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P1, Final Exam > Module Two Review > Flashcards

Module Two Review Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement best describes a person in the anatomic position?

Lying on his or her left side

Lying with the face and abdomen downward

Standing erect, facing forward, palms and feet facing forward

Standing erect, facing forward, palms and feet facing backward

A

Standing erect, facing forward, palms and feet facing forward

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2
Q

A patient was found in the prone position. How was the patient found?

Sitting up

Lying on the stomach

Lying on the back

Standing, facing forward

A

Lying on the stomach

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3
Q

Where does the sagittal plane run?

Vertically, dividing the body into left and right

Horizontally, dividing the body into three anatomic regions

Horizontally, dividing the body into top and bottom

Vertically, dividing the body into front and back

A

Vertically, dividing the body into left and right

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4
Q

The coxae (hip bones) are formed by the fusion of what bones?

Pubis and femur

Pubis, sacrum, and coccyx

Ilium, ischium, and coccyx

Ilium, ischium, and pubis

A

Ilium, ischium, and pubis

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5
Q

In what part of the body are the tarsal bones located?

Ankle

Foot

Wrist

Hand

A

Foot

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6
Q

The elbow and hip are examples of what type of joints?

Fibrous

Cartilaginous

Synovial

Gomphosis

A

Synovial

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7
Q

What portion of the abdominal region would the liver be palpated?

RUQ

RLQ

LUQ

LLQ

A

RUQ

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8
Q

Which organ is not found within the abdominal cavity?

Kidneys

Small Intestine

Liver

Gall bladder

A

Kidneys

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9
Q

Which structure is located within the mediastinum?

Heart

Stomach

Lung

Larynx

A

Heart

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10
Q

What is the serous membrane that covers the abdominal organs?

Pleural lining

Abdominal lining

Parietal peritoneum

Visceral peritoneum

A

Visceral peritoneum

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11
Q

Which organ is a retroperitoneal structure?

Stomach

Liver

Pancreas

Spleen

A

Pancreas

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12
Q

What type of contractile tissue is responsible for movement?
Connective

Muscle

Epithelial

Nervous

A

Muscle

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13
Q

What type of tissue is responsible for conducting electrical signals?

Connective

Muscle

Epithelial

Nervous

A

Nervous

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14
Q

Which are examples of long bones?

Carpal and tarsal bones

Humerus, radius, and femur

Ribs, scapula, and some skull bones

Vertebrae, coccyx, and mandible

A

Humerus, radius, and femur

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15
Q

Which are examples of flat bones?

Carpal and tarsal bones

Humerus, radius, and femur

Ribs, scapula, and some skull bones

Vertebrae, coccyx, and mandible

A

Ribs, scapula, and some skull bones

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16
Q

Which components are parts of the integumentary system?

Heart, blood, and blood vessels

Skin, nails, and oil glands

Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli

A

Skin, nails, and oil glands

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17
Q

A patient has a disease that affects the cerebellum. From what condition would the patient likely suffer?

Poor muscle coordination

Loss of vision

Shallow respiration

Temperature regulation

A

Poor muscle coordination

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18
Q

How many vertebrae are in the cervical spine?

5

6

7

9

A

7

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19
Q

What are the three formed elements that comprise blood?

Plasma, lymph, and erythrocytes

Lymph, erythrocytes, and leukocytes

Leukocytes, plasma, and platelets

Platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes

A

Platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes

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20
Q

Which blood component transports oxygen from the lungs to the body tissues?
Plasma

Platelets

Leukocytes

Erythrocytes

A

Erythrocytes

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21
Q

Which blood component serves a defensive function by engulfing infectious organisms and producing antibodies?
Plasma

Platelets

Leukocytes

Erythrocytes

A

Leukocytes

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22
Q

What terms represent the atrioventricular valves of the heart?
Mitral and aortic

Aortic and pulmonic

Mitral and tricuspid

Tricuspid and pulmonic

A

Mitral and tricuspid

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23
Q

A small blood clot enters the right ventricle. Where will it travel next?

Pulmonary artery

Pulmonary vein

Vena cava

Aorta

A

Pulmonary artery

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24
Q

Which vessel(s) carry blood from the body to the right atrium?

Superior and inferior vena cavae

Aorta

Pulmonary artery

Right coronary artery

A

Superior and inferior vena cavae

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25
Q

What is the sac that covers the outside of the heart?

Epicardium

Endocardium

Myocardium

Pericardium

A

Pericardium

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26
Q

How many vertebrae are in the thoracic spine?

15

10

8

12

A

12

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27
Q

What structures comprise the lower airway?

Hard palate, bronchi, and alveoli

Mouth, nose, larynx, and trachea

Esophagus, trachea, and bronchioles

Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

A

Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

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28
Q

What is the area where the trachea divides into the right and left mainstem bronchi?

Pleura

Carina

Xiphoid process

Sternal angle

A

Carina

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29
Q

What is the smooth, moist epithelial layer covering the lungs called?

Visceral pleura

Visceral peritoneum

Parietal pleura

Parietal peritoneum

A

Visceral pleura

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30
Q

Where is bile produced?

Gallbladder and stored in the liver

Pancreas and stored in the gallbladder

Liver and stored in the gallbladder

Stomach and stored in the pancreas

A

Liver and stored in the gallbladder

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31
Q

What are the whites of the eyes called?

Retina

Vascular tunic

Conjunctiva

Sclera

A

Sclera

32
Q

How many vertebrae are in the lumbar spine?
4

8

5

12

A

5

33
Q

Which term describes the relative constancy in the internal body environment?

A. Homeostasis
B. Hemostasis
C. Hermonstasis
D. Hematostasis

A

Homeostasis

34
Q

By what mechanism does glucose enter a cell?

A. Diffusion
B. Osmosis
C. Mediated transport
D. Miosis

A

C. Mediated

35
Q

The sphincter at the arterial end of a capillary is known as the _____ sphincter.

A. Precapillary
B. Midcapillary
C. Postcapillary
D. Endocapillary

A

Precapillary

36
Q

What is the most abundant cation in the extracellular fluid?
A. Potassium

B. Chloride

C. Sodium

D. Magnesium

A

Sodium

37
Q

Where are baroreceptors located?

A. Heart and great vessels
B. Kidneys and liver
C. Spleen and liver
D. Heart and kidneys

A

A. Heart and great vessels

38
Q 
What type of molecule is sodium?
  A. Anion 
  B. Cation 
  C. Proion 
  D. Negion
A

B. Cation

39
Q

Cardiac output is the volume of blood _____.

A. Pumped by the ventricles per minute
B. Ejected with each heartbeat
C. Circulating throughout the body
D. Pushed through the coronary arteries

A

A. Pumped by the ventricles per minute

40
Q

Which definition correctly describes preload?

A. Venous return available to the right ventricle
B. Blood already in the arteries before each contraction
C. Blood that remains in the atria after they contract
D. Venous blood that remains in the veins

A

A. Venous return available to the right ventricle

41
Q 
What is a solute?
  A. Water 
  B. Substance dissolved in a solution 
  C. Diluent 
  D. Blood product
A

Substance dissolved in a solution

42
Q

What will occur when a living cell is placed into a hypertonic solution?
A. Draw water into the cell and expand
B. Lose water from the cell and shrink
C. Explode from increased intracellular pressure
D. Lose the permeability of the membrane

A

. Lose water from the cell and shrink

43
Q 
Which term describes the flow of fluid across a semipermeable membrane from a lower solute concentration to a higher solute concentration?
  A. Diffusion 
  B. Mediation 
  C. Osmosis 
  D. Miosis
A

C. Osmosis

44
Q

What are the body’s principal regulators of acid-base balance?

A. Kidneys and liver
B. Lungs and kidneys
C. Pancreas and lungs
D. Liver and pancreas

A

B. Lungs and kidneys

45
Q

What does a substance’s pH represent?

A. Concentration of hydrogen ions
B. Ability to neutralize chemicals
C. Number of active molecules
D. Positive charge

A

A. Concentration of hydrogen ions

46
Q 
What is the driving force of osmosis produced by 
  A. Permeability of the membrane 
  B. Molecular weight of the particles 
  C. Number of particles 
  D. Partial pressure of dissolved gases
A

Partial pressure of dissolved gases

47
Q 
Hyperventilation produces respiratory alkalosis by decreasing which element?
  A. Oxygen 
  B. Potassium 
  C. Chloride 
  D. Carbon dioxide
A

D. Carbon dioxide

48
Q

A paramedic is treating a patient for a traumatic brain injury causing cerebral edema. If the paramedic wanted to administer an IV fluid to treat the cerebral edema, he or she would choose what kind of solution?

A. Hypertonic
B. Hypotonic
C. Isotonic
D. Neurotonic

A

A. Hypertonic

49
Q 
Which blood type is referred to as the universal recipient?
  A. A 
  B. B 
  C. AB 
  D. O
A

C. AB

50
Q

What is edema?

A. Caused by excess fluids
B. A problem of fluid distribution
C. Caused by water leaving the interstitial spaces
D. A problem caused by excessive fluid administration

A

B. A problem of fluid distribution

51
Q

What is the most common cause of cellular injury?

A. Hypoxia
B. Chemical
C. Infectious
D. Inflammatory

A

A. Hypoxia

52
Q 
Paramedics are called to a local mall, where a 16-year-old boy involved his father's car in a low speed car crash in the parking lot, resulting in minor damage to the fender. No injuries are apparent on examination. The boy's heart rate is 90, blood pressure 130/80, respiratory rate 40. The patient states that his fingers and toes are tingling and feel numb and that he is having heart palpitations. Which excessive element is likely causing the patient's symptoms in the minor car crash scenario?
  A. Carbon dioxide 
  B. Carbon dioxide elimination 
  C. Hydrogen ions 
  D. Hydrogen ion elimination
A

B. Carbon dioxide elimination

53
Q 
Which term is defined by inadequate circulation of blood and nutrients to the tissues?
  A. Necrosis 
  B. Phagocytosis 
  C. Autolysis 
  D. Hypoperfusion
A

D. Hypoperfusion

54
Q

Which is true of viruses?
A. Viruses are responsible for relatively few diseases in humans.
B. Viruses can reproduce only by infecting living cells.
C. Viruses function in a manner similar to that of bacteria.
D. Viruses have a high metabolism, making them easy to kill.

A

B. Viruses can reproduce only by infecting living cells.

55
Q

Which type of shock results from severe allergic reaction?

A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Neurogenic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Septic shock

A

A. Anaphylactic shock

56
Q 
What does the mnemonic MODS indicate?
  A. Modified organ disability syndrome 
  B. Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome 
  C. Multiple organ dehydrative shock 
  D. Modified organ disseminated shock
A

B. Multiple organ dysfunction syndrome

57
Q

What is the body’s first line of defense against invading organisms?

A. Skin and mucous membranes
B. Inflammatory response
C. Immune response
D. Pathogenic response

A

A. Skin and mucous membranes

58
Q

Allergy refers to an exaggerated immune response to environmental _____.

A. Allergens
B. Self-antigens
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Antibodies

A

A. Allergens

59
Q

What is an infant younger than 28 days of age called?

A. Newborn
B. Neonate
C. Infant
D. Toddler

A

B. Neonate

60
Q

If a newborn loses 10% of his or her body weight in the first 2 days of life, what should that be considered?

A. A normal weight loss after birth
B. Lost much less weight than expected
C. Has lost more weight than expected
D. Is dangerously dehydrated.

A

A. A normal weight loss after birth

61
Q

Which statement best describes the ductus venosus, ductus arteriosus, and foramen ovale?
A. Open until the child reaches puberty
B. Structures unique to fetal circulation
C. Structures that are formed after the first months of life
D. Necessary for normal circulation during the first 3 months of life

A

B. Structures unique to fetal circulation

62
Q

What is a normal reaction to a finger gently stroking the sole of a newborn’s foot?

A. Toes spread outward and upward.
B. Toes curl in.
C. Foot is withdrawn.
D. Ankle twists laterally.

A

A. Toes spread outward and upward.

63
Q

When assessing the head of a 6-month-old infant, a paramedic feels a soft depression on the skull near the front of the head. What does this indicate?
A. A possible skull fracture
B. Dehydration
C. A delayed closing of the fontanelle
D. A normal finding for a 6-month-old

A

D. A normal finding for a 6-month-old

64
Q

You are interviewing the mother of a 12-year-old boy who has been injured in a bike crash. She tells you that she lets her son ride his bike wherever he likes and doesn’t force him to wear his helmet if he doesn’t want to.

What type of parenting style was used?

Authoritarian

Authoritative

Permissive

Egocentric

A

Permissive

65
Q

Which statement best represents a newborn’s immune system?

A. The result of maternal antibodies
B. Not functional until the baby reaches 2 years of age
C. Provided through active immunity from birth
D. Obtained through immunizations that the newborn receives at birth

A

A. The result of maternal antibodies

66
Q

Between what ages does the onset of puberty for boys typically occur?

A. 8 and 13

B. 10 and 12

C. 13 and 15

D. 14 and 16

A

C. 13 and 15

67
Q

During adolescence, what is a characteristic of their vital signs?
You Answered
A. Fluctuate dramatically as the child grows
B. Are similar to the vital signs in school-age children
C. Vary with the height of the child
D. Approximate the vital signs of adults

A

D. Approximate the vital signs of adults

68
Q

You are interviewing the mother of a 12-year-old boy who has been injured in a bike crash. She tells you that she lets her son ride his bike wherever he likes and doesn’t force him to wear his helmet if he doesn’t want to.

Which traits are to be expected in a child with the parenting style described in the previous scenario?

Low motivation

Responsible

Assertive

Self-centered

A

Self-centered

69
Q

When do children begin to develop a self-concept and self-esteem?
A. Infancy

B. Toddler years

C. School-age years

D. Adolescence

A

School age years

70
Q

What are preschool children who watch violent TV programs prone to do?

A. Avoid violence

B. Model the behavior

C. Be submissive to other children

D. Expect violent behaviors in those around them

A

Model the behavior

71
Q

When does a person physically peak?
A. School years

B. Adolescence

C. Early adulthood

D. Middle adulthood

A

C. Early adulthood

72
Q

A paramedic is treating a patient who has a flail chest secondary to an assault. The patient has been breathing shallow because of the extreme pain of the injury.

Which acid-base derangement will likely occur because of this injury?

Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory alkalosis

Metabolic acidosis

Metabolic alkalosis

A

Respiratory acidosis

73
Q

When do the effects of aging such as vision and hearing loss begin to become apparent?
A. Adolescence

B. Early adulthood

C. Middle adulthood

D. Late adulthood

A

Middle adulthood

74
Q

What is the leading cause of death in the United States for people during early adulthood?
Correct Answer
A. Unintentional injury

B. Infectious disease

C. Cardiovascular disease

D. Cancer

A

A. Unintentional injury

75
Q 
When do people typically begin to feel pressure to accomplish lifelong goals?
  A. Adolescence 
  B. Early adulthood 
  C. Middle adulthood 
  D. Late adulthood
A

C. Middle adulthood

P1, Final Exam (13 decks)

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