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PACOP VIOLET > Module 4: Pharmacology > Flashcards

Module 4: Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of local anesthetics.
    A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping axonal conduction
    B. Block alpha and beta receptor
    C. Block neuronal firing by decreasing Ach in the neuromuscular junction
    D. Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase enzyme
    E. Inhibition of enzyme responsible for pain response
A

A. Block sodium channel thereby stopping axonal conduction

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2
Q
  1. The following are factors that affect the absorption of drug from the gastrointestinal(GI) track except.
    A. Surface area of absorption
    B. Blood flow to the site of absorption
    C. Physical state of the drug
    D. Concentration of the drug at the site of absorption
    E. Protein binding
A

E. Protein binding

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3
Q
  1. Continued stimulation of cells with agonists generally results in which of the following?
    A. Desensitization
    B. UP-regulation
    C. Down-regulation
    D. A and B
    E. A and C
A

E. A and C

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4
Q
  1. Drug that lacks intrinsic efficacy but retains affinity and competes with the agonist for the binding sites of the receptor.
    A. Competitive antagonist
    B. Full agonist
    C. Non-competitive antagonist
    D. Partial antagonist
    E. Partial agonist
A

A. Competitive antagonist

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5
Q
  1. This type of drug produce its effect by binding a site on the receptor distinct from that of the primary agonist and thereby changing the affinity of the receptor for the agonist.
    A. Competitive antagonist
    B. Full agonist
    C. Non-competitive antagonist
    D. Partial antagonist
    E. Partial agonist
A

C. Non-competitive antagonist

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6
Q
  1. In this type of study, participants are blinded to treatment assignment, investigator are not.
    A. Double blind study
    B. Single blind study
    C. Masking
    D. Open-label
    E. Un-blinded study
A

B. Single blind study

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7
Q
  1. The neurotransmitter of all preganglionic autonomic fibers, and all postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
    A. Norepinephrine
    B. Noradrenaline
    C. Acetylcholine
    D. A and B
    E. A and C
A

C. Acetylcholine

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8
Q
  1. The release of ach and other neurotransmitters by exocytosis is inhibited by:
    A. Acetylcholinesterase
    B. Botulinum toxin
    C. Reserpine
    D. Me tyrosine
    E. Guanethidine
A

B. Botulinum toxin

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9
Q
  1. All of the following are enzymes involved in the biosynthesis of epinephrine from tyrosine EXCEPT:
    A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
    B. Aromatic L amino acid decarboxylase
    C. Dopamine Beta-hydroxylase
    D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
    E. Monoamine oxidase
A

E. Monoamine oxidase

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10
Q
  1. Rate limiting enzyme in the synthesis of catecholamines
    A. Tyrosine hydroxylase
    B. Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase
    C. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
    D. Phenyl ethanolamine-N-Methyl transferase
    E. COMT
A

A. Tyrosine hydroxylase

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11
Q
  1. All of the following are effects of activating beta 2 receptor EXCEPT:
    A. Bronchoconstriction
    B. Uterine Relaxation
    C. Glycogenolysis
    D. Gluconeogenesis
    E. Bronchodilation
A

A. Bronchoconstriction

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12
Q
  1. All of the following are effects of activating alpha 1 receptor EXCEPT:
    A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation
    B. Intestinal smooth muscle relaxation
    C. Increase contractive force of the heart
    D. Glycogenolysis in the liver
    E. Vascular smooth muscle constriction
A

A. Vascular smooth muscle relaxation

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is a pharmacological effect of muscarinic stimulation in the cardiovascular system?
    A. Vasoconstriction
    B. Decrease in cardiac rate
    C. Positive chronotropic effect
    D. Positive dromotropic effect
    E. Positive inotropic effect
A

B. Decrease in cardiac rate

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14
Q
  1. All of the following are naturally occurring chromonematic Alkaid EXCEPT:
    A. Pilocarpine
    B. Muscarine
    C. Acetylcholine
    D. Arecoline
    E. None of these
A

C. Acetylcholine

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are effects of cholinomimetic drugs?
    I. Stimulation of GI smooth muscle
    II. Stimulation of secretion of exocrine gland
    III. Bronchoconstriction
    IV. Tachycardia
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I, II and III
    D. I and IV
    E. I, II, III and IV
A

C. I, II and III

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16
Q
  1. Major contraindication to the use of muscarinic agonist are the following EXCETP:
    A. Asthma
    B. Hypothyroidism
    C. Coronary insufficiency
    D. Acid-peptic disease
    E. Hypertension
A

E. Hypertension

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17
Q
  1. Used in the treatment of glaucoma where it is instilled into the eye usually as a 0.5-4% solution.
    A. Epinephrine
    B. Eye-mo
    C. Pilocarpine
    D. Bethanecole
    E. Atropine
A

C. Pilocarpine

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18
Q
  1. Most effective prophylactic agent for short (4-6 hrs) exposure to severe motion also available as transdermal patch.
    A. Atropine
    B. Scopolamine
    C. Ipratropium
    D. Tiotropium
    E. Varenicline
A

B. Scopolamine

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is/are classified an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
    I. Pilocarpine
    II. Edrophonium
    III. Tacrine
    IV. Atropine
    A. I only
    B. I and II
    C. II and III
    D. I, II and III
    E. IV only
A

C. II and III

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an effect of anti-cholinesterase agents?
    A. Stimulation of muscarinic receptor responses at autonomic effector organs
    B. Stimulation followed by depression or paralysis of all autonomic ganglia and skeletal muscle
    C. Stimulation with occasional subsequent depression of cholinergic receptor sites in the CNS
    D. All of these
    E. None of these
A

E. None of these

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21
Q
  1. Intoxication with an organophosphorus anti-cholinesterase agent can be treated with:
    A. Atropine
    B. Pralidoxime
    C. Malathion
    D. A and B
    E. B and C
A

D. A and B

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22
Q
  1. This agent is used in the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis.
    A. Edrophonium
    B. Atropine
    C. Neostigmine
    D. Pralidoxime
    E. Acetylcholine
A

A. Edrophonium

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23
Q
  1. All are standard anti-cholinesterase drugs used in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis EXCPT:
    A. Pyridostigmine
    B. Neostigmine
    C. Atropine
    D. Ambenonium
    E. Edrophonium
A

C. Atropine

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24
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of indirect acting sympathomimetics drugs:
    A. Agents act directly on one or more of the adrenergic receptors thereby producing an effect
    B. Increase the availability of norepinephrine (NE) or epinephrine (Epi) to stimulate adrenergic receptors
    C. Releasing or displacing NE from sympathetic nerve varicosities
    D. A and B
    E. B and C
A

E. B and C

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25
Q
  1. Metabolic precursor of NE and EPI and is also a neutransmitter particularly important in the regulation movement.
    A. Dopamine
    B. Serotonin
    C. Oxytocin
    D. Norepinephrine
    E. Noradrenaline
A

A. Dopamine

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26
Q
  1. These drugs play a major role only in the treatment of bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma (reversible airway obstruction) or chorionic obstructive pulmonary disease(COPD)’
    A. Beta 1 adrenergic agonist
    B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist
    C. Beta 1 adrenergic antagonist
    D. Beta 2 adrenergic antagonist
    E. Non-selective beta agonist
A

B. Beta 2 adrenergic agonist

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27
Q
  1. Potent non-selective beta receptor agonist with very low affinity for alpha receptors
    A. Ipratropium
    B. Terbutaline
    C. Isoproterenol
    D. Prazosin
    E. Phenylephrine
A

C. Isoproterenol

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28
Q
  1. This sympathomimetic drug is indicated for the short term treatment of cardiac decomperisation post cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive heart failure or acute myocardial infraction.
    A. Dobutamine
    B. Isoproterenol
    C. Metaproterenol
    D. Albuterol
    E. Isoetharine
A

A. Dobutamine

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29
Q
  1. Selective beta 2 agonist originally developed as a uterine relaxant.
    A. Terbutaline
    B. Ritodrine
    C. Oxytocin
    D. Prazosin
    E. Salmeterol
A

B. Ritodrine

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30
Q
  1. Life-threatening condition characterized by inadequate perfusion of tissues, hypotension and ultimately failure of organ systems.
    A. Coma
    B. Shock
    C. Arrhythmia
    D. Heart Failure
    E. Kidney Failure
A

B. Shock

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31
Q
  1. Structurally related to amphetamine, this drug is a mild CNS stimulant with more prominent effects on mental than on motor activities. This drug is also effective in the treatment of narcolepsy and ADHD.
    A. Methamphetamine
    B. Ephedrine
    C. Clonidine
    D. Methylphenidate
    E. Phenobarbital
A

D. Methylphenidate

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32
Q
  1. Classified as alpha 2 selective antagonist.
    A. Phenoxybenzamine
    B. Prazosin
    C. Yohimbine
    D. Nadolol
    E. Metoprolol
A

C. Yohimbine

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33
Q
  1. Classified as beta 1 selective antagonist.
    A. Phenoxybenzamine
    B. Prazosin
    C. Yohimbine
    D. Nadolol
    E. Metoprolol
A

E. Metoprolol

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34
Q
  1. Used in the treatment of pheochromocytoma tumor of the adrenal medulla and sympathetic neurons that secretes enormous quantities of catecholamines.
    A. Phenoxybenzamine
    B. Epinephrine
    C. Metoprolol
    D. Dopamine
    E. Isoxuprine
A

A. Phenoxybenzamine

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT correct?
    A. Alpha agonist cause miosis
    B. Alpha agonist cause vasoconstriction
    C. Beta antagonist decrease the formation of aqueous humor
    D. Beta 2 agonist cause bronchodilation
    E. Beta 3 agonist cause lipolysis
A

A. Alpha agonist cause miosis

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36
Q
  1. Beta 2 receptor stimulation includes all of the following effects EXCEPT:
    A. Stimulation of renin secretion
    B. Fall of potassium concentration is plasma
    C. Relaxation of bladder uterus
    D. Uterine muscle contraction
    E. Skeletal muscle relaxation
A

E. Skeletal muscle relaxation

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following effects is associated with beta 3-receptor stimulation?
    A. Lipolysis
    B. Decrease in platelet aggregation
    C. Bronchodilation
    D. Tachycardia
    E. Pilomotor smooth muscle contraction
A

A. Lipolysis

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following hypnotic drug is benzodiazepine derivative?
    A. Zolpidem
    B. Flurazepam
    C. Secobarbital
    D. Ramelteon
    E. Buspirone
A

B. Flurazepam

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following hypnotic drug increase the activity of hepatic drug-metabolizing enzyme systems?
    A. Phenobarbital
    B. Zolpidem
    C. Flurazepam
    D. Secobarbital
    E. Ramelteon
A

A. Phenobarbital

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40
Q
  1. Which of the following is the mechanism of Barbiturates action?
    A. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl-channel openings
    B. Directly activating the chloride channel
    C. Increasing the frequency of Cl-channel openings events.
    D. Antagonist at benzodiazepine bindings sites on the GABA receptor
    E. Partial agonist at 5-HT receptor but also affinity for D2 receptor.
A

A. Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl-channel openings

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41
Q
  1. The usual cause of adverse effect/death due to overdose of hypnoticis due to:
    A. Depression of the CNS
    B. Heart attack
    C. Hypothemia
    D. Cerebral edema
    E. Status epilepticus
A

A. Depression of the CNS

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42
Q
  1. Which of the following antiseizure drugs produces a voltage-dependent inactivation of sodium channels?
    I. Phenytoin
    II. Carbamazepine
    III. Vigabatrin
    IV. Gabapentin
    A. I only
    B. I and II
    C. II and IV
    D. IV only
A

B. I and II

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43
Q
  1. Mechanism of action of Phenytoin?
    A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated Na channel
    B. It binds to an allosteric regulatory site on the GABA-BZ receptor and prolongs the opening of the Cl-channel
    C. It effects on the Ca currents, reducing the low-threshold (T-type) current
    D. It inhibits GABA-transaminase, which catalyzes the breakdown of GABA
    E. Decreases the excitatory transmission by acting on the VG Ca channels presynaptically
A

A. Block high-frequency firing of neurons through action on voltage-gated Na channel

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44
Q
  1. The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is:
    A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons
    B. The loss of some cholinergic neurons
    C. The loss of the GABAergic cells
    D. The loss of glutaminergic neurons
    E. Abnormal firing of neurons from the CNS
A

A. The loss of dopaminergic neurons

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45
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is used in the treatment of parkinsonian disorders?
    A. Phenytoin
    B. Selegeline
    C. Haloperidol
    D. Fluoxetine
    E. Aspirin
A

B. Selegeline

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46
Q
  1. The mechanism of action of carbidopa is:
    A. Stimulating the synthesis release, Or reuptake of dopamine
    B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme
    C. Stimulating dopamine receptors
    D. Inhibition of COMT
    E. Monoamine oxidase inhibitor
A

B. Inhibition of DOPA decarboxylase enzyme

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47
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is correct?
    A. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
    B. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes serotonin
    C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin, MAO-B metabolizes dopamine
    D. MAO-A metabolizes dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin
    E. MAO-A metabolizes metabolizes dopamine, MAO-B metabolizes epinephrine
A

C. MAO-A metabolizes norepinephrine and serotonin, MAO-B metabolizes dopamine

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48
Q
  1. A catechol O-methyl transferase inhibitor, which prolongs the action of levodopa by diminishing its peripheral metabolism:
    A. Carbidopa
    B. Clozapine
    C. Tolcapone
    D. Rasagiline
    E. Selegiline
A

C. Tolcapone

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49
Q
  1. Mu receptors are associated with:
    A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia sedation respiratory depression and slowed GI transit
    B. Spinal analgesia, mydriasis sedation physical dependence
    C. Dysphoria, hallucinations, respiratory and vasomotor stimulation
    D. Analgesia, euphoria, respiratory stimulation, physical dependence
    E. CNS stimulation and respiratory stimulation
A

A. Supraspinal and spinal analgesia sedation respiratory depression and slowed GI transit

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50
Q
  1. Which of the following opioid analgesics is a strong mu receptor agonist?
    A. Morphine
    B. Pentazocine
    C. Buprenorphine
    D. Naloxone
    E. Propoxyphene
A

A. Morphine

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51
Q
  1. Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
    A. Meperidine
    B. Buprenorphine
    C. Naloxone
    D. Butorphanol
    E. Morphine
A

C. Naloxone

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52
Q
  1. The diagnostic triad of opioid overdosage is:
    A. Mydriasis, coma and hyperventilation
    B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis
    C. Mydriasis, chills and abdominal crampd
    D. Miosis, tremor and vomiting
    E. Mydriasis, diarrhea, increase urination
A

B. Coma, depressed respiration and miosis

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?
    A. Phenylbutazone
    B. Ketamine
    C. Aspirin
    D. Tramadol
    E. Diclofenac
A

C. Aspirin

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54
Q
  1. Correct statements concerning aspirin include all of the following except:
    A. Irreversibly inhibits platelet COX
    B. Main adverse effects at antithrombotic doses are gastric upset (intolerance) and gastric and duodenal ulcers
    C. It inhibits platelet aggregation
    D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia
    E. Epidemiologic studies suggest that long term use of aspirin at low dosage is associated with a lower incidence of colon cancer
A

D. Safe to use in patients with hemophilia

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55
Q
  1. A drug that inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, it also reduces cholesterol synthesis and up regulate low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on hepatocytes
    A. Fenofibrates
    B. Colestipol
    C. Ezetimibe
    D. Atorvastatin
    E. Niacin
A

D. Atorvastatin

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56
Q
  1. A vasodilator that also inhibits plates function by inhibiting adenosine uptake and cGMP phosphodiesterase activity.
    A. Dypiridamine
    B. Abciximab
    C. Clostazol
    D. Anistreplase
    E. Streptokinase
A

A. Dypiridamine

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57
Q
  1. The mathematical product of peripheral vascular resistance(PVR) and cardiac output(CO).
    A. Hypertension
    B. Blood Pressure
    C. Hypotension
    D. Vascular pressure
    E. Afterload
A

B. Blood Pressure

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58
Q
  1. Recommendation on dietary approaches to stop hypertension (DASH).
    A. High intake of fruits
    B. Low fats dairy products along with reduced content of dietary cholesterol saturated fat and total fat
    C. The diet is rich on potassium and calcium and low in sodium
    D. High intake of vegetables
    E. All of these
A

E. All of these

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59
Q
  1. Recommend Blood Pressure targets for patient with heart failure
    A. <150 / <90
    B. <140 / <90
    C. <140 / <80
    D. <160 / <90
    E. <130 / <80
A

E. <130 / <80

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60
Q
  1. Increase the excretion of Na, CI and H20 by inhibiting Na/Cr ion exchange in the early part of the distal tubule:
    A. Thiazide diuretics
    B. Loop diuretic
    C. Potassium Sparring diuretics
    D. Aldosterone Antagonists
    E. Osmotic diuretics
A

A. Thiazide diuretics

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61
Q
  1. Drug that antagonize angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor subtype, which decrease systemic vascular resistance.
    A. Furosemide
    B. Amiloride
    C. Metoprolol
    D. Captopril
    E. Losartan
A

E. Losartan

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62
Q
  1. Reduce both resting and exercise heart rate, cardiac output and both systolic and diastolic blood pressure
    A. Furosemide
    B. Amiloride
    C. Metoprolol
    D. Captopril
    E. Losartan
A

C. Metoprolol

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63
Q
  1. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II by interfering with angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) activity
    A. Furosemide
    B. Amiloride
    C. Metoprolol
    D. Captopril
    E. Losartan
A

D. Captopril

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64
Q
  1. A condition of chronic excess total body iron caused either by an inherited abnormality of iron, Absorption or by frequent transfusion to treat certain types of hemolytic disorders.
    A. Hemochromatosis
    B. Megaloblastic anemia
    C. Microcytic anemia
    D. Neutropenia
    E. Pernicious anemia
A

A. Hemochromatosis

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65
Q
  1. A Deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally large results from either folate or vitamin B deficiency
    A. Hemochromatosis
    B. Megaloblastic anemia
    C. Microcytic anemia
    D. Neutropenia
    E. Pernicious anemia
A

B. Megaloblastic anemia

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66
Q
  1. A deficiency in serum hemoglobin and erythrocytes in which the erythrocytes are abnormally small often caused by iron deficiency
    A. Hemochromatosis
    B. Megaloblastic anemia
    C. Microcytic anemia
    D. Neutropenia
    E. Pernicious anemia
A

C. Microcytic anemia

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67
Q
  1. An abnormally low number of neutrophils in the blood patients with this condition are susceptible to serious infection
    A. Hemochromatosis
    B. Megaloblastic anemia
    C. Microcytic anemia
    D. Neutropenia
    E. Pernicious anemia
A

D. Neutropenia

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68
Q
  1. A form of megaloblastic anemia resulting from deficiency of intrinsic factor, a protein produced by gastric mucosal cell and required for intestinal absorption of vitamin B
    A. Hemochromatosis
    B. Megaloblastic anemia
    C. Microcytic anemia
    D. Neutropenia
    E. Pernicious anemia
A

E. Pernicious anemia

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69
Q
  1. Required for biosynthesis of heme and heme-containing proteins, including hemoglobin and myoglobin
    A. Deferoxamine
    B. Vitamin B12
    C. Folic Acid
    D. Ferrous sulfate
    E. Filgrastim
A

D. Ferrous sulfate

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70
Q
  1. Stimulates G-CSF receptors expressed on mature neutrophils and their progenitors for the treatment of neutropenia
    A. Deferoxamine
    B. Vitamin B12
    C. Folic acid
    D. Ferrous sulfate’
    E. Filgrastim
A

E. Filgrastim

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71
Q
  1. An endogenous anticlotting protein that irreversibly inactivates thrombin and factor Xa. Its enzymatic action is markedly accelerated by the heparins
    A. Antithrombin III
    B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
    C. Clotting cascade
    D. Prothrombin
    E. A and B
A

A. Antithrombin III

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72
Q
  1. A protein complex on the surface of platelets. When activated it aggregates platelets primarily by binding to fibrin.
    A. Antithrombin III
    B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
    C. Clotting cascade
    D. Prothrombin
    E. A and C
A

B. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa (?)

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73
Q
  1. Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of unfractionated heparin and direct thrombin inhibitors: prolonged when drug effect is adequate
    A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (apt) test
    B. Clotting cascade
    C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
    D. Platelets test
    E. Coagulase test
A

A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (apt) test (?)

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74
Q
  1. Laboratory test used to monitor the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, prolonged when drug effect is adequate
    A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (apt) test
    B. Clotting cascade
    C. Prothrombin time (PT) test
    D. Platelet test
    E. Coagulase test
A

C. Prothrombin time (PT) test

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75
Q
  1. Which of the following are classified as thrombolytic agents?
    i. Streptokinase
    ii. Warfarin
    iii. T-PA derivatives
    iv. Heparins
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I and III
    D. II and IV
    E. IV only
A

C. I and III (?)

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76
Q
  1. What is the bactericidal concentration of ethanol and isopropanol by volume in water?
    A. 60 – 90%
    B. 30 – 50%
    C. 70 – 99%
    D. 80 – 100%
    E. 10 – 20%
A

A. 60 – 90% (?)

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77
Q
  1. It is a destruction of marked reduction in number of activity of microorganisms.
    A. Antisepsis
    B. Decontamination
    C. Disinfection
    D. Sterilization
    E. Pasteurization
A

B. Decontamination (?)

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78
Q
  1. It contains 2% Iodine and 2.4% NaI in alcohol and is the most active antiseptic for intact skin
    A. Iodophors
    B. Povidone iodine
    C. Tincture of Iodine USP
    D. Iodine solution
    E. Both A and B
A

C. Tincture of Iodine USP (?)

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79
Q
  1. A phenolic disinfectant that cause cerebral edema and convulsions in premature infants.
    A. O-phenyl phenol
    B. P-Amylphenol
    C. O-benzyl-P-Chlorophenol
    D. Heptachlorophene
    E. Hexachlorophene
A

E. Hexachlorophene (?)

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80
Q
  1. The following has an excellent efficacy on infection caused by pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia except:
    A. Penicillin
    B. Dapsone
    C. Atrovaquone
    D. Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole
    E. None of these
A

B. Dapsone (?)

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81
Q
  1. First line drug in treating early stage of infection caused by west African trypanosomiasis
    A. Pentamidine
    B. Melarsoprol
    C. Metronidazole
    D. Iodoquinol
    E. Tetracycline
A

A. Pentamidine (?)

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82
Q
  1. It inhibits topoisomerase II and has a side effect of alopecia and myelosuppression
    A. Irinotecan
    B. Etoposide
    C. Paclitaxel
    D. Vinblastine
    E. Vincristine
A

B. Etoposide (?)

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83
Q
  1. The FDA approved a novel, oral and highly selective small molecule inhibitor of BRAFV600E last August 2011 and has a highly promising activity in metastatic melanoma. What drug is this?
    A. Lomustine
    B. Camustine
    C. Cyclophosphamide
    D. Vemurafenib
    E. Etoposide
A

D. Vemurafenib (?)

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84
Q
  1. It is an immunosuppressant macrolide antibiotic produced by Steptomyces tsukabaensis
    A. Cyclosporine
    B. Tacrolimus
    C. Temsirolimus
    D. Cycloserine
    E. Sirolimus
A

B. Tacrolimus (?)

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85
Q
  1. What class of Gastrointestinal drugs are most effective agents for the treatment of non-erosive and erosive reflux disease and extra-esophageal manifestation of reflux dieseas?
    A. NSADID
    B. H2 receptor antagonist
    C. Proton Pump inhibitor
    D. Prostaglandin analogs
    E. H1 receptor antagonist
A

C. Proton Pump inhibitor

86
Q
  1. The following are common preparation of natural plant products which are bulk forming laxatives except
    A. Psylium
    B. Methyicellulose
    C. Polycarbophil
    D. A and B
    E. None of these
A

E. None of these (?)

87
Q
  1. It is the most commonly used osmotic laxative and should not be used for prolonged periods for patient with renal insufficiency due to the risk of hypermagnesemia
    A. Magnesium hydroxide
    B. Milk of Magnesia
    C. Furosemide
    D. A and B
    E. Mannitol
A

D. A and B (?)

88
Q
  1. It is effective in reducing noctumal acid but is less effective against stimulated secretion
    A. H2 receptor antagonist
    B. PPI
    C. Sucralfate
    D. Laxative
    E. Diuretic
A

E. Diuretic (ata? ala nalabas sa gugol hehe pero base sa classifications, diuretic eong nahihiwalay ng stante sa mga given hehe kasama siya ng mga pangbp/cholesterol)

89
Q
  1. Ondansetron and Granisetron block which receptor site?
    A. 5HT3
    B. 5HT1A
    C. 5HT10
    D. 5HT1C
    E. 5HT4
90
Q
  1. These are example of amides:
    I. Lidocaine
    II. Bupivacaine
    III. Cocaine
    IV. Prilocaine
    A. I and II
    B. I, II and III
    C. I, II and IV
    D. II, III and IV
    E. I, II, III and IV
A

C. I, II and IV

91
Q
  1. High Plasma concentration of local anesthetics result from rapid absorption, thus causing:
    I. Sedation
    II. Light headedness
    III. Auditory disturbances
    IV. Restlessness
    A. I and II
    B. I, II and III
    C. I, II and IV
    D. I and IV
    E. I, II, III and IV
92
Q
  1. Selective Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor include:
    i. Venlafaxine
    ii. Sertraline
    iii. Duloxetine
    iv. Citalopram
    A. I only
    B. I, II and III
    C. I, II and IV
    D. I and III
    E. II and III
A

D. I and III

93
Q
  1. Which pair is mismatch?
    i. Butyrophenone – Haloperidol
    ii. Atypical antipsychotics – Clozapine
    iii. Thioxanthene – Thiothixene
    iv. Phenothiazine – Chlorpromazine
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. III only
    D. IV only
    E. None of these
94
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about opioids?
    i. Opioids analgesics may prolong labor
    ii. Opioids contract biliary smooth muscle
    iii. Opioids analgesics stimulates release of ADH, Prolactin and Somatropin
    iv. Opioids causes mydriasis
    A. I, II, III and IV
    B. IV only
    C. III only
    D. I only
    E. II only
95
Q
  1. Which of the following is mismatch?
    i. Factor I – Fibrinogen
    ii. Factor XII – Fibrin-Stabilizing factor
    iii. Factor XI – Prothrombin
    iv. Factor X – Stuart power factor
    A. III only
    B. IV only
    C. I and II
    D. II, III and IV
    E. I, II, III and IV
A

D. II, III and IV

96
Q
  1. The deficiency of factor IX can cause hemophilia B and Christmas Disease. Hemophilia A is also known as Christmas Disease.
    A. Only the 1st statement is correct
    B. Only the 2nd statement is correct
    C. Both statements are correct
    D. Both statement are wrong
A

A. Only the 1st statement is correct (?)`

97
Q
  1. The following are non-selective COX inhibitor EXCEPT:
    i. Diclofenac
    ii. Celecoxib
    iii. Meloxicam
    iv. Ibuprofen
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. III and IV
    D. I and IV
    E. IV only
A

B. II and III

98
Q
  1. It is a peptide antibiotic and is considered as a non-biologic DMARD
    A. Cycloserine
    B. Cyclosporine
    C. Chloroquine
    D. Abatacept
    E. Azathioprine
A

E. Azathioprine (?)

99
Q
  1. It is the active metabolite of phenacetin
    i. Acetaminophen
    ii. N-acetyl-p-aminophenol
    iii. N-acetylcysteine
    iv. ASA
    A. IV only
    B. I only
    C. I and II
    D. III only
    E. I, II, III and IV
A

C. I and II (?)

100
Q
  1. It is the most form of hyperthyroidism
    A. Myxedema coma
    B. Subacute thyroiditis
    C. Ophthalmopathy
    D. Grave’s disease
    E. None of these
A

D. Grave’s disease (?)

101
Q
  1. This is the sudden acute exacerbation of all of the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis presenting as a life-threatening syndrome
    i. Myxedema coma
    ii. Grave’s disease
    iii. Thyroid Storm
    iv. Thyrotoxic crisis
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. III only
    D. I and II
    E. III and IV
A

E. III and IV (?)

102
Q
  1. A syndrome of thyroid enlargement without excessive thyroid hormone production
    A. Non-toxic goiter
    B. Thyroid neoplasms
    C. Neonatal Grave’s Disease
    D. Myxedema coma
    E. Thyroiditis
A

A. Non-toxic goiter (?)

103
Q
  1. What is the route of administration of methyltestosterone?
    i. IM
    ii. IV
    iii. Oral
    iv. Transdermal
    A. I and II
    B. III and IV
    C. I only
    D. III only
    E. None of these
A

D. III only (?)

104
Q
  1. It is a chemotherapeutic drug which is a folic acid analog that binds with high affinity to the active catalytic site of dihydrofolate reductase:
    A. Cisplatin
    B. Dacarbazine
    C. Methotrexate
    D. Vincristine
    E. Gemcitabine
A

C. Methotrexate (?)

105
Q
  1. The combination of these are the most effective for H. pylori associated ulcers:
    I. Antibiotic
    II. PPI
    III. H2 receptor blocker
    IV. Prostaglandin analogs
    A. Antibiotic and PPI
    B. PPI and H2 receptor blocker
    C. H2 receptor blocker and prostaglandin analogs
    D. Antibiotic and H2 receptor blocker
    E. Antibiotic and prostaglandin analog
A

A. Antibiotic and PPI (?)

106
Q
  1. This is the main form of leukemia in childhood, and it is the most common form of cancer in children
    A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
    B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
    C. Hodgkin’s Leukemia
    D. Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
    E. None of these
A

A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (?)

107
Q
  1. It is the most common leukemia in adults.
    A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
    B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
    C. Hodgkin’s Leukemia
    D. Non-Hodgkin’s Leukemia
    E. None of these
A

B. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia (?)

108
Q
  1. The halimark of this type of diabetes is selective beta cell destruction and severe or absolute insulin deficiency
    A. Type 1
    B. Type 2
    C. Type 3
    D. Type 4
    E. All of these
A

A. Type 1 (?)

109
Q
  1. What type of organ transplant rejection occurs within hours and cannot be stopped with immunosuppressive drug and occurs due to performed antibodies against the donor organs?
    A. Acute
    B. Accelerated
    C. Hyperacute
    D. Chronic
    E. Superficial
A

C. Hyperacute (?)

110
Q
  1. Its generic name is Imiquimod and it is used in the treatment of external genital and perianal warts in adults. Available as 5% cream.
    A. Protopic
    B. Aldara
    C. Elidel
    D. Zovirax
    E. Denavir
A

B. Aldara (?)

111
Q
  1. Podophyllum resin, an alcoholic extract of mandrake root of may apple is used in the treatment of:
    A. Condyloma Acuminatum
    B. Psoriasis
    C. Photophobia
    D. Lichen simplex chronicus
    E. Cushing’s syndrome
A

A. Condyloma Acuminatum (?)

112
Q
  1. This vitamin enhances the extracerebral metabolism of levodopa
    A. Vitamin A
    B. Vitamin B9
    C. Vitamin B6
    D. Vitamin E
    E. Vitamin D
A

C. Vitamin B6 (?)

113
Q
  1. A combination of levodopa and MAO-A inhibitors could lead to this conditions
    A. Hypertensive Crisis
    B. Alopecia
    C. Memory Loss
    D. Hyperactivity
    E. GI bleeding
A

A. Hypertensive Crisis (?)

114
Q
  1. A catechol-o-methyltransferase inhibitor
    A. Selegiline
    B. Entacapone
    C. Pergolide
    D. Ropinirole
    E. Rotigotine
A

B. Entacapone (?)

115
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of piperidine type of phenothiazines?
    i. Thioridazine
    ii. Piperacetazine
    iii. Mesoridazine
    iv. Carphenazine
    A. I and II
    B. III and IV
    C. I, II and III
    D. II, III and IV
    E. I, II, III and IV
116
Q
  1. This is also known as manic-depressive illness
    A. Anxiety
    B. Bipolar Disorder
    C. Obstructive-compulsive disorder
    D. ADHD
    E. None of these
A

B. Bipolar Disorder (?)

117
Q
  1. PGE1 analog used as treatment and prophylaxis of NSAID-included gastric ulcer and is also an abortifacient drug.
    A. Alprostadil
    B. Misoprostol
    C. Dinoprostone
    D. Epoprostenol
    E. Prostin E2
A

B. Misoprostol

118
Q
  1. PGE1 analog used to treat erectile dysfunction:
    A. Alprostadil
    B. Misoprostol
    C.Dinoprostone
    D.Epoprostenol
    E.Prostin E2
A

A. Alprostadil (?)

119
Q
  1. Drug for the treatment of gout which blocks xanthine oxidase thereby decreasing the production of uric acid:
    A. Indomethacin
    B. Colchicine
    C. Allopurinol
    D. Febuxosat
    E. C and D
A

C. Allopurinol (?)

120
Q
  1. Drug for gout which increase urinary excretion of uric acid (inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in the proximal tubule):
    A. Indomethacin
    B. Colchicine
    C. Allopurinol
    D. Febuxosat
    E. Probenecid
A

E. Probenecid (?)

121
Q
  1. Drug for the treatment of gout that disrupts the inflammatory cycle, which inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis of uric acid crystals:
    A. Indomethacin
    B. Colchicine
    C. Allopurinol
    D. Febuxosat
    E. Probenecid
A

B. Colchicine (?)

122
Q
  1. NSAID that inhibits COX enzyme thereby reducing the production of prostaglandins. May caused cholestatic hepatitis, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia
    A. Indomethacin
    B. Colchicine
    C. Allopurinol
    D. Febuxosat
    E. Probenecid
A

A. Indomethacin (?)

123
Q
  1. Medium to large vessel vasculitis seen in children; symptoms include conjunctivitis, rash erythema of the palms and soles, coronary aneurysms, and strawberry tongue:
    A. Aplastic anemia
    B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
    C. Kawasaki disease
    D. Hirsutism
    E. Malignant Osteoporosis
A

C. Kawasaki disease (?)

124
Q
  1. Painful erythematous subcutaneous nodules seen in patient with a high level of mycobacterial antigens.
    A. Aplastic anemia
    B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosium
    C. Kawasaki disease
    D. Hirsutism
    E. Malignant Osteoporosis
A

B. Erythema Nodosum Leprosium (?)

125
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunostimulants?
    i. Filgastrim
    ii. Cyclosporine
    iii. Aldesleukin
    iv. Interferon Alfacon-1
    v. Prednisone
    A. I, II and III
    B. I, III and IV
    C. II, III and IV
    D. II and V
    E. II and III
126
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs listed below are classified as immunosuppressants?
    i. Filgastrim
    ii. Cyclosporine
    iii. Aldesleukin
    iv. Interferon alfacon-1
    v. Prednisone
    A. I, II and III
    B. I, III and IV
    C. II, III and IV
    D. II and V
    E. II and III
127
Q
  1. Immunosuppressant drug that binds to FK-binding protein and form a complex that inhibits calcineurin
    A. Tacrolimus
    B. Methotrexate
    C. Thalidomide
    D. Azathioprine
    E. Cyclophosphamide
A

A. Tacrolimus (?)

128
Q
  1. Chemotherapeutic drug that inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, blocking synthesis of nucleoside phosphates inhibiting DNA synthesis:
    A. Tacrolimus
    B. Methotrexate
    C. Thalidomide
    D. Azathioprine
    E. Cyclophosphamide
A

B. Methotrexate (?)

129
Q
  1. Drug that inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis via cross-linking of these molecule. Used as chemotherapy for solid tumor malignancies
    A. Tacrolimus
    B. Methotrexate
    C. Thalidomide
    D. Azathioprine
    E. Cyclophosphamide
130
Q
  1. A syndrome characterized by polyuria, polydipsia and hypernatremia and is caused by inadequate production of vasopressin:
    A. Acromegaly
    B. Central diabetes insipidus
    C. Gigantism
    D. Prolactinoma
    E. Aplastic anemia
A

B. Central diabetes insipidus (?)

131
Q
  1. A rare syndrome of growth hormone (GH) excess in adults characterized by abnormal growth of tissues (particularly connective tissue) metabolic, and cardiac dysfunction
    A. Acromegaly
    B. Central diabetes insipidus
    C. Gigantism
    D. Prolactinoma
    E. Aplastic anemia
A

A. Acromegaly (?)

132
Q
  1. A syndrome of GH excess in children and adolescents with long bone epiphyses that results in excessive height
    A. Acromegaly
    B. Central diabetes insipidus
    C. Gigantism
    D. Prolactinoma
    E. Aplastic anemia
A

C. Gigantism (?)

133
Q
  1. Pituitary tumor that secretes excessive amounts of prolactin and is associated with a syndrome of infertility and galactorrhea
    A. Acromegaly
    B. Central diabetes insipidus
    C. Gigantism
    D. Prolactinoma
    E. Aplastic anemia
A

D. Prolactinoma (?)

134
Q
  1. Somatostatin receptor agonist used in the treatment of acromegaly and several other hormone secreting tumors
    A. Ocreotide
    B. Pegvisomant
    C. Somatropin
    D. Leuprolide
    E. Bromocriptine
A

A. Ocreotide (?)

135
Q
  1. Dopamine D2 receptor agonist used in the treatment of hyperprolactinemia and Parkinson’s disease
    A. Ocreotide
    B. Pegvisomant
    C. Somatropin
    D. Leuprolide
    E. Bromocriptine
A

E. Bromocriptine (?)

136
Q
  1. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) analogs for ovarian suppression
    A. Ocreotide
    B. Pegvisomant
    C. Somatropin
    D. Leuprolide
    E. Bromocriptine
A

D. Leuprolide (?)

137
Q
  1. Antagonist of vasopressin V1a and V2 receptors used as a treatment of hyponatremia in hospitalized patients:
    A. Desmopressin
    B. Conivaptan
    C. Atosiban
    D. Oxytocin
    E. Ganirelix
A

B. Conivaptan (?)

138
Q
  1. Agonist of vasopressin V2 receptors for the treatment of pituitary diabetes insipidus:
    A. Desmopressin
    B. Conivaptan
    C. Atosiban
    D. Oxytocin
    E. Ganirelix
A

A. Desmopressin (?)

139
Q
  1. Antagonist of oxytocin receptor
    A. Desmopressin
    B. Conivaptan
    C. Atosiban
    D. Oxcytocin
    E. Genirelix
A

C. Atosiban (?)

140
Q
  1. Protein synthesized in the liver that transport thyroid hormone in the blood
    A. Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG)
    B. Thyroglobulin
    C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH)
    D. Thyroid hormone
    E. Thyroxine
A

A. Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG) (?)

141
Q
  1. A protein synthesized in the thyroid gland: its tyrosine residues are used to synthesize thyroid hormones
    A. Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG)
    B. Thyroglobulin
    C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH)
    D. Thyroid hormone
    E. Thyroxine
A

B. Thyroglobulin (?)

142
Q
  1. The anterior pituitary hormone that regulates thyroid gland growth, uptake of iodine and synthesis of thyroid hormone:
    A. Thyroxine-binding globulin(TBG)
    B. Thyroglobulin
    C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone(TSH)
    D. Thyroid hormone
    E. Thyroxine
A

C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (?)

143
Q
  1. Which of the following listed below are key feature of hypothyroidism?
    i. Sensation of being cold
    ii. Reduced appetite
    iii. Weight loss
    iv. Tachycardia
    v. Drooping of eyelids
    A. I, II and III
    B. I, II and IV
    C. I, II and V
    D. II and III
    E. III and IV
A

C. I, II and V

144
Q
  1. Which of the following listed below are key features of thyrotoxicosis?
    i. Sensation of being cold
    ii. Reduced appetite
    iii. Weight loss
    iv. Tachycardia
    v. Drooping of eyelids
    A. I, II and III
    B. I, II and IV
    C. I, II and V
    D. II and III
    E. III and IV
A

D. II and III (?)

145
Q
  1. Drug that inhibits thyroid peroxidase reactions, iodine organification and peripheral conversion of T4 and T3
    A. Methimazole
    B. Propranolol
    C. Lugol’s Solution
    D. Potassium iodide
    E. Levothyroxine
A

A. Methimazole (?)

146
Q
  1. Inhibition of B receptors and inhibition of conversion of T4 to T3 used in the management of thyroid storm
    A. Methimazole
    B. Propranolol
    C. Lugol’s Solution
    D. Potassium iodide
    E. Levothyroxine
A

B. Propranolol (?)

147
Q
  1. Partial or complete loss of adrenocortical function, including loss of glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid function:
    A. Addison disease
    B. Adrenal suppression
    C. Cushing’s Syndrome
    D. Pheochromocytoma
    E. Adrenocorticoids
A

A. Addison disease (?)

148
Q
  1. A metabolic disorder caused by excess secretion of adrenocorticoid steroids, which is most commonly due to increased amount of ACTH
    A. Addison disease
    B. Adrenal suppression
    C. Cushing’s Syndrome
    D. Pheochromocytoma
    E. Adrenocorticoids
A

C. Cushing’s Syndrome (?)

149
Q
  1. Strong agonist at mineralocorticoid receptors and moderate activation of glucocorticoid receptors, used to manage adrenal insufficiency in Addison’s Disease
    A. Prednisone
    B. Fludrocortisone
    C. Mifepristone
    D. Spironolactone
    E. Ketoconazole
A

B. Fludrocortisone (?)

150
Q
  1. Pharmacologic antagonist of mineralocorticoid receptor and weak antagonist of androgen receptors, may cause gynecomastia
    A. Prednisone
    B. Fludrocortisone
    C. Mifepristone
    D. Spironolactone
    E. Ketoconazole
A

D. Spironolactone (?)

151
Q
  1. All of the following are true about CNS drugs, EXCEPT:
    i. Water solubility is an important characteristic of most CNS drug
    ii. CNS drugs readily cross the placental barrier and enter the fetal circulation
    iii. Almost all CNS drugs require metabolism to more water soluble form for their elimination
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. III only
    D. I and II
    E. II and III
152
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs are classified as benzodiazepine?
    i. Alprazolam
    ii. Clonazepam
    iii. Diazepam
    iv. Thiopental
    v. Phenobarbital
    A. I, II and III
    B. II, III and IV
    C. IV and V
    D. I and II
    E. II and V
A

A. I, II and III (?)

153
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs are classified as barbiturates?
    i. Alprazolam
    ii. Clonazepam
    iii. Diazepam
    iv. Thiopental
    v. Phenobarbital
    A. I, II and III
    B. II, III and IV
    C. IV and V
    D. I and II
    E. II and V
A

C. IV and V (?)

154
Q
  1. Binds of GABAA receptor subunits to facilitate chloride channel opening and increase frequency
    A. Benzodiazepines
    B. Barbiturates
    C. Tricyclic antidepressants
    D. Antipsychotics
    E. Antiseizure
A

A. Benzodiazepines (?)

155
Q
  1. Bind to GABAA receptor sites (distinct from benzodiazepines), facilitate channel opening and increased duration
    A. Benzodiazepines
    B. Barbiturates
    C. Tricyclic antidepressants
    D. Antipsychotics
    E. Antiseizure
156
Q
  1. Antagonist at benzodiazepine sites on GABAA receptor
    A. Ramelteon
    B. Buspirone
    C. Secobarbital
    D. Flumazenil
    E. Phenytoin
A

D. Flumazenil (?)

157
Q
  1. Activates MT1 and MT2 receptors in suprachiasmatic nucleus used for the treatment of sleep disorder
    A. Ramelteon
    B. Buspirone
    C. Secobarbital
    D. Flumazenil
    E. Phenytoin
A

A. Ramelteon (?)

158
Q
  1. Partial agonist at 5-HT receptors and possibly D2 receptors used for generalized anxiety states
    A. Ramelteon
    B. Buspirone
    C. Secobarbital
    D. Flumazenil
    E. Phenytoin
A

B. Buspirone (?)

159
Q
  1. NAD+-dependent enzymes, found mainly in the liver and gut which accounts for the metabolism of low to moderate doses of ethanol
    A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
    B. Microsomal ethanol-oxidizing system
    C. Monoamine oxidase
    D. Aldehyde dehydrogenase
    E. Catechol-o-methyl transferase
A

A. Alcohol dehydrogenase (?)

160
Q
  1. Sever form of alcohol withdrawal whose main symptoms are sweating, tremor, confusion, and hallucinations
    A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
    B. Delirium tremens (DTs)
    C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
    D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
    E. Acute alcohol toxicity
A

B. Delirium tremens (DTs) (?)

161
Q
  1. A syndrome of craniofacial dysmorphia, heart defects and mental retardation caused by the teratogenic effects of ethanol consumption during pregnancy:
    A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
    B. Delirium tremens (dts)
    C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
    D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
    E. Acute alcohol toxicity
A

C. Fetal alcohol syndrome (?)

162
Q
  1. The characteristic syndrome of insomnia, tremor, agitation, seizures and autonomic instability engendered by deprivation in an individual who is physically dependent on ethanol
    A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
    B. Delirium tremens (dts)
    C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
    D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
    E. Acute alcohol toxicity
A

A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome (?)

163
Q
  1. A syndrome of ataxia, confusion and paralysis of the extraocular muscles that is associated with chronic alcoholism and thiamine deficiency
    A. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome
    B. Delirium tremens (dts)
    C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
    D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
    E. Acute alcohol toxicity
A

D. Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome (?)

164
Q
  1. The most common medical complication of chronic alcohol abuse
    A. Hypertension
    B. Diabetes
    C. Lung Disease
    D. Liver Disease
    E. Cancer
A

D. Liver Disease (?)

165
Q
  1. NMDA glutamate receptor antagonist that is also US-FDA approved for treatment of alcoholism
    A. Naltrexone
    B. Acamprosate
    C. Disulfiram
    D. Methanol
    E. Ethylene glycol
A

B. Acamprosate (?)

166
Q
  1. Aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitor used adjunctively in some treatment program for alcoholics. If ethanol is consumed by a patient who has taken this drug, acetaldehyde accumulation leads to nausea, headache, flushing and hypotension
    A. Naltrexone
    B. Acamprosate
    C. Disulfiram
    D. Methanol
    E. Ethylene glycol
A

C. Disulfiram (?)

167
Q
  1. Poisoning of this substance result in toxic levels, which causes characteristics visual disturbance plus coma, seizures, acidosis and death due to respiratory failure
    A. Ethanol
    B. Methanol
    C. Ethylene Glycol
    D. Diazepam
    E. Thiamine
A

B. Methanol (?)

168
Q
  1. BDZ receptor agonist that facilitates GABA-mediated activation of GABAA receptors used in the prevention and treatment of acute ethanol withdrawal syndrome
    A. Ethanol
    B. Methanol
    C. Ethylene Glycol
    D. Diazepam
    E. Thiamine
A

A. Ethanol (?)

169
Q
  1. Vitamin administered to patients suspected of alcohol dependence to prevent the Wemicke-Korsakeoff syndrome
    A. Ascorbic acid
    B. Riboflavin
    C. Thiamine
    D. Folic acid
    E. Niacin
A

C. Thiamine (?)

170
Q
  1. Nonselective competitive antagonist of opioid receptors used to reduce risk of relapse in individuals with alcohol-used disorder
    A. Acamprosate
    B. Disulfiram
    C. Formepizole
    D. Ethanol
    E. Naltrexone
A

E. Naltrexone (?)

171
Q
  1. Inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase and prevents conversion of methanol and ethylene glycol to toxic metabolites. Used as an antidote for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning:
    A. Acamprosate
    B. Disulfiram
    C. Fomepizole
    D. Ethanol
    E. Naltrexone
A

C. Fomepizole (?)

172
Q
  1. Tonic phase (less than 1min) involves abrupt loss of consciousness, muscle rigidity, and respiration arrest; clonic phase (2-3 min) involves jerking of body muscles, with lip or tongue biting, fecal and urinary incontinence; formerly called grand mal:
    A. Partial seizures, simple
    B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
    C. Absence seizures, generalized
    D. Myoclonic seizures
    E. Status epilepticus
A

B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized (?)

173
Q
  1. Impaired consciousness (often abrupt onset and brief) sometimes with automatisms, loss of postural tone, or enuresis, begin in childhood (formerly, petit mal) and usually cease by age 20 yrs:
    A. Partial seizures, simple
    B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
    C. Absence seizures, generalized
    D. Myoclonic seizures
    E. Status epilepticus
A

C. Absence seizures, generalized (?)

174
Q
  1. A series of seizures (usually tonic-clonic) without recovery of consciousness between attacks; it is a life threatening emergency:
    A. Partial seizures, simple
    B. Tonic-clonic seizures, generalized
    C. Absence seizures, generalized
    D. Myoclonic seizures
    E. Status epilepticus
A

E. Status epilepticus (?)

175
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of an antiseizure drug?
    i. Sodium channel blockade
    ii. GABA-related mechanism
    iii. Calcium channel blockade
    iv. Alpha receptor blockade
    A. I only
    B. II only
    C. III only
    D. IV only
    E. III and IV
A

iv. Alpha receptor blockade (?)

176
Q
  1. Which of the following is a preferred drug for the treatment of absence seizures?
    A. Phenytoin
    B. Carbamazepine
    C. Ethosuximide
    D. Diazepam
    E. Clonazepam
A

C. Ethosuximide (?)

177
Q
  1. Stage of anesthesia where the patient has decreased awareness of pain, sometimes with amnesia. Consciousness may be impaired but is not lost.
    A. Stage1: Analgesia
    B. Stage2: Disinhibition
    C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
    D. Stage4: Medullary depression
    E. Stage5: Delirium
A

A. Stage1: Analgesia (?)

178
Q
  1. Stage of anesthesia where the patient develops severe respiratory and cardiovascular depression that requires mechanical and pharmacologic support
    A. Stage1: Analgesia
    B. Stage2: Disinhibition
    C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
    D. Stage4: Medullary depression
    E. Stage5: Delirium
A

D. Stage4: Medullary depression (?)

179
Q
  1. Stage of anesthesia where the patient appears to be delirious and excited. Amnesia occurs reflexes are enhanced, and respiration is typically irregular, retching and incontinence may occur.
    A. Stage1: Analgesia
    B. Stage2: Disinhibition
    C. Stage3: Surgical anesthesia
    D. Stage4: Medullary depression
    E. Stage5: Delirium
A

B. Stage2: Disinhibition (?)

180
Q
  1. Anesthesia produced by a mixture of drugs, often including both inhaled and intravenous agents
    A. Maximum anesthesia
    B. Balanced anesthesia
    C. General anesthesia
    D. Inhalation anesthesia
    E. Optimal anesthesia
A

B. Balanced anesthesia (?)

181
Q
  1. The alveolar concentration of an inhaled anesthetic that is required to prevent a response to a standardized painful stimulus in 50% of patients
    A. Maximum alveolar concentration
    B. Optimal anesthetic dose
    C. Minimum alveolar concentration
    D. Standard alveolar concentration
    E. Anesthetic alveolar concentration
A

C. Minimum alveolar concentration (?)

182
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs listed below is classified as inhaled anesthetics?
    i. Halothane
    ii. Thiopental
    iii. Ketamine
    iv. Enflurane
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I and IV
    D. III and IV
    E. I and V
A

C. I and IV (?)

183
Q
  1. Which of the following drug listed below is classified as intravenous anesthetic?
    i. Halothane
    ii. Thiopental
    iii. Ketamine
    iv. Enflurane
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. I and IV
    D. III and IV
    E. I and V
A

B. II and III (?)

184
Q
  1. This drug produces a state of “dissociative anesthesia” in which the patient remains conscious but has marked catatonia, analgesia and amnesia
    A. Midazolam
    B. Thiopental
    C. Ketamine
    D. Morphine
    E. Etomidate
A

C. Ketamine (?)

185
Q
  1. Centrally acting a2-adrenergic agonist that has analgesic and hypnotic actions when used intravenously
    A. Phenylephrine
    B. Dexmedetomidine
    C. Prazosin
    D. Clonidine
    E. Minoxidil
A

D. Clonidine (?)

186
Q
  1. Barbiturate that is used for induction of anesthesia and for short surgical procedure:
    A. Nitrous oxide
    B. Thiopental
    C. Halothane
    D. Midazolam
    E. Ketamine
A

B. Thiopental (?)

187
Q
  1. Long acting ester local anesthetic:
    A. Tetracaine
    B. Procaine
    C. Benzocaine
    D. Bupivacaine
    E. Lidocaine
A

D. Bupivacaine (?)

188
Q
  1. All of the following are clinical use of local anesthetic EXCEPT:
    A. Used for minor surgical procedures often in combination with vasoconstrictors such as epinephrine
    B. Used in spinal anesthesia and to produce autonomic blockade in ischemic conditions.
    C. Slow epidural infusion at low concentrations has been used successfully for postoperative analgesia
    D. Oral and parenteral form of local anesthetic are sometimes used adjunctively in neuropathic pain states
    E. Used as a component of balance anesthesia
189
Q
  1. Neuromuscular paralysis that results from pharmacologic antagonism at the acetylcholine receptor of the end plate:
    A. Depolarizing blockade
    B. Nondepolarizing blockade
    C. Stabilizing blockade
    D. A or C
    E. B or C
A

B. Nondepolarizing blockade (?)

190
Q
  1. Neuromuscular paralysis that results from persistent depolarization of the end plate:
    A. Depolarizing blockade
    B. Nondepolarizing blockade
    C. Stabilizing blockade
    D. A or C
    E. B or C
A

A. Depolarizing blockade (?)

191
Q
  1. Which of the following drug can reverse the blockade brought about by non- depolarizing neuromuscular blockers
    A. Neostigmine
    B. Succinylcholine
    C. Tubocurarine
    D. Atropine
    E. Acetylcholine
A

A. Neostigmine (?)

192
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of malignant hyperthermia?
    A. Tubocurarine
    B. Baclofen
    C. Cyclobenzaprine
    D. Dantrolene
    E. Diazepam
A

D. Dantrolene (?)

193
Q
  1. Which of the following listed below are signs of Parkinsonism?
    i. Rigidity of skeletal muscle
    ii. Akinesia
    iii. Flat facies
    iv. Tremor at rest
    A. I and II
    B. II and III
    C. III and IV
    D. I, II and III
    E. All of these
A

E. All of these (?)

194
Q
  1. A progressive neurologic disease characterized by shuffling gait, stooped posture, resting tremor, speech impediments, movement difficulties and an eventual slowing of mental processes and dementia
    A. Parkinsonism
    B. Huntington Disease
    C. Tourette’s syndrome
    D. Wilson’s disease
    E. Athetosis
A

A. Parkinsonism (?)

195
Q
  1. An inherited adult-onset neurologic disease characterized by dementia and bizame involuntary movements:
    A. Parkinsonism
    B. Huntington Disease
    C. Tourette’s syndrome
    D. Wilson’s disease
    E. Athetosis
A

B. Huntington Disease (?)

196
Q
  1. A neurologic disease of unknown cause that presents with multiple tics associated with snorting, sniffing and involuntary vocalization (often obscene):
    A. Parkinsonism
    B. Huntington Disease
    C. Tourette’s syndrome
    D. Wilson’s disease
    E. Athetosis
A

C. Tourette’s syndrome (?)

197
Q
  1. An inherited (autosomal recessive) disorder of copper accumulation in liver, brain, kidney and eyes; symptoms include jaundice, vomiting, tremors, muscle weakness, stiff movements, liver failure and demetia
    A. Parkinsonism
    B. Huntington Disease
    C. Tourette’s syndrome
    D. Wilson’s disease
    E. Athetosis
A

D. Wilson’s disease (?)

198
Q
  1. Strategies of drug treatment of parkinsonism involve which of the following?
    i. Increasing dopamine activity in the brain
    ii. Decreasing muscarinic cholinergic activity
    iii. Neuromuscular blockade
    iv. Increasing acetylcholine activity
    A. I only
    B. I and II
    C. II and III
    D. III only
    E. III and IV
199
Q
  1. Drug that does not cross the blood-brain barrier but inhibits dopa decarboxylase in peripheral tissues used in combination with levodopa for the treatment of parkinsonism
    A. Reserpine
    B. Selegeline
    C. Carbidopa
    D. Pramipexole
    E. Ropinirole
A

C. Carbidopa (?)

200
Q
  1. Non ergot which has high affinity for dopamine D3 receptor which is effective as monotherapy in mild parkinsonism and can be used together with levodopa in more advanced disease:
    A. Reserpine
    B. Selegeline
    C. Carbidopa
    D. Pramipexole
    E. Ropinirole
A

D. Pramipexole (?)

201
Q
  1. Dummy medicine containing no active ingredient (or alternatively, a dummy surgical procedure diet or other kind of therapeutic intervention), which the patient believes is (or could be, in the context of a controlled trial) the real thing.
    A. Prodrug
    B. Orphan drug
    C. Lead drug
    D. Placebo
    E. Experimental drug
A

D. Placebo (?)

202
Q
  1. To avoid bias, clinical trials are performed using the following study design, EXCEPT:
    A. Un-blinded study
    B. Controlled
    C. Randomized
    D. Double Blind
    E. B and C
203
Q
  1. Lethal dose for 50% of the population divided by effective dose for 50% of population is called:
    A. Meta-analysis
    B. Therapeutic range
    C. Therapeutic index
    D. Potency
    E. Efficacy
A

C. Therapeutic index (?)

204
Q
  1. All of the following are true regarding drug therapeutic index EXCEPT:
    A. Unsatisfactory as an measure of drug safety
    B. Based on animal toxicity data, which may not reflect forms of toxicity or adverse
    Reactions that are important clinically
    C. It takes no account of idiosyncratic toxic reactions
    D. Provided a measure of the margin of safety of a drug, by drawing attention to the relationship between the effective and toxic dose
    E. None of these
205
Q
  1. Refers to an eclectic group of drugs that are used for non-medical purposes. It includes drug of abuse to enhance athletic or other performance, as well as those taken for cosmetic purposes or for purely social reasons:
    A. Recreational drugs
    B. Non-medical drugs
    C. Prescription drugs
    D. Lifestyle drugs
    E. Performance drugs
A

A. Recreational drugs (?)

206
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indications but also be used for other ‘lifestyle’ purposes:
    A. Orlistat
    B. Minoxidil
    C. Alcohol
    D. Caffeine
    E. Cannabis
A

C. Alcohol (?)

207
Q
  1. Which of the following belongs to medicines approved for specific indication that can also be used to satisfy ‘lifestyle choices’ or to treat ‘lifestyle disease’
    A. Orlistat
    B. Minoxidil
    C. Alcohol
    D. Caffeine
    E. Cannabis
208
Q
  1. Used mainly to achieve rapid weight loss before weighing in and also to mask presence of other agents in urine by dilution:
    A. Anabolic agents
    B. Hormones and related agents
    C. Diuretics
    D. Stimulants
    E. Narcotic analgesics
A

C. Diuretics (?)

209
Q
  1. Anthelminthic drug that acts by inhibiting the polymerization of helminth B-tubulin, thus interfering with microtubule-dependent functions such as glucose uptake:
    A. Diethylcarbamazine
    B. Ivermectin
    C. Niclosamide
    D. Praziquantel
    E. Benzimidazoles
A

E. Benzimidazoles (?)

210
Q
  1. Anthelmintic drug act by changing the parasite such that it becomes susceptible to the host’s normal immune responses. It may also interfere with helminth arachidonate metabolism.
    A. Diethylcarbamazine
    B. Ivermectin
    C. Niclosamide
    D. Praziquantel
    E. Benzimidazoles
A

A. Diethylcarbamazine (?)

211
Q
  1. These class of antifungal agents inhibit the fungal cytochrome P450 3A enzyme, lanosine 14a-demethylase, which is responsible for converting lanosterol to ergosterol, the main sterol in the fungal cell membrane:
    A. Echinocandins
    B. Amphotericin
    C. Flucytosine
    D. Azoles
    E. Griseofulvin
A

D. Azoles (?)

212
Q
  1. These class of antifungal agents inhibit the synthesis of 1,3-B-glucan, a glucose polymer that is necessary for maintaining the structures of fungal cell walls. In the absence of this polymer, fungal cells lose integrity and lyse.
    A. Diethylcarbamazine
    B. Amphotericin
    C. Flucytosine
    D. Azoles
    E. Griseofulvin

PACOP VIOLET (9 decks)

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