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PACOP VIOLET > Module 4: Pharmacology (GP) > Flashcards

Module 4: Pharmacology (GP) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of local anesthetics.
    A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping axonal conduction
    B. Block alpha and beta receptor
    C. Block neuronal firing by decreasing Ach in the neuromuscular junction
    D. Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme
    E. Inhibition of enzyme responsible for pain response
A

A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping axonal conduction

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2
Q
  1. The following are factors that affect the absorption of drug from the gastrointestinal(GI)
    track except.
    A. Surface area of absorption
    B. Blood flow to the site of absorption
    C. Physical state of the drug
    D. Concentration of the drug at the site of absorption
    E. Protein binding
A

E. Protein binding

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3
Q
  1. Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in which of the following?
    A. Desensitization
    B. UP-regulation
    C. Down-regulation
    D. A and B
    E. A and C
A

E. A and C

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4
Q
  1. Drug that lacks intrinsic efficacy but retains affinity and competes with the agonist for the binding sites of the receptor.
    A. Competitive antagonist
    B. Full agonist
    C. Non-competitive antagonist
    D. Partial antagonist
    E. Partial agonist
A

A. Competitive antagonist

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5
Q
  1. This type of drug produce its effect by binding a site on the receptor distinct from that of the primary agonist and thereby changing the affinity of the receptor for the agonist.
    A. Competitive antagonist
    B. Full agonist
    C. Non-competitive antagonist
    D. Partial antagonist
    E. Partial agonist
A

C. Non-competitive antagonist

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6
Q
  1. In this type of study, participants are blinded to treatment assignment, investigator are not.
    A. Double blind study
    B. Single blind study
    C. Masking
    D. Open-label
    E. Un-blinded study
A

B. Single blind study

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7
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter of all preganglionic autonomic fibers, and all postganglionic
    parasympathetic fibers.
    A. Norepinephrine
    B. Noradrenaline
    C. Acetylcholine
    D. A and B
    E. A and C
A

C. Acetylcholine

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8
Q
  1. The release of ach and other neurotransmitters by exocytosis is inhibited by:
    A. Acetylcholinesterase
    B. Botulinum toxin
    C. Reserpine
    D. Me tyrosine
    E. Guanethidine
A

B. Botulinum toxin

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9
Q
  1. All of the following are enzymes involved in the biosynthesis of epinephrine from tyrosine EXCEPT:
    A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
    B. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase
    C. Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase
    D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
    E. Monoamine oxidase
A

E. Monoamine oxidase

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10
Q
  1. Rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of catecholamines
    A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
    B. Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
    C. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
    D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
    E. COMT
A

A. Tyrosine hydroxylase

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11
Q
  1. All of the following are effects of activating beta 2 receptor EXCEPT:
    A. Bronchoconstriction
    B. Uterine Relaxation
    C. Glycogenolysis
    D. Gluconeogenesis
    E. Bronchodilation
A

A. Bronchoconstriction

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12
Q
  1. All of the following are effects of activating alpha 1 receptor EXCEPT:
    A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
    B. Intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
    C. Increase contractive force of the heart
    D. Glycogenolysis in the liver
    E. Vascular smooth muscle constriction
A

A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is a pharmacological effect of muscarinic stimulation in the
    cardiovascular system?
    A. Vasoconstriction
    B. Decrease in cardiac rate
    C. Positive chronotropic effect
    D. Positive dromotropic effect
    E. Positive inotropic effect
A

B. Decrease in cardiac rate

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14
Q
  1. All of the following are naturally occurring chromonematic Alkaid EXCEPT:
    A. Pilocarpine
    B. Muscarine
    C. Acetylcholine
    D. Arecoline
    E. None of these
A

C. Acetylcholine

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are effects of cholinomimetic drugs?
    I. Stimulation of GI smooth muscle
    II. Stimulation of secretion of exocrine gland
    III. Bronchoconstriction
    IV. Tachycardia
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I, II and III
    D. I and IV
    E. I, II, III and IV
A

C. I, II and III

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16
Q
  1. Major contraindication to the use of muscarinic agonist are the following EXCETP:
    A. Asthma
    B. Hypothyroidism
    C. Coronary insufficiency
    D. Acid-peptic disease
    E. Hypertension
A

E. Hypertension

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17
Q
  1. Used in the treatment of glaucoma where it is instilled into the eye usually as a 0.5-4% solution.
    A. Epinephrine
    B. Eye-mo
    C. Pilocarpine
    D. Bethanecole
    E. Atropine
A

C. Pilocarpine

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18
Q
  1. Most effective prophylactic agent for short (4-6 hrs) exposure to severe motion also available as transdermal patch.
    A. Atropine
    B. Scopolamine
    C. Ipratropium
    D. Tiotropium
    E. Varenicline
A

B. Scopolamine

19
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is/are classified an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
    I. Pilocarpine
    II. Edrophonium
    III. Tacrine
    IV. Atropine
    A. I only
    B. I and II
    C. II and III
    D. I, II and III
    E. IV only
A

C. II and III

20
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an effect of anti-cholinesterase agents?
    A. Stimulation of muscarinic receptor responses at autonomic effector organs
    B. Stimulation followed by depression or paralysis of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal
    muscle
    C. Stimulation with occasional subsequent depression of cholinergic receptor sites in the
    CNS
    D. All of these
    E. None of these
A

E. None of these

21
Q
  1. Intoxication with an organophosphorus anti-cholinesterase agent can be treated with:
    A. Atropine
    B. Pralidoxime
    C. Malathion
    D. A and B
    E. B and C
A

D. A and B

22
Q
  1. This agent is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
    A. Edrophonium
    B. Atropine
    C. Neostigmine
    D. Pralidoxime
    E. Acetylcholine
A

A. Edrophonium

23
Q
  1. All are standard anti-cholinesterase drugs used in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis EXCPT:
    A. Pyridostigmine
    B. Neostigmine
    C. Atropine
    D. Ambenonium
    E. Edrophonium
A

C. Atropine

24
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of indirect acting sympathomimetics drugs:
    A. Agents act directly on one or more of the adrenergic receptors thereby producing an effect
    B. Increase the availability of norepinephrine (NE) or epinephrine (Epi) to stimulate adrenergic receptors
    C. Releasing or displacing NE from sympathetic nerve varicosities
    D. A and B
    E. B and C
A

E. B and C

25
Q
  1. Metabolic precursor of NE and EPI and is also a neurotransmitter particularly important in the regulation movement.
    A. Dopamine
    B. Serotonin
    C. Oxytocin
    D. Norepinephrine
    E. Noradrenaline
A

A. Dopamine

26
Q
  1. These drugs play a major role only in the treatment of bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma (reversible airway obstruction) or chorionic obstructive pulmonary disease(COPD)
    A. Beta 1 adrenergic agonist
    B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist
    C. Beta 1 adrenergic antagonist
    D. Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist
    E. Non-selective beta agonist
A

B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist

27
Q
  1. Potent non-selective beta receptor agonist with very low affinity for alpha receptors
    A. Ipratropium
    B. Terbutaline
    C. Isoproterenol
    D. Prazosin
    E. Phenylephrine
A

C. Isoproterenol

28
Q
  1. This sympathomimetic drug is indicated for the short term treatment of cardiac decomperisation post cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive heart failure or acute myocardial infraction.
    A. Dobutamine
    B. Isoproterenol
    C. Metaproterenol
    D. Albuterol
    E. Isoetharine
A

A. Dobutamine

29
Q
  1. Selective beta 2 agonist originally developed as a uterine relaxant.
    A. Terbutaline
    B. Ritodrine
    C. Oxytocin
    D. Prazosin
    E. Salmeterol
A

B. Ritodrine

30
Q
  1. Life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate perfusion of tissues, hypotension and ultimately failure of organ systems.
    A. Coma
    B. Shock
    C. Arrhythmia
    D. Heart Failure
    E. Kidney Failure
31
Q
  1. Structurally related to amphetamine, this drug is a mild CNS stimulant with more prominent effects on mental than on motor activities. This drug is also effective in the treatment of narcolepsy and ADHD.
    A. Methamphetamine
    B. Ephedrine
    C. Clonidine
    D. Methylphenidate
    E. Phenobarbital
A

D. Methylphenidate

32
Q
  1. Classified as alpha 2 selective antagonist.
    A. Phenoxybenzamine
    B. Prazosin
    C. Yohimbine
    D. Nadolol
    E. Metoprolol
A

C. Yohimbine

33
Q
  1. Classified as beta 1 selective antagonist.
    A. Phenoxybenzamine
    B. Prazosin
    C. Yohimbine
    D. Nadolol
    E. Metoprolol
A

E. Metoprolol

34
Q
  1. Used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma tumor of the adrenal medulla and sympathetic neurons that secretes enormous quantities of catecholamines.
    A. Phenoxybenzamine
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Metoprolol
    D. Dopamine
    E. Isoxuprine
A

A. Phenoxybenzamine

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT correct?
    A. Alpha agonist cause miosis
    B. Alpha agonist cause vasoconstriction
    C. Beta antagonist decrease the formation of aqueous humor
    D. Beta 2 agonist cause bronchodilation
    E. Beta 3 agonist cause lipolysis
A

A. Alpha agonist cause miosis

36
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT correct?
    A. Alpha agonist cause miosis
    B. Alpha agonist cause vasoconstriction
    C. Beta antagonist decrease the formation of aqueous humor
    D. Beta 2 agonist cause bronchodilation
    E. Beta 3 agonist cause lipolysis
A

A. Alpha agonist cause miosis

37
Q
  1. Beta 2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
    A. Stimulation of renin secretion
    B. Fall of potassium concentration is plasma
    C. Relaxation of bladder uterus
    D. Uterine muscle contraction
    E. Skeletal muscle relaxation
A

E. Skeletal muscle relaxation

38
Q
  1. Which of the following effects is associated with beta 3-receptor stimulation?
    A. Lipolysis
    B. Decrease in platelet aggregation
    C. Bronchodilation
    D. Tachycardia
    E. Pilomotor smooth muscle contraction
A

A. Lipolysis

39
Q
  1. Which of the following hypnotic drug is benzodiazepine derivative?
    A. Zolpidem
    B. Flurazepam
    C. Secobarbital
    D. Ramelteon
    E. Buspirone
A

B. Flurazepam

40
Q
  1. Which of the following hypnotic drug increase the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems?
    A. Phenobarbital
    B. Zolpidem
    C. Flurazepam
    D. Secobarbital
    E. Ramelteon
A

A. Phenobarbital

41
Q
  1. Which of the following is the mechanism of Barbiturates action?
    A. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl-channel openings
    B. Directly activating the chloride channel
    C. Increasing the frequency of Cl-channel openings events.
    D. Antagonist at benzodiazepine bindings sites on the GABA receptor
    E. Partial agonist at 5-HT receptor but also affinity for D2 receptor.
A

A. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl-channel openings

42
Q
  1. The usual cause of adverse effect/death due to overdose of hypnoticis due to:
    A. Depression of the CNS
    B. Heart attack
    C. Hypothemia
    D. Cerebral edema
    E. Status epilepticus
A

A. Depression of the CNS

PACOP VIOLET (9 decks)

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