Module 7: Medical Law and Ethics Flashcards

1
Q

Ethics

A

The rules, standards, and moral principles that govern a person’s behavior and on which the person bases decisions.

Ethics are concerned with questions of how individuals in a society should act by defining right and wrong and appropriate conduct to serve the greater good.

Ethics encompasses several different facets. One aspect of morals describes how “good or bad” or how “right or wrong” an action is.

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2
Q

Values

A

An individual’s ethics, refer to one person’s moral principles or what an individual believes is right or wrong.

Values govern a person’s decisions, with a goal of maintaining one’s integrity or conscience.

An individual’s values may be influenced by concepts of honesty, fidelity, equality, compassion, responsibility, humility, and respect for life.

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3
Q

Personal ethics

A

Determines what an individual believes about morality and right and wrong.

It includes one’s personal values and moral qualities and is influenced by family, friends, culture, religion, education, and many other factors.

Personal ethics has an impact on areas of life such as family, finances, and relationships and may change during one’s life.
- Ex: to believe in the death penalty but support a woman’s right to an abortion.

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4
Q

Common ethics

A

also called group ethics, is a system of principles and rules of conduct accepted by a group based on ethnicity, political affiliation, or cultural identity.
- Ex: a person who is religious to believe all abortion and the death penalty are bad and all life should be preserved.

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5
Q

Professional ethics

A

A type of ethics that aims to define, clarify, and criticize professional work and its typical values.

Professional ethics sets the standards for practicing one’s profession and can be learned only through education or training or on the job. It involves attributes such as commitment, competence, confidence, and contract.

Professional ethics is often used to impose rules and standards on employees in an organization or members of a profession.
- Ex: employee handbooks, codes of ethics, and the Hippocratic Oath taken by physicians.

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6
Q

Medical law

A

Laws that explain the rights and responsibilities of medical providers and patients.

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7
Q

Patient’s Bill of Rights

A

The American Hospital Association (AHA) created the original Patient’s Bill of Rights in 1973, which provides guidelines and guarantees by federal law to ensure the protection and safety of patients.

The primary purposes of the Patient’s Bill of Rights are to help patients feel more confident in the health care system, to strengthen the relationship between patients and their health care provider by defining their rights and responsibilities and those of their health care provider, and to emphasize the role patients play in their health.

The Patient’s Bill of Rights outlines 15 guarantees for all patients seeking medical care in a health care organization and basic rights and responsibilities for effective patient care.

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8
Q

Patient’s Bill of Rights 15 guarantees

A
  1. The patient has the right to be treated fairly and respectfully.
  2. The patient has the right to get information they can understand about their diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis from their health care provider.
  3. The patient has the right to discuss and ask for information about specific procedures and treatments, their risks, and the time they will spend recovering. They also have the right to discuss other care options.
  4. The patient has the right to know the identities of all their health care providers, including students, residents, and other trainees.
  5. The patient has the right to know how much care may cost at the time of treatment and long term.
  6. The patient has the right to make decisions about their care before and during treatment and the right to refuse care. The hospital must inform the patient of the medical consequences of refusing treatment. The patient has the right to other treatments provided by the hospital and the right to transfer to another hospital.
  7. The patient has the right to have an advance directive, such as a living will or a power of attorney for health care. A hospital has the right to ask for their advance directive, put it in their file, and honor its intent.
  8. The patient has the right to privacy in medical exams, case discussions, consultations, and treatments.
  9. The patient has the right to expect that their communication and records are treated as confidential by the hospital, except as the law permits and requires in cases of suspected abuse or public health hazards. If the hospital releases their information to another medical facility, they have the right to expect the hospital to ask the medical facility to keep their records confidential.
  10. The patient has the right to review their medical records and to have them explained or interpreted, except when restricted by law.
  11. The patient has the right to expect that a hospital will respond reasonably to their requests for care and services or transfer them to another facility that has accepted a transfer request. They should also expect information and explanation about the risks, benefits, and alternatives to a transfer.
  12. The patient has the right to ask and to be informed of any business relationships between the hospital and educational institutions, other health care providers, or payers that may influence their care and treatment.
  13. The patient has the right to consent to or decline to participate in research studies and to have the studies fully explained before they give their consent. If they decide not to participate in research, they are still entitled to the most effective care that the hospital can provide.
  14. The patient has the right to expect reasonable continuity of care and to be informed of other care options when hospital care is no longer appropriate.
  15. The patient has the right to be informed of hospital policies and practices related to patient care, treatment, and responsibilities. ​​​​​​​
  16. The patient has the right to know whom they can contact to resolve disputes, grievances, and conflicts. And they have the right to know what the hospital will charge for services and their payment methods.
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9
Q

Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

A

Commonly called the Affordable Care Act (ACA) or “Obamacare,” named after former president Barack Obama, who signed it into law in 2010, this federal statute was a major step in health care reform by expanding access to more affordable, quality health insurance, increasing consumer insurance protection, emphasizing prevention and wellness, and curbing rising health care costs.

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10
Q

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)

A

Federal law that required the creation of national standards to protect sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without the patient’s consent or knowledge.

HIPAA gives patients rights over their health information and sets rules and limits on who can look at and receive patients’ private information. HIPAA applies to protected health information (PHI), whether electronic, written, or oral.

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11
Q

Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act

A

The HITECH Act expands on HIPAA and includes provisions that allow for increased enforcement of the privacy and security of electronic transmission of patient information, such as prohibiting the sale of PHI, making business associates and vendors liable for compliance with HIPAA, and creating a penalty and violation system.

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12
Q

Occupational Safety and Health (OSH) Act

A

The OSH Act is overseen by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) and states that employers are accountable for providing a safe and healthful workplace for employees by setting and enforcing standards and by providing training, outreach, education, and assistance.

This includes employers providing proper equipment and training on disposing of needles and precautions on needlestick injuries.

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13
Q

Controlled Substances Act (CSA)

A

CSA is a federal policy that regulates the manufacture and distribution of controlled substances. Controlled substances can include narcotics, depressants, and stimulants.

The CSA classifies medications into five schedules, or classifications, based on the likelihood for abuse and if there are any medical benefits provided from the substance.

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14
Q

The Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA)

A

The EMTALA of 1986 requires any hospital emergency department that receives payments from federal health care programs, such as Medicare and Medicaid, to provide an appropriate medical screening to any patient seeking treatment.

This was enacted to eliminate “patient dumping,” where a facility would transfer a patient based on a potentially high-cost diagnosis or refuse to treat a patient based on their ability to pay.

This legislation requires the emergency department to determine whether a condition is emergent or not and to provide stabilizing treatment in the case of an emergency medical condition.

It does not require that treatment be given for nonemergency conditions. Furthermore, outpatient clinics are not medically equipped to handle emergencies and therefore are not bound by the EMTALA.

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15
Q

The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA)

A

The CLIA of 1988 is a group of laws that regulate all laboratory facilities for safety, handling, and testing of specimens in the United States.

The objective of CLIA is to regulate accuracy and timeliness of testing regardless of where the test is performed. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is the federal agency that authorizes and implements the CLIA laws and determines the test complexity categories.

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16
Q

Title VII of Civil Rights Act of 1964

A

The Civil Rights Act prohibits an employer with 15 or more employees from discriminating on the basis of race, national origin, gender, or religion.

Sexual harassment is a form of sex discrimination that also violates the Civil Rights Act.

The Civil Rights Act has also been amended several times to protect other groups.
- For example, the Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 amended the Civil Rights Act and prohibited discrimination based on pregnancy and other related medical conditions.

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17
Q

Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 (ADA)

A

ADA forbids discrimination against any applicant or employee who could perform a job regardless of a disability.

ADA also requires an employer to provide “reasonable accommodations” that are necessary to help the employee perform a job successfully unless these accommodations are unduly burdensome.

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18
Q

Heads of the European Radiological Protection Competent Authorities (HERCA)

A

An association which identifies radiation protection issues and proposes possible solutions.

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19
Q

Good Samaritan Acts

A

Law that allows bystanders to get involved in emergency situations without fear that they will be sued if their actions inadvertently contribute to a person’s injury or death.

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20
Q

Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act of 2008 (GINA)

A

Law that prohibits discrimination on the basis of genetic information with respect to health insurance and employment.

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21
Q

Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act (PSQIA)

A

Framework for gathering and analyzing information regarding patient safety within the confines of protected health information laws.

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22
Q

Anti-Kick Back Statute (AKBS)

A

Criminal law that prohibits receiving benefits for referral or business involving federal health care programs.

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23
Q

No Surprise Act (NSA)

A

Law that protects individuals from surprise billing if they have a group health plan or individual health insurance coverage.

This includes banning surprise bills for emergency services from an out-of-network provider or facility without prior authorization.

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24
Q

HIPAA Security Rule

A

Requires implementing reasonable and suitable safeguards to protect protected health information and to prevent breaches of confidentiality.

There are 3 safeguards set in place that medical facilities use to keep patient information private:
- Administrative safeguards
- Physical safeguards
- Technical safeguards

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25
Q

Administrative safeguards

A

Used to refer to the policies and procedures documented in writing that show how covered entities comply with HIPAA.

Ex:
- Performing internal audits
- Appointing a security officer

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26
Q

Physical safeguards

A

Refer to the physical monitoring and access to PHI. ​​​​​​​

Ex:
- Implementing a “double lock system” (using a locked room and a locked file cabinet)
- Keeping workstations with patient information out of high-traffic areas

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27
Q

Technical safeguards

A

Refer to the responsibility of the health care provider to monitor and safeguard patient information through all technology-related items.

Ex:
- data encryption system for patient information
- installing firewalls in the facility’s computer system connected to the internet

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28
Q

Patient data ownership

A

The medical provider or the facility owns the actual medical record, but the patient owns the information, or data, found within the record.

Medical records are legal documents generated by the health care provider or facility. Because medical records are legal documents, patients’ medical records must remain with the health care facility, and the health care provider is the owner of the medical records.

However, the information that is in the medical record belongs to patients, allowing them the right to inspect, review, and receive a copy of their medical records and billing records that are held by health plans and health care providers.

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29
Q

Exceptions that would allow for the release of medical records without the patient’s authorization or a signed release form from the patient

A
  1. Criminal acts: Evidence used in abuse cases, stabbings, gunshot wounds, or sexual assaults.
  2. Legally ordered: The court can order medical records to be submitted as evidence in court case through the process of a subponea. When the court oders someone to appear in court (a summons) and bring records with them it is termed subponea duces tecum.
  3. Communicable diseases: The CDC or local health departments can require release of information in case of the possibility of diseases that potentially could cause a pandemic or sexually transmitted diseases, such as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), syphilis, or tuberculosis.
  4. Mandated examinations: Ordered by employers’ insurance companies for workers’ compensation cases.
30
Q

subponea duces tecum

A

A requirement to bring requested documentation to the court of law when appearing for the summons.

31
Q

When would patients have to authorize the release of their medical records?

A

Patients must authorize release of medical records with a signed release form, including transferring to another health care provider.

32
Q

Consent

A

An act of reason, meaning the person giving consent must be of sufficient mental capacity and be in possession of all essential information to give valid consent.
- Consent must be free of force or fraud

Consent is a critical aspect of patient autonomy, in protecting the legal rights of patients, and guides the ethical practice of health care.

Types of consent:
- Implied Consent
- Expressed Consent
- Informed Consent

33
Q

Implied Consent

A

This is inferred based on signs, actions, or conduct of the patient rather than oral communication.

This concept also applies to emergent care for individuals who are unconscious or unable to speak.
- The law assumes implied consent to administer CPR and other lifesaving medical treatments to stabilize the patient.

Ex: MA asks the patient if they can take their temperature, and the patient responds by opening their mouth and lifting their tongue.

34
Q

Expressed Consent

A

This is given either by oral or written words.

Ex: When an MA is giving an injection, they ask the patient if they are ready to receive the injection, as well as which arm they prefer. The patient responds by agreeing to the injection and stating which arm they would like the injection to go into.

35
Q

Informed Consent

A

An oral or written agreement of mutual communication that ensures the patient has been notified about their health care choices before making them.

This is a process that ensures the patient (or the guardian of the patient) knows, understands, and accepts the treatment that has been explained.

Ex: a patient is informed they must have a procedure performed, it has been explained to them, and they sign off on having the procedure performed.

36
Q

Tort

A

A violation of civil law involving a “wrong,” or harmful action that causes harm to an individual but is not a crime.

Types of Torts:
- intentional
- unintentional, which is classified as negligence.

37
Q

Autonomy

A

The capacity to think, decide, and act on one’s own free will and initiative.

The patient’s decision-making process must be free of coercion or coaxing.

Health care professionals should help patients come to their own decisions by providing full information.

38
Q

Consent with minors

A

Minors (those under the age of 18) cannot give consent

39
Q

Consent with minors exceptions

A
  1. If the minor is seeking birth control, pregnancy care, sexually transmitted disease treatment, or substance abuse treatment, then they may do so without the consent of a parent.
  2. If the minor has been declared by the courts as emancipated, then they are able to make medical, financial, and housing decisions for themselves without the approval of a parent or guardian.
    *Emancipated minors win the approval of the courts by being enlisted in the military, being financially independent, living independently, or being married.
40
Q

Advance Directive

A

Written statements of a person’s requests for their health care provider, family, and other health care professionals, regarding medical treatment, to carry out in the case patients are incapacitated and are unable to speak for themselves

Allows patients to express values and desires related to end-of-life care. It will indicate what medical treatment patients wish to have if they are dying or permanently unconscious and identifies a health care agent for the patient who can help make decisions on the patient’s behalf. The health care provider must obtain, review, and comply with these directives.

2 main elements in an advance directive:
1. Living will
2. Durable power of attorney for health care

41
Q

Living Will

A

A legal document stating what procedures patients would want, which ones they would not want, and under what conditions these decisions would apply, such as the following:

  • Analgesia (pain relief)
  • Antibiotic and antiviral treatment
  • IV hydration
  • Artificial feeding
  • Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
  • Ventilators
  • Dialysis
  • Organ donation
  • Do-not-resuscitate (DNR) orders
42
Q

Do-not-resuscitate (DNR)

A

An order written in the hospital or on a legal form to communicate the wishes of a patient to not undergo CPR or advanced cardiac life support if the patient’s heart stops or the patient stops breathing.

A DNR order does not affect any treatment other than that which would require intubation or CPR.

Patients who have a DNR order can continue to get chemotherapy, antibiotics, dialysis, or any other life-sustaining treatments.

43
Q

Durable power of attorney (DPOA)

A

A legal document naming a health care agent or proxy to make medical decisions for patients when they are not able to do so, in the case they become incapacitated or unable to communicate.
- The agent will be able to decide as the patient would when treatment decisions need to be made.
- The agent communicates the same rights to request or refuse treatment that the patient would have if capable of making and communicating these decisions

A DPOA for health care enables patients to be more specific about their medical treatment than a living will.
- The agent may decide on a wide range of health care issues, including whether to admit or discharge the patient from a hospital or nursing home, what treatments may or may not be given, who can have access to the patient’s medical records, and even how the patient’s body is disposed of after death.
- Ex: the agent may donate the patient’s organs, order an autopsy, and even direct funeral arrangements.

*If the patient has specific requests, such as how to dispose of the patient’s body after death, it must be in writing.

44
Q

Who is appointed when a patient does not assign a DPOA?

A

If an individual does not designate a health care agent or proxy and cannot make health care decisions, state law often appoints an individual who can make decisions on the individual’s behalf, including the following:
- Court-appointed guardian or conservator
- Spouse or domestic partner
- Adult child
- Adult sibling
- Close friend
- Nearest living relative

45
Q

Advance directives validity and expiration

A

Advance directives are legally valid throughout the United States as soon as the patient signs them in front of the required witnesses.

Once the patient has completed a medical directive, a copy should be given to the family, hospital, and providers to review and have on file.

Providers must fully evaluate the patient’s condition before advance directives can be applied.

Advance directives do not expire; they remain in effect until they are officially changed. The directive should be reviewed often and revised if necessary.

46
Q

Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment (POLST)

A

Type of advance directive, typically reserved for patients who may be near end of life.

A physician fills out a life-sustaining treatment (POLST) form that contains a set of medical orders completed by the health care provider detailing the patient’s end-of-life care.
- The POLST forms involves a shared decision-making process between the health care provider and patient with advanced or terminal illness and adheres to the patient’s goal of care.

*An important aspect of the POLST form is the portability, meaning that the medical orders move with you as you move to other health care providers and practices.

47
Q

2 main categories of law:

A

criminal and civil

48
Q

Criminal Law

A

This is concerned with violations against society based on the criminal statutes or codes.

The remedies or punishments for violating state or federal criminal laws are monetary fines, imprisonment, and capital penalty (death).

49
Q

Crimes

A

Violations of criminal laws

Types:
- Misdemeanors
- Felonies

50
Q

Misdemeanors

A

These are lesser crimes punishable usually by monetary fines established by the state but may also include imprisonment of 1 year or less.

51
Q

Felonies

A

These are more serious crimes punishable by larger fines and/or imprisonment for more than 1 year, and in some states, the death penalty may be levied on a convicted felon for severe crimes, such as murder.

In many states, a felony conviction for a health care professional may also include the revoking of a license to practice in their profession.

Ex:
- A health care professional may be prosecuted for a crime for practicing without a license, falsifying information in obtaining a license, or failing to provide life support for a patient.
- A health care provider failing to get informed consent from a patient may constitute a type of felony called battery, which is the actual unconsented physical contact on another person.

52
Q

Civil Law

A

These laws protect the private rights of a person or a person’s property.

Civil laws include the areas of contracts, property, labor, privacy issues, and family law.

A violation of civil law may lead to a civil lawsuit by the victim, which is a case brought to the courts to hold a party responsible for a wrongdoing.

53
Q

Intentional Tort

A

This is a deliberate act that violates the rights of another.

Ex:
- assault
- battery
- defamation of character
- invasion of privacy
- administration of an injection without the consent of the patient

54
Q

Negligence

A

aka unintentional tort; does not require a specific intent to harm someone and is not a deliberate action but is the result of an individual or party failing to act in a reasonable way where a duty was owed.

Common tort in the health care setting

55
Q

4 basic elements in negligence

A

aka 4 Ds of Negligence:
1. Duty of Care: One party has a legal obligation to act in a certain manner toward the other.
2. Dereliction of Duty: Also called a breach, this is a failure to use reasonable care in fulfilling the duty.
3. Direct Cause: The failure in the duty leads to harm suffered by the injured person.​​​​​​​
4. Damages: The harm or injury can be remedied by monetary compensation.

56
Q

Malpractice

A

An act of negligence and describes an improper or illegal professional activity or treatment, often used regarding a health care professional causing an injury to a patient.
- the negligence might be the result of errors in diagnosis, treatment, or postoperative care or a violation of patient confidentiality.

Malpractice requires proof of a breach of a standard of care, and the breach must cause damage or harm.

57
Q

Standard of care in a medical malpractice case

A

Defined as the type and level of care an ordinary, prudent health care professional, with the same training and experience, would provide under similar circumstances.

In other words, the critical question in a medical malpractice case is: “Would a similarly skilled health care professional have provided me with the same treatment under the same, or similar, circumstances?”

58
Q

Penalties in civil law

A

Almost exclusively monetary, which the court decides on for damages. The plaintiff or injured party may receive a monetary award for injuries sustained as a result of a particular incident, as well as compensation for medical expenses, lost wages, and the pain and suffering associated with the negligence.

59
Q

Mandated Reporting

A

Refer mainly to the responsibility of health care professionals to report vital information and incidence to the appropriate agencies for the protection and welfare of the public, as well as specific vulnerable populations.

Although these mandatory reporting guidelines may vary by state, prompt reporting of the following is mandatory:
- Births
- Deaths
- *Certain communicable diseases, including specific sexually transmitted infections (STIs)
- Assaults or criminal acts
- Abuse, neglect, and exploitation—child, older adult, and intimate partner

  • it is a legal and ethical mandate that these cases are reported to the local department of health, which may then be reported to the CDC.
60
Q

Abuse

A

A misuse or maltreatment and may take many forms but includes the following types and actions.

61
Q

Types of Abuse

A
  • Physical: Pushing, hitting, shoving, punching, biting, choking, and physically trapping or impeding movement
  • Verbal/emotional: Criticizing, degrading, swearing, blaming, and attacks that harm self-esteem
  • Psychological: Isolation from family and friends, controlling actions and decisions, stalking, and invading privacy or space
  • Sexual: Forcing or demanding sex, forcing unwanted sex with another person, forcing engagement into prostitution or pornography, and refusing to use safe sex practices​​​​​​​
  • Economic: Forbidding an individual from working, controlling access to money, and exploiting citizenship or lack of citizenship to work or to prevent from working
62
Q

Sign of Child or Older Adult Abuse

A
  • Previously filed reports of physical or sexual abuse of the child
  • Documented abuse of other family members
  • Different stories between parents and child on how an accident happened
  • Stories of incidents and injuries that are suspicious
  • Injuries blamed on other family members
  • Repeated visits to the emergency department for injuries
  • Discolorations/bruising on the buttocks, back, and abdomen
  • Elbow, wrist, and shoulder dislocations
  • Delays in the normal growth and development patterns
  • Erratic school attendance
  • Poor hygiene
  • Malnutrition
  • Obvious dental neglect
  • Neglected well-baby procedures (e.g., immunizations)
63
Q

What professions are commonly considered “mandatory reporters” and mandated to report across every state?

A
  • Social workers
  • Teachers, principals, and other school personnel
  • Physicians, nurses, and other health care professionals
  • Counselors, therapists, and other mental health professionals
  • Childcare providers
  • Medical examiners or coroners
  • Law enforcement officers

*Depending on the relationship, attorneys and members of the clergy may be exempt from mandatory reporting due to privileged communications. This privilege of maintaining confidentiality may exist under many state laws.

64
Q

Medical ethics

A

The morals, moral principles, and moral judgments that health care professionals use to determine whether an action should be allowed based on “right and wrong.”

In addition to examining facts, medical ethics uses moral analysis to assess the obligations and responsibilities of health care professionals on various issues and challenges related to health care and medicine.

It specifically addresses how to handle ethical issues arising from the care of patients and focuses on the health care professional’s duty to the patient.

65
Q

Principles of medical ethics

A
  1. Autonomy
  2. Justice
  3. Beneficence
  4. Nonmaleficence
66
Q

Justice

A

The principle that ethics should be based on is what is consistent and fair to all involved.

Patients in similar situations should have access to the same care.

Health care professionals must consider four main areas when evaluating justice: fair distribution of scarce resources, competing needs, rights and obligations, and potential conflicts with established legislation.

67
Q

Beneficence

A

This is the general moral principle of doing the “most good” or doing what is best for patients.

This must consider the patients’ pain, their physical and mental suffering, the risk of disability and death, and their quality of life.

What is best for the patient may agree or disagree with the health care provider’s clinical judgment.

68
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

This is the principle of “do no harm” to the patient or to the fewest number of people in society.

It is difficult for health care providers to always apply successfully the “do no harm” principle because, for example, most treatments involve some degree of risk or adverse effects.

69
Q

Cultural competence

A

Defined as the ability of providers and organizations to effectively deliver health care services that meet the needs of patients.

70
Q

Culture

A

The act of belonging to a designated group or community that shares common experiences that shape the way its members understand the world.

Cultural practice and norms are often learned, shared, and passed on through generations. It may include groups that a person is born into, such as race, national origin, sex, class, or religion.

Culture is a strong part of people’s lives. It influences their views, their values, their humor, their hopes, their loyalties, and their fears.

Culture helps guide thinking, decision making, and actions.

Culture also affects interpersonal relationships, including marriages, communication patterns, and sexual habits.

71
Q

Bias

A

Denotes a preference for a certain group, concept, or set of things. Biases may be held by an individual, group, or institution and can have negative or positive consequences.

The two main types of biases:
1. conscious bias (also known as explicit bias)
2. unconscious bias (also known as implicit bias)