII), hemophilia B (factor IX) and hemophilia C (factor
XI). Out of these, hemophilia A is the most common

23
Q
  1. Christmas disease is also known as

(a) von Willebrand’s disease
(b) Hemophilia A
(c) Hemophilia C
(d) Hemophilia B

A

(d) Hemophilia B is also known a Christmas disease so named
after the name of the first patient in whom it was discovered.
Even the clotting factor which is deficient (factor IX or
plasma thromboplastin component) is sometimes referred
to as christmas factor.

24
Q
  1. Which of the tests is abnormal in hemophilia?

(a) Prothrombin time
(b) Bleeding time
(c) Platelet aggregation
(d) Clotting time

A

(d) The characteristic defect of hemophilia is abnormally
prolonged coagulation time, with bleeding and
prothrombin time as well as platelet aggregation being
normal

25
Q
  1. Parahemophilia is due to absence of factor

(a) V
(b) Calcium
(c) VII
(d) XII

A

(a) Factor V also called proaccelerin or labile factor is one of
the substances responsible for conversion of prothrombin
to thrombin. Parahemophilia is thought to be transmitted as
an autosomal recessive trait with both sexes being affected.

26
Q
  1. Pseudohemophilia is also known as

(a) Christmas disease
(b) Bleeder’s disease
(c) von Willebrand’s disease
(d) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

(c) It is an inherited disease transmitted as an autosomal
dominant trait with both sexes being affected. This disease is
caused by a decrease in all the three functional components
of factor VIII, while classic hemophilia is caused by
deficiency of only one of the three functional components
of factor VIII.

27
Q
  1. Congenital aplastic anemia associated with a variety of congenital
    defects including bone defects, hypogenitalism and generalized
    olive brown skin pigmentation is called

(a) Fanconi syndrome
(b) Reye syndrome
(c) Down syndrome
(d) Patterson Kelly syndrome

A

(a) Primary aplastic anemia is one of the primary components of this syndrome. Apart from Fanconi’s syndrome,
dyskeratosis congenita is also many times associated with
aplastic anemia

28
Q
  1. Cooley’s anemia is also known as

(a) Sickle cell anemia
(b) Thalassemia
(c) Erythroblastosis fetalis
(d) Sprue

A

(b) Also called erythroblastic anemia, thalassemia occurs in two
types—α thalassemia when there is deficient synthesis of
the α chain on hemoglobin and β thalassemia when there
is deficient synthesis of the β chain.

,.RLBL sample (22 decks)

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