Airway Review Flashcards

1
Q

What structure contains the chemoreceptors?

A. Cerebrum
B. Blood vessels in the extremities
C. Spinal cord
D. Arch of the aorta

A

D

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2
Q

What structure contains the pneumotaxic center?

A. Pons
B. Hypothalamus
C. Cerebellum
D. Medulla oblongata

A

A

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3
Q
What is the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the capillary red blood cells and the tissue cells called?
  A. Pulmonary ventilation 
  B. Internal respiration 
  C. External respiration 
  D. Internal ventilation
A

B

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4
Q

The intrathoracic pressure at the beginning of inspiration is normally _____.
A. Much higher than the atmospheric pressure

B. Less than atmospheric pressure

C. Equal to the atmospheric pressure
D. Slightly higher than atmospheric pressure

A

B

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5
Q

Air normally moves into the lungs from the _____.

A. Pressure gradient created when the lungs expand
B. Higher pressure within the lungs during inspiration

C. Positive pressure forcing air into the lungs
D. Increased intrathoracic pressure during inspiration

A

A

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6
Q

What is diffusion?
A. The active transport of gas with energy expended
B. A gaseous substance dissolving in a liquid substance
C. The movement of a gas from a lower pressure to a higher pressure across a semipermeable membrane

D. The movement of a gas from a higher pressure to a lower pressure across a semipermeable membrane

A

D

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7
Q

The normal movement of the diaphragm during inspiration _____.
A. Causes the diaphragm to move up
B. Increases the side-to-side dimensions of the chest

C. Flattens the diaphragm
D. Causes passive inhalation

A

C

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8
Q

The ease with which the lungs expand during inspiration is known as what aspect?
A. Pulmonary pressure

B. Compliance
C. Inspiratory pressure gradient
D. Atmospheric diffusion

A

B

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9
Q

Scalene and sternocleidomastoid muscles are normally used during what occurrence?
A. During normal quiet breathing
B. During mouth breathing
C. As voluntary muscles if a patient chooses to take a deep breath
D. As accessory muscles during labored breathing

A

D

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10
Q

Tidal volume is the amount of air _____.

A. Inhaled or exhaled during a normal breath
B. Left in the lungs after a forceful exhalation
C. One can inhale after a maximal inhalation
D. Always present in the alveoli

A

A

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11
Q

Minute volume is the amount of air _____.
A. That can be inhaled after a maximal inhalation
B. In the tidal volume multiplied by the respiratory rate
C. In the dead space moved in and out of the respiratory tract each minute
D. Available for gas exchange in every minute

A

B

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12
Q
What gas is most prevalent in the atmosphere?
  A. Oxygen 
  B. Carbon dioxide 
  C. Water vapor 
  D. Nitrogen
A

D

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13
Q
Blood in the pulmonary veins is \_\_\_\_\_.
  A. Transported to the right and left lungs 
  B. Transported to the right atrium 
  C. High in carbon dioxide 
  D. High in oxygen
A

D

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14
Q
Which reading is a normal PO2?
  A. 80 mm Hg 
  B. 100 mm Hg 
  C. 120 mm Hg 
  D. 140 mm Hg
A

A

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15
Q
Which reading is a normal PCO2?
  A. 25-35 mm Hg 
  B. 35-45 mm Hg 
  C. 45-55 mm Hg 
  D. 55-65 mm Hg
A

B

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16
Q

If you suspect a right mainstem intubation what would your next step be?
A. Continue to ventilate the patient.
B. Deflate the cuff and withdraw the tube 1 to 2 cm.
C. Inflate the cuff with an additional 3 to 5 mL of air.
D. Remove the tube.If you suspect a right mainstem intubation what would your next step be?

A

B

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17
Q
The majority of carbon dioxide in the blood is carried \_\_\_\_\_.
  A. Dissolved in plasma 
  B. Attached to hemoglobin 
  C. As bicarbonate ions 
  D. Inside red blood cells
A

C

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18
Q
What occurs as a result of hyperventilation?
  A. Dilated cerebral vessels 
  B. Hypercarbia 
  C. Improved cerebral perfusion 
  D. Low carbon dioxide levels
A

D

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19
Q

What is the major determinant(s) in controlling respiration?
A. Oxygen content in the blood
B. Impulses generated within the lungs
C. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
D. pH of capillary blood

A

C

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20
Q
A 45-year-old man chokes on a piece of steak during dinner; he is coughing forcefully. How should the paramedic continue?
  A. Perform back blows 
  B. Attempt a finger sweep 
  C. Monitor the patient 
  D. Give abdominal thrusts
A

C

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21
Q
What is the primary cause of airway obstruction in unconscious patients?
  A. The tongue 
  B. Loose-fitting dentures 
  C. Toys or other small objects 
  D. Incompletely chewed food
A

A

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22
Q

What is an advantage of liquid oxygen (LOX) over gaseous oxygen?
A. The oxygen content in LOX is much higher
B. A larger volume of LOX can be stored in a smaller space
C. LOX is much cheaper than gaseous oxygen
D. There are no special requirements for LOX storage and cylinder transfer

A

B

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23
Q
The maximum acceptable flow rate for a nasal cannula is \_\_\_\_\_ L/min.
  A. 4 
  B. 6 
  C. 8 
  D. 10
A

B

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24
Q
A nasal cannula delivers \_\_\_\_\_% oxygen at a flow rate of 6 L/min in optimal conditions.
  A. 35 
  B. 44 
  C. 58 
  D. 66
A

B

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25
Q

What is an advantage of a Venturi mask?
A. High concentrations of oxygen can be delivered.
B. It uses less oxygen but delivers a higher concentration.
C. It can be used to deliver a precise concentration of oxygen.
D. It is color coded for easy recognition in dimly lit environments.

A

C

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26
Q
What is the most reliable indication that adequate tidal volumes are being delivered during artificial ventilation?
  A. The oxygen saturation improves. 
  B. The patient's color improves. 
  C. Adequate chest rise is observed. 
  D. The stomach inflates slightly.
A

C

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27
Q

When delivering mouth-to-mask ventilations with supplemental oxygen, what should occur?
A. It is not for the patient’s chest rise to be visible.
B. Deliver each breath over 10 seconds.
C. Slow the ventilatory rate to 1 breath every 8 seconds.
D. Provide a minimum flow rate of 10 to 12 L/min.

A

D

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28
Q
The greatest difficulty in using a bag-mask device for mouth-to-mask ventilation is maintaining which aspect?
  A. Proper oxygen flow 
  B. Adequate mask seal 
  C. Consistent bag inflation 
  D. Adequate ventilation rate
A

B

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29
Q
What concentration of oxygen does a bag-mask device with a reservoir and an adequate oxygen source (at least 15 L/min) deliver?
  A. 21% 
  B. 40%-60% 
  C. 80% 
  D. 100%
A

D

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30
Q
Before a second attempt at intubation, a patient should be well ventilated with 100% oxygen for \_\_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_\_ seconds.
  A. 5, 10 
  B. 15, 30 
  C. 1, 2 
  D. 3, 5
A

B

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31
Q

Which position is the head and neck placed when using the sniffing position?
A. Flex the neck and extend the head.
B. Flex the neck so the chin is close to the chest.
C. Flex the head and neck forward.
D. Flex the head and extend the neck.

A

A

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32
Q
To apply cricoid pressure, place firm pressure against which structure?
  A. Hyoid bone 
  B. Thyroid cartilage 
  C. Cricoid cartilage 
  D. Cricothyroid membrane
A

C

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33
Q
Automatic transport ventilators are typically contraindicated in which type of patients?
  A. Unresponsive 
  B. Breathing spontaneously 
  C. Under 12 years of age 
  D. Awake
A

D

34
Q

In ideal circumstances, suctioning of an adult patient should not exceed _____ seconds.

a. 2
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

A

c

35
Q

Suctioning (application of negative pressure) should be activated upon:
A. Insertion of the suction catheter
B. Extraction of the suction catheter
C. Both insertion and extraction
D. Either insertion or extraction (it makes no difference)

A

B

36
Q

Nasogastric or orogastric tube placement can be confirmed by which assessment aspect?
A. Lack of resistance noted upon insertion
B. Auscultating over the epigastrium while injecting 30 to 50 mL of air
C. Palpating the epigastrium during insertion
D. Noting resistance to aspiration

A

B

37
Q

The nasopharyngeal airway should be measured from which point?
A. The corner of the mouth to the earlobe
B. The tip of the nose to the tragus of the ear
C. The tip of the nose to the corner of the mouth
D. The tip of the nose to the chin

A

B

38
Q
While inserting the nasal airway, the beveled tip should be directed toward which point?
  A. Top of the nose 
  B. Septum of the nose 
  C. Floor of the nose 
  D. Lateral cartilage of the nose
A

B

39
Q

Oropharyngeal airways are designed to perform which maneuver?
A. Push the tongue into the oropharynx.
B. Prevent the tongue from obstructing the glottis.
C. Allow for better visualization during endotracheal intubation.
D. Provide a guide for suction catheters.

A

B

40
Q

Which is an advantage of the oral airway?
A. A good head position is no longer needed during ventilation.
B. Adequate mask seal is no longer necessary during ventilation.
C. The tongue will not obstruct the glottis during ventilation.
D. The lower airway is protected from aspiration during ventilation.

A

C

41
Q

The endotracheal (ET) tube size refers to the _____ in millimeters.
A. External diameter
B. Internal diameter
C. Length
D. Length of tube that will pass beyond the vocal cords

A

B

42
Q

When using a straight blade to intubate an adult patient, the tip of the blade should be placed in which location?
A. Directly on the epiglottis (posterior)
B. Under the epiglottis (anterior)
C. In the vallecula
D. Past the epiglottis at the vocal cords

A

A

43
Q

When intubating an adult patient with a curved blade, the tip of the blade should be placed in which spot?

A. Under the epiglottis
B. In the vallecula, at the base of the tongue
C. In the vallecula, at the opening of the vocal cords
D. To the right of the epiglottis

A

B

44
Q
Which intubation technique may be performed without the use of specialized equipment?
  A. Orotracheal 
  B. Transluminal 
  C. Retrograde 
  D. Digital
A

D

45
Q

The distal cuff of the ET tube should hold _____ mL of air.

a. 5 to 10
b. 10 to 20
c. 15 to 25
d. 20 to 30

A

a

46
Q

Nasotracheal intubation would be the airway procedure of choice for which patient condition?

a. Cardiac arrest
b. Nasal trauma
c. COPD
d. Basilar skull fracture

A

c

47
Q

Which is true of nasotracheal intubation?

a. Use an uncuffed endotracheal tube.
b. Use a tube 1 to 2 sizes smaller than that used for orotracheal intubation.
c. Use a longer endotracheal tube with a stylet.
d. Use a tube that is slightly shorter than that used for orotracheal intubation.

A

B

48
Q

The laryngeal mask airway _____.
A. Is ideal for conscious patients
B. Provides absolute protection against aspiration
C. Generally protects against aspiration
D. Is well tolerated by a patient with an intact gag reflex

A

C

49
Q

What is a disadvantage of the laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?

a. Not all patients can be adequately ventilated with an LMA.
b. The spine must be manipulated for insertion of an LMA.
c. Patients commonly aspirate with this airway technique.
d. The LMA must be removed before intubation.

A

a

50
Q

To correctly position a patient’s head for Combitube insertion, the paramedic should implement which action?
A. Place the patient in the sniffing position.
B. Extend the head.
C. Flex the neck.
D. Place the head in the neutral position.

A

D

51
Q

Paramedics elect to place a Combitube in a patient suffering from cardiac arrest. After ventilating through the #1 port, and breath sounds are heard, what is the next most appropriate action?

a. Remove the tube and ventilate the patient.
b. Secure the tube and ventilate through the #1 port.
c. Secure the tube and ventilate through the #2 port.
d. Pull the tube back approximately 1 to 2 cm.

A

B

52
Q

What does capnography measure?

a. Carbon dioxide levels in the blood
b. Oxygen levels in the lungs
c. Carbon dioxide levels in exhaled air
d. Carbon dioxide levels in tissues

A

C

53
Q
The end tidal CO2 detector of an intubated patient in cardiac arrest does not change color. After visually confirming the tube passing through the vocal cords, what should the paramedic suspect?
  A. The tube is definitely misplaced. 
  B. The tube is in the esophagus. 
  C. There may be low cardiac output. 
  D. The CO2 detector is defective.
A

C

54
Q
If an endotracheal tube has been correctly placed, an esophageal detector device will \_\_\_\_\_.
  A. Color change 
  B. Give a normal CO2 readout 
  C. Reinflate more easily 
  D. Remain collapsed
A

C

55
Q

What location is necessary to use for a needle cricothyrotomy?

a. Cricoid ring
b. Thyroid cartilage
c. Cricothyroid membrane
d. Second laryngeal ring

A

C

56
Q
What is the endotracheal tube size range used for cricothyrotomy?
  A. 3.0 to 4.0 
  B. 5.0 to 6.0 
  C. 6.0 to 7.0 
  D. 7.0 to 8.0
A

C

57
Q

Which is an anatomical difference in a child’s airway as compared to that of an adult?

a. A child’s tongue is small in relationship to the size of the mouth.
b. The epiglottis is omega-shaped in a child.
c. The vocal cords slope from front to back in infants.
d. The distance from the vocal cords to the carina gets smaller with age.

A

B

58
Q

Lung sounds are heard after intubation only over the right lung of an adult patient. The endotracheal tube is at 27 cm at the teeth. What is the most likely explanation for the findings in the intubation scenario?

A. Right mainstem intubation
B. Occlusion of the endotracheal tube
C. Left-sided pneumothorax
D. Right-sided hypertympany

A

A

59
Q

You intubate a patient and hear loud bubbling noises over the epigastrium. The endotracheal tube in this scenario is most likely placed in which structure?

a. Trachea
b. Right mainstem
c. Left mainstem
d. Esophagus

A

D

60
Q
When intubating using a lighted stylet, you see a dim, indistinct light in the throat. The paramedic has most likely intubated which structure?
  A. Right mainstem bronchus 
  B. Left mainstem bronchus 
  C. Esophagus 
  D. Trachea
A

C

61
Q

The paramedic notes the following: BP 170/100 mm Hg, P 50; ventilation assisted at one breath every 5 seconds; SaO2 not obtainable; etCO2 4 mm Hg after performing endotracheal intubation for a patient with COPD. What action should the paramedic take?
A. Continue ventilation and reassess the patient in 5 minutes.
B. Decrease the rate of ventilation to one breath every 6 seconds.
C. Ensure that the cuff is inflated to the proper volume.
D. Extubate the patient, ventilate, and reintubate.

A

D

62
Q

Should you determine that an endotracheal tube has been inadvertently placed in the esophagus what should your immediate next step be?
A. Continue ventilations and secure the tube.
B. Pull the tube back 1 to 2 cm.
C. Insert another endotracheal tube around the first one.
D. Remove the endotracheal tube and oxygenate the patient.

A

D

63
Q

A drop in systolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg or more during inspiration is known as which occurrence?

a. Pericardial tamponade
b. Pulsus paradoxus
c. Orthostatic change
d. Pulse pressure

A

b

64
Q

What does the “B” in BURP stand for?

a. backward
b. below
c. bloody
d. behind

A

a

65
Q

What does the “L” in LEMONS law stand for?

a. look externally
b. leave alone
c. laryngoscopy
d. loose dentures

A

a

66
Q

When ventilating a patient via a nasal ET, what is one advantage this has over an orally-placed ET?

a. The tube cannot be bitten down on.
b. There is a need for a laryngoscope.
c. Gag stimulation occurs every time.
d. Head and neck are extended into position.

A

a

67
Q

The amount of gas moved in and out of the respiratory tract in one minute is termed:

a. minute volume.
b. alveolar volume.
c. tidal volume.
d. residual volume.

A

a

68
Q

What is the MOST commonly aspirated material?

a. vomit
b. blood
c. teeth
d. saliva

A

A

69
Q

In which of the following situations would you expect end tidal carbon dioxide levels to be very low, despite a patent airway?

a. Room air PPV
b. Hyperthermia
c. Hypoventilation
d. Cardiac arrest

A

D

70
Q

The respiratory rate may be greater than normal because of:

a. Alcoholic beverage ingestion
b. The use of medications such as diazepam or morphine
c. Being asleep or nearly asleep
d. Metabolic acidosis

A

D

71
Q

Which of the following best suggests an esophageal intubation?

a. Color change from purple to yellow with a colorimetric ETCO2 detector
b. Free return of air when aspirating with an esophageal detector device
c. Gurgling sounds over the epigastrum with each ventilation delivered
d. Maintaining a pulse oximetry reading of 80 to 85 percent

A

C

72
Q

When performing tracheobronchial suctioning, what should be the maximum amount of suction time?

a. 15 seconds
b. 20 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 5 seconds

A

c

73
Q

Insertion of an endotracheal tube too far is likely to result in ventilation of:

a. The right lung only
b. The left lung only
c. Only the lower lobes of both lungs
d. Neither lung

A

a

74
Q

As the thoracic cavity begins to expand, the intrathoracic pressure:

a. Does not change
b. Is greater than atmospheric pressure
c. Is the same as atmospheric pressure
d. Is less than atmospheric pressure

A

d

75
Q

The movement of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood in the pulmonary capillaries depends on:

a. Facilitated transport by way of the hemoglobin molecule
b. Active transport of oxygen from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration
c. Diffusion of oxygen from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
d. Osmosis of the H2O molecule across the respiratory membrane, where oxygen dissociates from hydrogen

A

c

76
Q

When you are suctioning an adult patient, the onset of bradycardia is most likely due to:

a. Hypercarbia
b. Hypoxia
c. Stimulation of the vagus nerve
d. Increased intracranial pressure

A

c

77
Q

The simplest airway management technique in a patient without suspected cervical spine injury is the:

a. Head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver
b. Modified jaw-thrust maneuver
c. Use of an oropharyngeal airway
d. Sellick’s maneuver

A

a

78
Q

End-tidal colorimetric capnography measures:

a. Carbon dioxide in exhaled air
b. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood
c. The amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in plasma
d. The percentage of hemoglobin saturated with carbon dioxide

A

a

79
Q

The reading obtained by the use of a pulse oximeter reflects the:
You Answered
a. Amount of saturated hemoglobin per deciliter of blood
b. Amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood
c. Ratio of unsaturated hemoglobin to saturated hemoglobin
d. Partial pressure of oxygen in capillary blood

A

c

80
Q

Which of the following devices is known as a dual lumen airway?

a. Combitube
b. Endotracheal tube
c. Laryngeal mask airway
d. King LTD airway

A

a

81
Q

When using a colorimetric end-tidal carbon dioxide detector, the absence of carbon dioxide in exhaled air after six breaths indicates the endotracheal tube has been placed:

a. In the right mainstem bronchus
b. In the esophagus
c. In the left mainstem bronchus
d. In the trachea

A

b

82
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction?

a. Foreign bodies
b. Food
c. Upper airway edema
d. The tongue

A

d