Module 1: Organic Chemistry Flashcards

1
Q

Refer to the structure of a beta-lactam antibiotic

  1. The functional group attached to the acyl amino group is called a/an:
    A.) Phenoxyethyl
    B.) Isoxazoyl
    C.) Imidazole
    D.) Benzyl
    E.) Methoxypheny
A

Isoxazoyl

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2
Q

Refer to the structure of a beta-lactam antibiotic

  1. Halogen substituents are best placed in what position?
    A.) 1,2-substitution
    B.) 1,3-substitution
    C.) 1,4-substitution
    D.) Both A and B
    E.) Both A and C
A

1,2-substitution

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3
Q

Refer to the structure of a beta-lactam antibiotic

  1. This antibiotic is primarily indicated for what type of infection?
    A.) Klebsiella
    B.) Enterobacter
    C.) Pseudomonas
    D.) Staphylococci
    E.) Streptococci
A

Staphylococci

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4
Q

Refer to the structure of a beta-lactam antibiotic

  1. Adding more than 1 chloride atoms in the structure confers what modification on the pharmacokinetic profile of the drug?
    A.) Liberation
    B.) Absorption
    C.) Distribution
    D.) Metabolism
    E.) Excretion
A

Distribution

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5
Q

Refer to the structure of a beta-lactam antibiotic

  1. What is the role of chloride atoms in the structure?
    A.) Increase the susceptibility to penicillinase
    B.) Increasing the plasma concentration
    C.) Acid resistance property
    D.) Increase in parenteral absorption
    E.) Increase in oral absorption
A

Increasing the plasma concentration

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6
Q
  1. Preservatives like parabens increase their preservative property by
    A.) Reducing the parent compound
    B.) Decreasing molecular weight
    C.) Attaching a halogen to the parent compound
    D.) Substituting the parent compound with a lipophilic group
    E.) Increasing the molecular weight
A

Increasing the molecular weight

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7
Q
  1. Sodium pump is an example of
    A.) enzyme-linked tyrosine kinase receptor
    B.) G-protein coupled receptor
    C.) Ion- channel
    D.) Gene transcription-linked receptor
    E.) None of the above
A

Ion- channel

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8
Q
  1. This is an approach in drug discovery wherein there is already an existing drug that can be used to identify a new lead compound?
    A.) Random Screening
    B.) Molecular Docking
    C.) Parent compound modification
    D.) Biotechnology techniques
    E.) Rational Drug Design
A

Random Screening

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9
Q
  1. Azeotropic distillation of benzene is done in what concentration of ethanol?
    A.) 95%
    B.) 70%
    C.) 50%
    D.) 99%
    E.) 10%
A

99%

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10
Q
  1. Radical reactions may also proceed using this reagent
    A.) Bromine water
    B.) Hydrogen peroxide
    C.) Nitric acid
    D.) Sodium oxalate
    E.) Potassium bitartrate
A

Hydrogen peroxide

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11
Q

For numbers 11-14, refer to the series of the reaction

  1. What is the reagent needed for the first reaction?
    A.) NaOH/ Oxidizing agent
    B.) CH3 Cl/AlCl3
    C.) HNO3/H2SO4
    D.) NaOH/ Reducing agent
    E.) CH3Br/NaNH2
A

CH3Cl/AlCl3

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12
Q

For numbers 11-14, refer to the series of the reaction

  1. The product formed with the reaction is
    A.) Benzyl alcohol
    B.) Phenol
    C.) Benzoic acid
    D.) Xylene
    E.) Anisole
A

Benzoic acid

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13
Q

For numbers 11-14, refer to the series of the reaction

The reagent needed for the reaction to proceed is
A.) CH3Br/NaNH2
B.) NaOH/Reducing agent
C.) CH3COCl/AlCl3
D.) HNO3/H2SO4
E.) NaOH/ Oxidizing agent

A

HNO3/H2SO4

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14
Q

For numbers 11-14, refer to the series of the reaction

  1. The reagent needed for the reaction to proceed is
    A) NaOH/Oxidizing agent
    B) CH3Br/NaNH2/NO2
    C) H2O/H2SO4
    D) NaOH/Reducing agent
    E) NBS
A

NaOH/Reducing agent

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15
Q
  1. When a carbonyl group reacts with a secondary amine, what will be the resulting product?
    A.) Imine
    B.) Amide
    C.) Tertiary amine
    D.) Enamine
    E.) Secondary amine
A

Enamine

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16
Q
  1. The addition of hydrogen molecule to an alkene is catalyzed by what metal?
    A.) Silver
    B.) Palladium
    C.) Berrylium
    D.) Gallium
    E.) Osmium
A

Palladium

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17
Q
  1. Methoxybenzene is also known as _____
    A.) Anisole
    B.) Toluene
    C.) Aniline
    D.) Xylene
    E.) Anethole
A

Anisole

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following compounds can be use to synthesize primary alcohol?
    A.) Propane
    B.) Formaldehyde
    C.) 3-chloropentane
    D.) Acetone
    E.) Ethanamine
A

Propane

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following cephalosporin is excreted in bile?
    A.) Cefixime
    B.) Cefotaxime
    C.) Ceftriaxone
    D.) Moxalactam
    E.) Loracarbef
A

Ceftriaxone

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20
Q
  1. Preservatives use for molds
    A.) Ethylparaben
    B.) Methylparaben
    C.) Butylparaben
    D.) Propylparaben
    E.) Isopropylparaben
A

Methylparaben

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21
Q
  1. Which is true about drug absorption?
    I. For weakly acidic drug, it must e in its unionized form
    II. For weakly acidic drug, it must be in its ionized form
    III. For weakly basic drug, it must be in its unionized form
    IV. For weakly basic drug, it must be in its ionized form
    A.) I, II, III
    B.) I and III
    C.) II and IV
    D.) III and IV
    E.) I and III
A

I and III

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22
Q

Refer to the general structure of penicillin

  1. This anti-convulsant compound is susceptible to what metabolic pathway?
    A.) Aromatic hydroxylation
    B.) Methylation
    C.) Sulfate conjugation
    D.) Oxidative deamination
    E.) GSH conjugation
A

Aromatic hydroxylation

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23
Q

For numbers 24-26, refer to the general structure of penicillin

  1. Which of the following will confer resistance against beta lactamases when synthesizing analogs of penicillin?
    A.) Halogens
    B.) Ring deactivators
    C.) Electron withdrawing group
    D.) Bulky group
    E.) Ring activators
A

Bulky group

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24
Q

For numbers 24-26, refer to the general structure of penicillin

  1. What functional group is being modified if formulation into a salt is needed?
    A.) Amide
    B.) Carboxylic acid
    C.) Carbonyl
    D.) Alkyl
    E.) 225g
A

Carbonyl

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25
Q

For numbers 24-26, refer to the general structure of penicillin

  1. What is the functional group attached to the beta lactam ring?
    A.) Aryl amide
    B.) Acyl amide
    C.) Polyamide
    D.) Carboxyamide
    E.) Phenylamide
A

Aryl amide

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is true on ideal antiseptic?
    I. Low toxicity
    II. Sustained and rapid lethal action against microorganisms
    III. High surface tension
    IV. Non-irritating and non-allergenic
    A.) I, II, IV
    B.) III only
    C.) I, II, III, IV
    D.) II and III
    E.) III and IV
A

I, II, IV

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27
Q
  1. Aztreonam can elevate this enzyme
    A.) Creatinine kinase
    B.) Pyruvate kinase
    C.) Alanine aminotransferase
    D.) Creatinine phosphokinase
    E.) Thrombin
A

Alanine aminotransferase

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28
Q

For numbers 29-33, Refer to the structure of this antibacterial agent

  1. The functional group in the box is an additional chemical entity of this drug that makes it a prodrug, what is the probable reason of adding that moiety to the parent compound?
    A.) Increase in absorption
    B.) Increase in palatability
    C.) Decrease in Protein binding
    D.) Increase in solubility
    E.) Decrease in absorption
A

Increase in palatability

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29
Q

For numbers 29-33, Refer to the structure of this antibacterial agent

  1. The main functional group of this prodrug is a/an
    A.) Amide
    B.) Nitro
    C.) Alcohol
    D.) Ester
    E.) Acyl halide
A

Ester

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30
Q

For numbers 29-33, Refer to the structure of this antibacterial agent

  1. When the drug will undergo metabolism, which of the following enzymes will act on it?
    A.) Ligases
    B.) Hydrolases
    C.) Transferases
    D.) Isomerases
    E.) Lyases
A

Hydrolases

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31
Q

For numbers 29-33, Refer to the structure of this antibacterial agent

  1. When the drug is acted upon by different enzymes during its metabolism, what is/are the products?
    A.) Alcohol
    B.) Amide
    C.) Carboxylic acid
    D.) A and B
    E.) B and C
A

Amide

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32
Q

For numbers 29-33, Refer to the structure of this antibacterial agent

  1. This drug is an example of
    A.) Cell wall synthesis inhibitor
    B.) Cell membrane disruptor
    C.) Protein synthesis inhibitor
    D.) Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
    E.) Alkylating agent
A

Protein synthesis inhibitor

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33
Q
  1. The compound use to identify the partition coefficient in-vitro
    A.) Tert-butyl alcohol
    B.) Phenol
    C.) Isopentyl alcohol
    D.) N-octanol
    E.) Benzyl alcohol
A

N-octanol

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34
Q
  1. Isoniazid is metabolized by humans principally by
    A.) Acetylation
    B.) Deamination
    C.) Methylation
    D.) Conjugation
    E.) Oxidation
A

Deamination

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35
Q
  1. The total affinity of the ligand to its receptor
    A.) Intrinsic activity
    B.) Agonistic activity
    C.) Avidity
    D.) Antagonistic activity
    E.) Agonistic affinity
A

Avidity

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36
Q
  1. Dimethylbenzene is also known as
    A.) Anisole
    B.) Aniline
    C.) Xylene
    D.) Phenol
    E.) Ethylene
A

Xylene

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37
Q

For numbers 38-41, refer to the structure below

  1. The type of bond that exists in the structure
    A.) Amide bond
    B.) Ether bond
    C.) Tert-amine bond
    D.) Ester bond
    E.) Glycosidic bond
A

Amide bond

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38
Q

For numbers 38-41, refer to the structure below

  1. This compound may produce the following effects, except
    A.) Vasoconstriction
    B.) Bradycardia
    C.) Metallic taste
    D.) CNS depression
    E.) Sodium channel blockage
A

Vasoconstriction

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39
Q

For numbers 38-41, refer to the structure below

  1. The compound is an example of what class of drugs?
    A.) Anesthetic
    B.) Barbiturate
    C.) Sedatives
    D.) Analgesic
    E.) Anxiolytics
A

Anesthetic

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40
Q

For numbers 38-41, refer to the structure below

  1. The absorption of this compound is governed by what equation?
    A.) Noyes-Whitney equation
    B.) Fick’s Law of Diffusion
    C.) Beer’’s Law
    D.) Henderson-Hasselbalch equation
    E.) None of the above
A

Henderson-Hasselbach equation

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41
Q
  1. This compound is derived from the destructive distillation of castor oil and it is use as a keratolytic agent
    A.) Salicylic acid
    B.) Undecylanic acid
    C.) Benzoic acid
    D.) Chrysarobin
    E.) Propionic acid
A

Undecylanic acid

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42
Q
  1. The following are example of G protein coupled receptors, except
    A.) GABA receptors
    B.) Beta-2 receptors
    C.) Muscarinic receptors
    D.) Alpha -1 receptors
    E.) Beta -1 receptors
A

GABA receptors

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43
Q
  1. DNA Alkylating agent binds to its target by means of what bond?
    A.) Hydrogen bonding
    B.) Electrostatic bonding
    C.) Hydrophobic bonding
    D.) Ionic bonding
    E.) Covalent bonding
A

Covalent bonding

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44
Q
  1. In the presence of a full agonist, a partial agonist becomes
    A.) Agonist
    B.) Antagonist
    C.) Partial agonist
    D.) Inverse agonist
    E.) No effect
A

Antagonist

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45
Q
  1. A long-acting HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor
    A.) Rosuvastatin
    B.) Lovastatin
    C.) Fluvastatin
    D.) Simvastatin
    E.) Pravastatin
A

Rosuvastatin

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46
Q
  1. This is the most important CYP 450 isozyme that is responsible for the metabolism of almost 50% of the drugs available in the market
    A.) CYP 2D6
    B.) CYP 3A4
    C.) CYP 2A9
    D.) CYP 1A2
    E.) CYP 2D10
A

CYP 3A4

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47
Q
  1. A theory that advances the idea that maximum pharmacologic effect can be obtained if all the receptors are occupied
    A.) Hypothesis of Paton
    B.) Lock and Key Theory
    C.) Hypothesis of Clark
    D.) Induced fit theory
    E.) Hypothesis of Ariens & Stephenson
A

Hypothesis of Paton

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48
Q
  1. The anti-angina effect of nitrates is primarily due to the release of what gas?
    A.) Nitrous oxide
    B.) Dinitrogen oxide
    C.) Nitrogen dioxide
    D.) Nitric oxide
    E.) Dinitrogen dioxide
A

Nitric oxide

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49
Q
  1. Diuretic that acts on the distal convulated tubule
    A.) Indapamide
    B.) Furosemide
    C.) Ethacrinic acid
    D.) Acetazolamide
    E.) Spironolactone
A

Indapamide

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50
Q
  1. What is 1,4- dihydroxybenzene?
    A.) Catechol
    B.) Phenol
    C.) Xylene
    D.) Hydroquinone
    E.) Resorcinol
A

Hydroquinone

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51
Q
  1. Halogenation of alkanes is possible in what type of reaction?
    A.) Substitution
    B.) Elimination
    C.) Radical reactions
    D.) Addition
    E.) Combustion
A

Radical reactions

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52
Q
  1. Alkylation of aminobenzene will likely proceed to what position?
    A.) Ortho position
    B.) Meta position
    C.) Para position
    D.) Both A and B
    E.) Both A and C
A

Both A and C

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53
Q
  1. This is a derivative of two carboxylic acids, in which the compound is formed by the removal of one molecule of water in two RCOOH
    A.) Ether
    B.) Acid anhydride
    C.) Amide
    D.) Acyl halide
    E.) Ester
A

Acid anhydride

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54
Q

For numbers 55-58, Refer to the structure of Bricanyl®

  1. The drug is a derivative of
    A.) Catechol
    B.) Phenol
    C.) Xylene
    D.) Hydroquinone
    E.) Resorcinol
A

Resorcinol

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55
Q

For numbers 55-58, Refer to the structure of Bricanyl®

  1. The compound is not affected by which enzyme during its metabolism?
    A.) COMT
    B.) MAO
    C.) Carboxylases
    D.) Both A and B
    E.) Both A and C
A

COMT

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56
Q

For numbers 55-58, Refer to the structure of Bricanyl®

  1. The compound is a selective agonist of what receptor?
    A.) Alpha 1
    B.) M1
    C.) Beta 1
    D.) Beta 2
    E.) N1
A

Beta 2

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57
Q

For numbers 55-58, Refer to the structure of Bricanyl®

  1. The compound is used to manage
    A.) Hypertension
    B.) Asthma
    C.) Glaucoma
    D.) Arrhythmia
    E.) Hypotension
A

Asthma

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58
Q
  1. Benzene undergoes what type of reaction?
    A.) Nucleophilic substitution
    B.) Electrophilic addition
    C.) Electrophilic substitution
    D.) Radical reactions
    E.) Nucleophilic addition
A

Electrophilic substitution

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59
Q
  1. Which of the following carbocation intermediate is the most stable?
    A.) Primary
    B.) Secondary
    C.) Tertiary
    D.) Quarternary
    E.) None of the above
A

Tertiary

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60
Q
  1. Regioselectivity of an organic reaction in which the orientation of the substituents stabilizes the product is governed by
    A.) Le Chatelier’s Principle
    B.) Markovnikov’s Rule
    C.) Heck Reaction
    D.) Hund’s Rule
    E.) Pauli’s Principle
A

Markovnikov’s Rule

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61
Q
  1. An enol is not a stable compound because it undergoes
    A.) Electrophilic attack
    B.) Hydrophobic attack
    C.) Hydrophilic attack
    D.) Hydrogen shift
    E.) Tautomerization
A

Tautomerization

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62
Q

For numbers 63-66, refer to the structure of an anxiolytic drug

  1. The affinity of the drug to the ______ receptor exerts an anxiolytic and hypnotic effects
    A.) Glutamate
    B.) Histamine
    C.) Gamma-aminobutyric acid
    D.) Glycine
    E.) Dopamine
A

Gamma-aminobutyric acid

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63
Q

For numbers 63-66, refer to the structure of an anxiolytic drug

  1. The binding affinity of the compound to its receptor is highly influenced by_______ in its structure
    A.) Benzene ring
    B.) Chloro substituted benzene ring
    C.) Carbonyl moiety
    D.) Imidazole ring
    E.) Seven membered heterocyclic nitrogen ring
A

Chloro substituted benzene ring

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64
Q

For numbers 63-66, refer to the structure of an anxiolytic drug

  1. Increase the concentration of _______ ions in the cell makes this drug a sedative - hypnotic.
    A.) Calcium
    B.) Chloride
    C.) Phosphate
    D.) Potassium
    E.) Sodium
A

Chloride

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65
Q

For numbers 63-66, refer to the structure of an anxiolytic drug

  1. An essential moiety for this compound to exert its sedative hypnotic effect
    A.) Benzene ring
    B.) Chloro substituted benzene ring
    C.) Carbonyl moiety
    D.) Imidazole ring
    E.) Seven membered heterocyclic nitrogen ring
A

Seven membered heterocyclic nitrogen ring

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66
Q
  1. The acetylation of morphine yields
    A.) Codeine
    B.) Papaverine
    C.) Noscapine
    D.) Heroin
    E.) Thebaine
A

Heroin

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67
Q
  1. Primidone is a prodrug that is converted into
    A.) Entacapone
    B.) Diazepam
    C.) Phenobarbital
    D.) Carbamazepine
    E.) Aminophylline
A

Phenobarbital

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68
Q
  1. The structure of Zovirax is an analog of
    A.)Thymine
    B.) Adenine
    C.) Guanosine
    D.) Uracil
    E.) Cytosine
A

Guanosine

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69
Q
  1. What is the difference of the structure of Zovirax to the conventional Nucleic acid base?
    A.) It contains a ribose moiety
    B.) It contains a deoxyribose moiety
    C.) It contains an open sugar moiety
    D.) There is a substituted amino group
    E.) The hydroxyl group is not attached in the oxygen atom
A

It contains an open sugar moiety

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70
Q
  1. The structure of Zovirax® competitively inhibits what enzyme?
    A.) DNA polymerase
    B.) Reverse transcriptase
    C.) Ligase
    D.) RNA polymerase
    E.) Protease
A

DNA polymerase

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71
Q
  1. Zovirax® is effective against the strain of
    A.) Varicella
    B.) HSV
    C.) Vesicular Slomatitis Virus
    D.) All of the above
    E.) None of the above
A

All of the above

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72
Q
  1. In phenols, substitution at _______ position increases bactericidal activity
    A.) Ortho
    B.) Meta
    C.) Para
    D.) All of the above
    E.) None of the above
A

Para

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73
Q
  1. C3H6O can be a/an
    A.) Ketone
    B.) Ether
    C.) Aldehyde
    D.) Both A and B
    E.) Both A and C
A

Both A and B

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74
Q
  1. Zero order drug metabolism
    A.) Saturated Kinetics
    B.) Rate of metabolism is in constant concentration
    C.) Rate of metabolism is not over time due to the presence of enzymes
    D.) Dose dependent
    E.) Constant fraction of the drug is metabolize
A

Saturated Kinetics

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75
Q
  1. Carbamazepine undergoes what Phase I metabolism reaction?
    A.) Aromatic hydroxylation
    B.) Olefinic carbon oxidation
    C.) Oxidative deamination
    D.) Allylic carbon oxidation
    E.) Reduction of the - OH group
A

Olefinic carbon oxidation

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76
Q
  1. Thiopental is being converted into pentobarbital upon metabolism by what pathway?
    A.) Oxidation
    B.) Desulfuration
    C.) Dealkylation
    D.) Reduction
    E.) Direct amine conjugation
A

Desulfuration

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77
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about penciclovir?
    A.) The structure is similar to acyclovir, except with the side of oxygen which is replaced by a carbon and a hydroxyl group
    B.) Short half life in tissues compared to acyclovir
    C.) Competes for the viral RNA Polymerase and inhibits its synthesis
    D.) It acts as a chain terminator
    E.) All of the above
A

The structure is similar to acyclovir except with the side of oxygen which is replaced by a carbon and a hydroxyl group

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78
Q
  1. The first type of drugs for HIV to be available
    A.) NNRTI
    B.) NRTI
    C.) Entry inhibitors
    D.) Protease inhibitors
    E.) Integrase inhibitors
A

NRTI

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79
Q
  1. Which of the following HIV drugs is also used for Hepatitis B infection?
    A.) Azidothymidine
    B.) Saquinavir
    C.) Didanosine
    D.) Lamivudine
    E.) Efavirenz
A

Lamivudine

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80
Q
  1. Metabolic disorder is commonly seen in what type of HIV drugs?
    A.) Integrase inhibitors
    B.) Protease inhibitors
    C.) NNRTI
    D.) NRTI
    E.) Entry inhibitors
A

Protease inhibitors

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81
Q
  1. Acylation of the Ring II of aminoglycosides produces ______
    A.) Amikacin
    B.) Streptomycin
    C.) Tobramycin
    D.) Gentamicin
    E.) Kanamycin
A

Amikacin

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82
Q
  1. Coordination of what metal in tetracycline structure increases its activity?
    A.) Iron
    B.) Manganese
    C.) Cobalt
    D.) Palladium
    E.) Nickel
A

Palladium

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83
Q

Glycopeptides exert their mechanism of action via
A.) Inhibition of 30s ribosomal subunit
B.) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C.) Inhibition of 50s ribosomal subunit
D.) Inhibition of DNA gyrase
E.) Inhibition of cell membrane synthesis

A

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

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84
Q
  1. Which if the following cephalosporins can cross the blood brain barrier?
    A.) Cefprozil
    B.) Cefuroxime
    C.) Cefalexin
    D.) Cefmetazole
    E.) Cefazolin
A

Cefuroxime

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85
Q
  1. This agent is used to chelate copper in which an excess amount causes Wilson’s disease
    A.) EDTA
    B.) Dimercaprol
    C. Penicillamine
    D.) BAL
    E.) Deferoxamine
A

Penicillamine

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86
Q
  1. This class of penicillin contains a benzyl moiety that is responsible for its acid labile property
    A.) Penicillin V
    B.) Oxacillin
    C.) Piperacillin
    D.) Methicillin
    E.) Penicillin G
A

Penicillin G

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87
Q
  1. In the Freidles Craft Alkylation of Aromatic rings, what catalyst is needed for the reaction to proceed?
    A.) Lewis acid
    B.) Bronsted acid
    C.) Lewis base
    D.) Arrhenius base
    E.) Bronsted base
A

Lewis acid

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88
Q
  1. Sulfonamides are synthetic analogs of:
    A.) Gamma aminobutyric acid
    B.) Para amino benzoic acid
    C.) Tricarboxylic acid
    D.) Sulfonic acid
    E.) Carbolic acid
A

Para amino benzoic acid

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89
Q

Compounds with two or more chiral centers are termed as
A.) Epimers
B.) Enantiomers
C.) Stereoisomers
D.) Diastereomers
E.) Constitutiona Isomers

A

Diastereomers

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90
Q

For numbers 91-95, Refer to the structure below

  1. This drug may likely bind to what protein?
    A.) Albumin
    B.) Alpha glycoprotein
    C.) Ubuquitin
    D.) Globulin
    E. Bilirubin
A

Albumin

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91
Q

For numbers 91-95, Refer to the structure below

  1. What is the IUPAC name of the drug?
    A.) Octanoic acid
    B.) 2-propylpentanoic acid
    C.) 4-propylpentanoic acid
    D.) 1-butylbutanoic acid
    E.) 2-methylheptanoic acid
A

2-propylpentanoic acid

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92
Q

For numbers 91-95, Refer to the structure below

  1. This drug may likely affects what neurotransmitter?
    A.) GABA
    B.) Dopamine
    C.) Glutamate
    D.) Norepinephrine
    E.) Serotonin
A

GABA

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93
Q

For numbers 91-95, Refer to the structure below

  1. This drug affects what type of ion gated channel?
    A.) Sodium
    B.) Potassium
    C.) Calcium
    D.) Both A and B
    E.) Both A and C
A

Sodium

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94
Q

For numbers 91-95, Refer to the structure below

  1. This drug is a powerful _____
    A.) Antibiotic
    B.) Skeletal muscle relaxant
    C.) Antidepressant
    D.) Anticonvulsant
    E.) Antipsychotic
A

Anticonvulsant

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95
Q
  1. Insulin Receptors are classified as _______
    A.) Ion gated channel receptors
    B.) Tyrosine kinase receptors
    C.) G- protein coupled receptors
    D.) Gene transcription linked receptor
    E.) Nuclear receptor
A

Tyrosine kinase receptors

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96
Q

The efficacy of salicylic acid as well as its solubility in water as compared to p-hydroxybenzoic acid is greatly affected by what phenomenon?
A.) Dipole movement
B.) Common ion effect
C.) Hydrophobic interactions
D.) Hydrogen bonding
E.) Electrostatic forces

A

Hydrogen bonding

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97
Q

The inhibition of the CYP 450 dependent lanosterol 14-alpha demethylase is the main mechanism of action of?
A.) Ketoconazole
B.) Amphotericin B
C.) Azelaic acid
D.) Griseofulvin
E.) Nystatin

A

Ketoconazole

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98
Q

Alkylation of aminobenzene will likely proceed to what position?
A.) Ortho only
B.) Ortho and Meta
C.) Meta and Para
D.) Para only
E.) Ortho and Para

A

Ortho and Para

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99
Q

An aliphatic phenothiazine derivative
A.) Chlorpromazine
B.) Thiorizadine
C.) Fluphenazine
D.) Perphenazine
E.) Clozapine

A

Chlorpromazine

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100
Q

Decarboxylation of L- Dihydroxyphenylalanine produces
A.) Tyrosine
B.) Epinephrine
C.) Ephedrine
D.) Dopamine
E.) Norepinephrine

A

Dopamine

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101
Q

Drugs with superior lipid solubility usually possess what moiety?
A.) Oxygen
B.) Nitrogen
C.) Chlorine
D.) Sulfur
E.) Fluorine

A

Sulfur

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102
Q

For numbers 103-107, Refer to the synthesis of Aspirin below

The compound that reacts to salicylic acid to make aspirin is an example of a/an______
A.) Alcohol
B.) Ketone
C. Ether
D.) Acid anhydride
E.) Ester

A

Acid anhydride

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103
Q

For numbers 103-107, Refer to the synthesis of Aspirin below

The major product (Aspirin) is prone to hydrolysis, which of the following is/are the product/s of its hydrolysis
A.) Carboxylic acid
B.) Alcohol
C.) Ester
D.) Both A and B
E.) Both A and C

A

Both A and B

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104
Q

For numbers 103-107, Refer to the synthesis of Aspirin below

When aspirin has been hydrolyzed, one of its products produces a keratolytic property, what is that product?
A.) Salicylic acid
B.) Undecylenic acid
C.) Ester
D.) Methyl salicylate
E.) Alcohol

A

Salicylic acid

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105
Q

For numbers 103-107, Refer to the synthesis of Aspirin below

What is the functional group of the major product has been formed?
A.) Ether
B.) Alcohol
C.) Phenolic
D.) Carboxylic acid
E.) Ester

A

Ester

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106
Q

For numbers 103-107, Refer to the synthesis of Aspirin below

What is the color of the product when aspirin is treated with Ferric Chloride?
A.) Blue
B.) Violet
C.) Yellow
D.) Red
E.) Colorless

A

Yellow

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107
Q

Which of the following compounds can be used to synthesize secondary alcohols?
A.) Formaldehyde
B.) Ethanoic acid
C.) Propanone
D.) Ethyl ethanoate
E.) Tert-butylbromide

A

Propanone

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108
Q

The following drugs undergo acetylation reaction upon metabolism except
A.) Hydralazine
B.) Ethanol
C.) Isoniazid
D.) Procainamide
E.) Sulfanilamide

A

Ethanol

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109
Q

Mercury exhibits is antimicrobial action by
A.) Hydrolysis and protein denaturation
B.) Oxidation of sulfhydryl group
C.) Disruption of cytoplasmic membrane
D.) Inhibition of protein synthesis
E.) Protein denaturation inactivation of the bacterial enzyme

A

Protein denaturation inactivation of the bacterial enzyme

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110
Q

Which of the following antibiotics is derived from Streptomyces orientalis?
A.) Nystatin
B.) Bacitracin
C.) Vancomycin
D.) Amphotericin B
E.) Amikacin

A

Vancomycin

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111
Q

Diuretic that acts on the thick ascending limb (TAL)
A.) Indapamide
B.) Furosemide
C.) Acetazolamide
D.) Amiloride
E.) Mannitol

A

Furosemide

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112
Q

This is a butyrophenone derived antipsychotic agent that is frequently used for Tourette’s syndrome
A.) Clozaril
B.) Haldol
C.) Thorazine
D.) Daxolin
E.) Zoloft

A

Haldol

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113
Q

This compound is the basis of the synthesis of thiazide diuretics by treating with acylating agents
A.) Acetazolamide
B.) Dichlorphenamide
C.) Chloraminophenamide
D.) Methazolamide
E.) Indapamide

A

Chloraminophenamide

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114
Q

A non-prodrug ACE inhibitor
A.) Quinapril
B.) Captopril
C.) Fosinopril
D.) Enalapril
E.) Imidapril

A

Captopril

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115
Q

Compound such as Azithromycin possess the following characteristics, except
A.) Large lactone ring
B.) Ketone Group
C.) Ether group
D.) Alkyl group
E.) Glycosidically linked sugar

A

Ketone group

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116
Q

For numbers 116-119, Refer to the structure of Azithromycin

This class of antibiotic exerts its action by ________
A.) Binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria
B.) Inhibition of cell wall cross linking
C.) Inhibition of bacterial transpeptidation
D.) Binding to the 30s ribosomal subunit of bacteria
E.) Inhibition of Nucleic acid synthesis

A

Binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria

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117
Q

For numbers 116-119, Refer to the structure of Azithromycin

The preparation of Azithromycin is done by ______ of its analog.
A.) Acetylation
B.) Oxidation
C.) N-methylation
D.) Reduction
E.) Cross linking

A

N-methylation

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118
Q

For numbers 116-119, Refer to the structure of Azithromycin

The presence of a tertiary amine group in the compounds provides the following characteristics of
A.) Superior lipid solubility
B.) Increasing in plasma concentration
C.) Acid - labile property
D.) Stability to acid - catalyzed degradation
E.) Decreasing in plasma concentration

A

Acid - labile property

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119
Q

Theophylline is also known as ____
A.) 5,7- Dimethylxanthine
B.) 1,7- Dimethylxanthine
C.) 3,7- Dimethylxanthine
D.) 1,3- Dimethylxanthine
E.) 2,7- Dimethylxanthine

A

1,3- Dimethylxanthine

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120
Q

For numbers 121-123, Refer to the structure below

What functional group is attached to the primary amine moiety?
A.) Carboxyl
B.) Acetyl
C.) Benzyl
D.) Carbonyl
E.) Methyl

A

Acetyl

121
Q

For numbers 121-123, Refer to the structure below

The main group of this compound
A.) Phenolic
B.) Benzoic
C.) Amino
D.) Amide
E.) Hydroxyl

A

Phenolic

122
Q

For numbers 121-123, Refer to the structure below

The compound possess only minimal ________ property.
A.) Analgesic
B.) Anti-inflammatory
C.) Anti-asthma
D.)Antipyretic
E.) Anti-platelet

A

Anti-inflammatory

123
Q

The prototype narcotic analgesic
A.) Fentanyl
B.) Morphine
C.) Meperidine
D.) Codeine
E.) Naloxone

A

Morphine

124
Q

Cyclophosphamide belongs to what class of chemotherapeutic agents?
A.) Antimetabolites
B.) Antibiotics
C.) Alkylating agents
D.) Microtubule synthesis inhibitors
E.) None of the above

A

Alkylating agents

125
Q

The amino acid precursor of catecholamines
A.) Tryptophan
B.) Threonine
C.) Histidine
D.) Tyrosine
E.) Arginine

A

Tyrosine

126
Q

A nucleophile is a species that is rich in
A.) Protons
B.) Neutrons
C.) Radical
D.) Double bonds
E.) Electrons

A

Electrons

127
Q

These are functional macromolecules that undergo structural conformation when a substrate binds to it.
A.) Receptors
B.) Enzymes
C.) Ion channel
D.) Ligands
E.) Apienzymes

A

Receptors

128
Q

A drug with a pKa of 4.76 is likely to be excreted in what medium?
A.) Acidic
B.) Basic
C.) Neutral
D.) All of the above
E.) None of the above

A

Acidic

129
Q

The bond that connects the moieties of prilocaine is/ an
A.) Ester
B.) Amide
C.) Carbonyl
D.) Ether
E.) Amine

A

Ester

130
Q

For numbers 131-135, Refer to the structure of Adrenalin

The drug is derivative of ________
A.) Phenol
B.) Resorcinol
C.) Benzene
D.) Catechol
E.) Hydroquinone

A

Resorcinol

131
Q

For numbers 131-135, Refer to the structure of Adrenalin

The parent compound is highly susceptible to what type of metabolic reaction?
A.) Reduction
B.) Methylation
C.) Hydrolysis
D.) Oxidation
E.) Glycine conjugation

A

Methylation

132
Q

For numbers 131-135, Refer to the structure of Adrenalin

The compound is an endogenous substance in the body that functions as
A.) Neurotransmitters
B.) Enzyme
C.) Substrate
D.) Ligand
E.) Hormone

A

Hormone

133
Q

For numbers 131-135, Refer to the structure of Adrenalin

The compound is used to manage _______
A.) Tachycardia
B.) Shock
C.) Pain
D.) Stroke
E.) Coagulation

A

Shock

134
Q

For numbers 131-135, Refer to the structure of Adrenalin

What configuration of this compound possess a biological activity?
A.) S-isomer
B.) R-isomer
C.) Levo isomer
D.) Z- isomer
E.) E-isomer

A

R-isomer

135
Q

This product of arachidonic acid pathway is a potent platelet aggregator
A.) PGE
B.) LTC4
C.) HETE
D.) TXA2
E.) PGF

A

TXA2

136
Q

A compound with a molecular formula of C2H6O is most like to be a/a ______
A.) Alcohol
B.) Ether
C.) Ketone
D.) Both B and C
E.) Both A and B

A

Both A and B

137
Q

Sulbactam is usually combined with what antibiotic?
A.) Amoxicillin
B.) Methoxypenicillin
C.) Piperacillin
D.) Benzylpenicillin
E.) Ampicillin

A

Ampicillin

138
Q

Addition of alcohol to an alkene yields what product?
A.) Carboxylic acid
B.) Ether
C.) Alkane
D.) Ester
E.) Ketone

A

Ether

139
Q

Orthohydroxybenzoic acid is _____
A.) Carboxylic acid
B.) Oxalic acid
C.) Citric acid
D.) Salicylic acid
E.) Tartaric acid

A

Salicylic acid

140
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of this drug?
A.) Optic neuritis
B.) Gastrointestinal irritation
C.) Tachycardia
D.) Adrenal insufficiency
E.) Hypoglycemia

A

Gastrointestinal irritation

141
Q

In what enzyme does this drug acts?
A.) COX
B.) COMT
C.) LOX
D.) PLA
E.) MAO

A

COX

142
Q

Refer to the structure of Indocin

This drug can be used to treat patients with
A.) Acromegaly
B.) Patent ductus arteriosus
C.) Coagulation disorder
D.) Renal failure
E.) Asthma

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

143
Q

This drug may likely bind to what protein?
A.) Albumin
B.) Globulin
C.) Alpha glycoprotein
D.) All of the above
E.) None of the above

A

Albumin

144
Q

The drug is a derivative of what compound?
A.) Imidazole
B.) Xanthine
C.) Furan
D.) Piperidine
E.) Indole

A

Indole

145
Q

Name of this compound
A.) Pyran
B.) Indole
C.) Pyrrole
D.) Imidazole
E.) Furan

A

Furan

146
Q

This is the common name of p- hydroxy phenol
A.) Catechol
B.) Resorcinol
C.) Quinone
D.) Hydroquinone
E.) Benzoic acid

A

Hydroquinone

147
Q

Polyene anti-infectives exert their mechanism of action by
A.) Cell wall synthesis inhibition
B.) Inhibition of the 30s ribosomal subunit
C.) Cell membrane synthesis inhibition
D.) Inhibition of the 50s ribosomal subunit
E.) DNA synthesis Inhibition

A

Cell membrane synthesis inhibition

148
Q

Which of the drugs below exhibit auto-oxidation?
A.) Carbamazepine
B.) Sotalol
C.) Isoniazid
D.) Epinephrine
E.) Metformin

A

Carbamazepine

149
Q

A rare spiro chemical structure is observed in what antifungal drug?
A.) Amphothericin B
B.) Griseofulvin
C.) Tolnaftate
D.) Miconazole
E.) Azelaic acid

A

Griseofulvin

150
Q

Typical reaction of alkanes
A.) Nucleophilic addition
B.) Radical halogenation
C.) Elimination
D.) Electrophilic substitution
E.) Cyclization

A

Radical halogenation

151
Q

Secondary alcohols are oxidized into
A.) Aldehyde
B.) Esters
C.) Ketone
D.) Carboxylic acids
E.) Ethers

A

Ketone

152
Q

Which of the following diuretic inhibits an enzyme?
A.) Furosemide
B.) Thiazides
C.) Mannitol
D.) Indapamide
E.) Acetazolamide

A

Acetazolamide

153
Q

Acetylene has a geometrical configuration of
A.) Planar
B.) Octagonal
C.) Rhombic
D.) Tetrahedral
E.) Cubic

A

Planar

154
Q

A uricosuric agent used to prevent the rapid excretion of penicillin
A.) Sulindac
B.) Probenecid
C.) Colchicine
D.) Felbamate
E.) Lamotrigine

A

Probenecid

155
Q

Friedle - Crafts alkylation of benzene requires this catalyst
A.) Bronsted base
B.) Lewis acid
C.) Bronsted acid
D.) Arrhenius acid
E.) Lewis base

A

Lewis acid

156
Q

This is the property of carbon atom where it form bonds with other carbon atoms
A.) Covalent bonding
B.) Catenation
C.) Non- polar bonding
D.) Electronegativity
E.) Ionic bonding

A

Catenation

157
Q

Geometry of an sp3 hybridized orbital
A.) Rhombic
B.) Planar
C.) Tetrahedral
D.) Cubic
E.) Octagonal

A

Tetrahedral

158
Q

It is the strain occured when electrons in a C-H bond will repel the electrons in another C-H bond if the bonds get too close to each other
A.) Angular strain
B.) Torsional strain
C.) Equatorial strain
D.) Steric strain
E.) Axial strain

A

Torsional strain

159
Q

Lindlar’s catalyst is employed to produce a/an ______ from the reaction of H2 to an alkyne
A.) Ketone
B.) Alkene
C.) Amine
D.) Amide
E.) Alcohol

A

Alkene

160
Q

Predict the product of the reaction
A.) Ar-OCl
B.) Ar-OR
C.) Ar-Cl
D.) Ar-CO
E.) Ar-COR

A

Ar-COR

161
Q

Corticosteroids are protent Anti-inflammatory drugs because they inhibit which enzyme?
A.) Lipoxygenase
B.) Phospholipase
C.) Transferase
D.) Thromboxane
E.) Cyclooxygenase

A

Phospholipase

162
Q

G- protein coupled receptors are activated via these secondary messengers, except
A.) cAMP
B.) IP3
C.) DAG
D.) cGMP
E.) NO

A

NO

163
Q

An enol is not a stable compound because it undergoes
A.) Nucleophilic attack
B.) Hydrophobic interactions
C.) Hydrogen shift
D.) Tautomerization
E.) Hydrophilic attack

A

Tautomerization

164
Q

Which is the most stable conformation of cyclohexane
A.) Chair
B.) Boat
C.) Staggered
D.) Eclipsed
E.) Planar

A

Chair

165
Q

It is the strain put on a molecule when atoms or groups are too close to one another.
A.) Angular Strain
B.) Torsional Srain
C.) Equatorial Strain
D.) Steric Strain
E.) Axial Strain

A

Steric Strain

166
Q

An aliphatic phenothiazine derivative
A.) Chlorpromazine
B.) Fluphenazine
C.) Perphenazine
D.) Thioridazine
E.) Thiothixene

A

Chlorpromazine

167
Q

What is the prominent adverse effect of aminogycosides?
A.) Hepatotoxicity
B.) Cardiotoxicity
C.) Neurotoxicity
D.) Nephrotoxicity
E.) Dermal toxicity

A

Nephrotoxicity

168
Q

A theory that states that the effectiveness of the drug last as long as the receptors are occupied
A.) Hypothesis of Paton
B.) Lock and Key theory
C.) Hypothesis of Clark
D.) Induced fit theory
E.) Hypothesis of Ariens & Stephenson

A

Hypothesis of Ariens & Stephenson

169
Q

Bacitracin is not usually given parenterally because of its
A.) Insolubility
B.) Nephrotoxicity
C.) Pain on the administration site
D.) Lack of stability
E.) Lack of potency

A

Nephrotoxicity

170
Q

Which of the following medications would represents arthritis therapy that is least likely to cause gastric ulceration?
A.) Sulindac
B.) Rofecoxib
C.) Tolmetin
D.) Piroxicam
E.) Phenylbutazone

A

Rofecoxib

171
Q

Methylbenzene is also known as
A.) Anisole
B.) Toluene
C.) Aniline
D.) Xylene
E.) Anethole

A

Toluene

172
Q

Alkyl substituent that are bounded to the ____ carbons of an alkene have a stabilizing effect on the alkene.
A.) sp
B.) Tetrahedral
C.) sp2
D.) Octagonal
E.) sp3

A

sp2

173
Q

Reactions of terminal alkynes follow the ____ when it is treated with excess HCL/HBr
A.) Le Chatelier’s Principle
B.) Markovnikov’s rule
C.) Heck Reaction
D.) Hund’s Rule
E.) Pauli’s Principle

A

Markovnikov’s rule

174
Q

Addition of water to an alkyne leads to the formation of
A.) Alcohol
B.) Carboxylic acid
C.) Ketone
D.) Aldehyde
E.) Ester

A

Ketone

175
Q

Primary reaction of alkyl halides
A.) Nucleophilic addition
B.) Radical halogenations
C.) Elimination
D.) Electrophilic substitution
E.) Nucleophilic substitution

A

Nucleophilic substitution

176
Q

SN2 reaction is primarily observed in
A.) Secondary amines
B.) Tertiary alkyl
C.) Primary alkyl halides
D.) Primary alcohols
E.) All of the above

A

Primary alkyl halides

177
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal antiseptic agent?
A.) Low toxicity
B.) High surface tension
C.) Non-allergenic
D.) Low surface tension
E.) Sustained and rapid lethal action against microorganisms

A

High surface tension

178
Q

Which organism is the standard for determining the efficacy of alcohols as antiseptic?
A.) Streptococcus agalactiae
B.) Staphylococcus aureus
C.) Salmonella Typhi
D.) Hemophilus influenza
E.) Klebsiella pneumonia

A

Staphylococcus aureus

179
Q

This agent is prepared by sulfuric acid catalyzed hydration of propene
A.) Methoxypropane
B.) N-Propanol
C.) Isopropyl alcohol
D.) Propylene
E.) Propanoic acid

A

Isopropyl alcohol

180
Q

Chlorocresol is primarily used as
A.) Preservative
B.) Alkylating agent
C.) Astringent
D.) Sterilant
E.) Fungicidal

A

Preservative

181
Q

In the structure of cephalosporins, the beta lactam ring should have the ____ configuration that is essential for its activity
A.) Trans
B.) E
C.) Levo
D.) Dextro
E.) Cis

A

Cis

182
Q

Which of the following characteristics of the bicyclic ring system of penicillins is true?
A.) Strain is essential for greater activity
B.) Substitution of an alkyl group to the Hydrogen moiety in the beta lactam ring confers Greater efficacy
C.) The trans streochemistry in the beta lactam Ring ring confers greater efficacy
D.) Activity increases when the carboxylic acid Group is modified into an ester
E.) Sulfur is an essential atom in the bicycling Ring system

A

Strain is essential for greater activity

183
Q

Which of the following is true for hydrogen peroxide
A.) Active against aerobic microorganism
B.) Good only as topical agent
C.) Inactive for anaerobic microorganism
D.) Superior tissue penetrability
E.) Use as a preservative for heat sensitive chemicals

A

Good only as topical agent

184
Q

Which of the following exerts their action by distortion of cells and eventually causing lysis?
A.) Benzalkonium chloride
B.) Phenol
C.) Iodine
D.) Cresol
E.) Alcohol

A

Benzalkonium chloride

185
Q

Organism used as standard for the efficacy of phenol and its derivatives
A.) Streptococcus agalactiae
B.) Staphylococcus aureus
C.) Salmonella typhi
D.) Hemophilus influenzae
E.) Klebsiella pneumonia

A

Salmonella typhi

186
Q

Used to treat diaper rash in infants caused by Candida albbicans
A.) Methylbenzethonium chloride
B.) Thimerosal
C.) Ethylene oxide
D.) Chlorhexedine
E.) Methylene blue

A

Methylbenzethonium chloride

187
Q

Which of the following is used as a keratolytic agent?
A.) Thymol
B.) Resorcinol
C.) Eugenol
D.) Chlorocresol
E.)Hexachlorphene

A

Resorcinol

188
Q

Which of the following is the salt of Penicillin G?
A.) Potassium
B.) Calcium
C.) Sodium
D.) All of these
E.) None of these

A

All of these

189
Q

Saponification is the alkali hydrolysis of
A.) R-O-R
B.) R-COOR
C.) R-COOH
D.) R-OH
E.) Ar-OH

A

R-COOR

190
Q

Aminobenzene is also known as
A.) Anisole
B.) Toluene
C.) Aniline
D.) Xylene
E.) Anethole

A

Aniline

191
Q

This is a derivative of two carboxylic acids, in which the compound is formed by the removal of one molecule of water in two RCOOH
A.) Acyl halide
B.) Esters
C.) Alkyl halide
D.) Acid anhydride
E.) Ethers

A

Acid anhydride

192
Q

Saquinavir belongs to what group of HIV drugs?
A.) Nucleosides Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
B.) Protease Inhibitor
C.) RNA synthesis inhibitor
D.) Fusion inhibitor
E.) Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

A

Protease Inhibitor

193
Q

Dehydration of secondary alcohols yield
A.) Alkyne
B.) Alkane
C.) Ketone
D.) Alkene
E.) Alkyl halide

A

Alkene

194
Q

Thimerosal is a preservative that contains
A.) Hg
B.) Fe
C.) Co
D.) Ni
E.) Cu

A

Hg

195
Q

Imidazole nucleus is primarily found in what type of anti-infective agents?
A.) Antiseptics
B.) Antiviral
C.) Disinfectants
D.) Antimycobacterials
E.) Antifungal

A

Antifungal

196
Q

The receptor of steroidal hormones are primarily found in the____.
A.) Cell membrane
B.) Nucleus
C.) Ribosomes
D.) Cytoplasm
E.) Cell wall

A

Nucleus

197
Q

DNA alkylating agents binds to its target by means of what bond?
A.) Hydrophobic
B.) Ionic
C.) Covalent
D.) Electrostatic
E.) Hydrogen

A

Covalent

198
Q

Theobromine is also known as
A.) 5, 7 –Dimethylxanthine
B.) 1, 7 - Dimethylxanthine
C.) 3, 7- Dimethylxanthine
D.) 1, 3 – Dimethylxanthine
E.) 2, 7- Dimethylxanthine

A

3,7-Dimethylxanthine

199
Q

The following are the effects of protein binding, except
A.) Prevent rapid excretion of the drug
B.) Limits the amount available for the metabolism
C.) Decreases free drug molecules
D.) Decreases half-life of drugs
E.) None of the above

A

Decreases half-life of drugs

200
Q

This agent is used to chelate copper in which an excess amount causes Wilsson’s disease
A.) Deferoxamine
B.) EDTA
C.) Penicillamine
D.) BAL
E.) Dimercaprol

A

Penicillamine

201
Q

A paraben used to preserve the drug from molds
A.) Methylparaben
B.) Ethylparaben
C.) Propylparaben
D.) Butylparaben
E.) N-butylparaben

A

Methylparaben

202
Q

Reduction of Aldehydes yield
A.) Carboxylic acid
B.) Primary alcohols
C.) Ethers
D.) Ketones
E.) Secondary alcohols

A

Primary alcohols

203
Q

Alkenes have a general formula of
A.) CnH2n+1
B.) CnH2n+2
C.) CnH2n
D.) CnHn
E.) CnH2n-2

A

CnH2n

204
Q

In the presence of a full agonists, a partial agonist becomes _____
A.) Remained as partial agonist
B.) Antagonist
C.) Both agonist and antagonist
D.) Inverse agonist
E.) Full agonist

A

Antagonist

205
Q

These are substances that donate an electron pair

A.) Lewis acid
B.) Bronsted base
C.) Lewis base
D.) Arrhenius base
E.) Bronsted acid

A

Lewis base

206
Q

The following agents are used to treat hyperacidity and GI ulceration, except

A.) Cytotek
B.) Ranitidine
C.) Omeprazole
D.) Aripiprazole
E.) Maalox

A

Aripiprazole

207
Q

The amino acid precursor of serotonin

A.) Threonine
B.) Arginine
C.) Tyrosine
D.) Tryptophan
E.) Histidine

A

Tryptophan

208
Q

Dynacin® binds to the _____ ribsomal subunit

A.) 20s
B.) 30s
C.) 60s
D.) 40s
E.) 50s

A

30s

209
Q

Tagamet®
The heterocyclic ring in its structure is

A.) Indole
B.) Furan
C.) Pyran
D.) Pyridine
E.) Imidazole

A

Imidazole

210
Q

Tagamet®
This drug has a weak antiandrogenic effect, therefore, one of its adverse effects is :

A.) Gynecomastia
B.) Hirsutism
C.) Adrenaline crisis
D.) Flushing
E.) Cushing syndrome

A

Gynecomastia

211
Q

Tagamet®
This drug antagonize what receptor?

A.) Alpha 1
B.) Dopamine
C.) Muscarinic 3
D.) Histamine 1
E.) Beta 1

A

Histamine 1

212
Q
  1. The following molecules readily penetrate a variety of cells and tissues, Except

A.) Hydrophobic
B.) Non - ionized
C.) Hydrophilic
D.) Lipid soluble
E.) Non polar

A

Hydrophilic

213
Q

Active site directed irreversible inhibition is exhibited in what type of bond

A.) Electrostatic
B.) Van der Waals
C.) Hydrogen bonding
D.) Ionic
E.) Covalent

A

Covalent

214
Q

Aldomet®
This drug is an analog of what neurotransmitter?

A.) Norepinephrine
B.) Serotonin
C.) Glutamate
D.) GABA
E.) Histamine

A

Norephinephrine

215
Q

Aldomet®
This drug exerts effect as a _______

A.) Hydroxylase inhibitor
B.) Decarboxylase inhibitor
C.) Transferase inhibitor
D.) Carboxylase inhibitor
E.) Protease inhibitor

A

Decarboxylase inhibitor

216
Q

Aldomet®
This is primarily indicated for ______

A.) Cardiac failure
B.) Hypertension
C.) Muscle pain
D.) Aldosteronism
E.) Cushing syndrome

A

Hypertension

217
Q

A lipoxygenase enzyme inhibitor

A.) Montelukast
B.) Zileuton
C.) Cromolyn
D.) Zafirlukast
E.) Nedocromyl

A

Zileuton

218
Q

Luminal®
The compound may likely increase the concentration of ______ in the cell

A.) Sodium
B.) Calcium
C.) Magnesium
D.) Potassium
E.) Chloride

A

Chloride

219
Q

Luminal®
The compound has an affinity to what receptor?

A.) Glutamate
B.) Serotonin
C.) GABA
D.) Glycine
E.) Histamine

A

GABA

220
Q

Luminal®
The compound is used to treat what condition?

A.) Asthma
B.) Fungal infection
C.) Depression
D.) Convulsion
E.) Hypertension

A

Convulsion

221
Q

Luminal®
This compound resembles a/an

A.) Benzodiazepine
B.) Imidazole
C.) Barbiturates
D.) Indole
E.) Pyrrole

A

Barbiturates

222
Q

Gq receptors stimulates ________ that leads to increase in the intracellular calcium level

A.) Phospholipase
B.) Lipoxygenase
C.) DOPA Decarboxylase
D.) Carboxylase
E.) Cyclooxygenase

A

Phospholipase

223
Q

Cholestyramine confers what type of antagonism?

A.) Pharmacodynamic
B.) Chemical
C.) Physical
D.) Pharmacokinetic
E.) Physiological

A

Pharmacokinetic

224
Q

Dehydrated alcohol is prepared by the azeotropic distillation using what solvent?

A.) Toluene
B.) Pyridine
C.) Chloroform
D.) Benzene
E.) Hexane

A

Benzene

225
Q

Which of the following is the most effective?

A.) Tert-butyl alcohol
B.) N-decanol
C.) 3-hexanol
D.) Ethanol
E.) 4-pentanol

A

Ethanol

226
Q

Used in combination with camphor in liquid petrolatum

A.) P-Chlorophenol
B.) Eugenol
C.) Chlorhexidine
D.) Cresol
E.) Thymol

A

P-Chlorophenol

227
Q

Which of the following substituents increase the activity of phenol?

A.) Chlorine
B.) Sulfur
C.) Phosphorus
D.) Oxygen
E.) Nitrogen

A

Chlorine

228
Q

It induces cell proliferation (epithelial) leading to sloughing and repair

A.) Carbamide peroxide
B.) Hexylresorcinol
C.) Cetylpyridium chloride
D.) Chlorhexidine
E.) Benzoyl peroxide

A

Benzoyl peroxide

229
Q

Which of the following dyes is used as vaginal suppository?

A.) Methylene blue
B.) Malachite green
C.) Gentian violet
D.) Carbolfuchsin
E.) Bromocresol

A

Gentian violet

230
Q

Which of the following penicillin is prone to renal tubular secretion?

A.) Methicillin
B.) Pen G
C.) Carbenicillin
D.) Cloxacillin
E.) Ampicillin

A

Pen G

231
Q

The structure contains the salt of what amino acid?

A.) Alanine
B.) Valine
C.) Lysine
D.) Isoleucine
E.) Arginine

A

Valine

232
Q

The first type of drug released to treat HIV infection

A.) Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor
B.) Protease Inhibitor
C.) RNA synthesis inhibitor
D.) Fusion Inhibitor
E.) Non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

A

Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitor

233
Q

The ability of a substance to exist in different crystalline form

A.) Isomerism
B.) Lattice
C.) Crystallization
D.) Polymorphism
E.) Ampotherism

A

Crystallization

234
Q

The first step that determines the onset of action, rate of absorption and bioavailability

A.) Liberation
B.) Metabolism
C.) Elimination
D.) Absorption
E.) Distribution

A

Liberation

235
Q

Nevirapine is known to cause _______ for HIV patients with low CD4 count

A.) Renal failure
B.) Rash
C.) Mouth sore
D.) Vertigo
E.) Cardiomegaly

A

Rash

236
Q

Insulin preparation that is made of 70% crystalline and 30% amorphous form

A.) Humalin
B.) Insulin NPH
C.) Short acting insulin
D.) Insulin glargine
E.) Insulin Lispro

A

Insulin NPH

237
Q

Type of antagonism that forms a chelate/ complex

A.) Physical
B.) Pharmacokinetic
C.) Physiological
D.) Chemical
E.) Pharmacodynamic

A

Chemical

238
Q

Secondary messenger produced when adenyl cyclase is activated

A.) IP3
B.) DAG
C.) cAMP
D.) Both A and B
E.) Both B and C

A

cAMP

239
Q

The metabolic pathway is an example of

A.) Reductive elimination
B.) Oxidative deamination
C.) Reductive deamination
D.) Hydrolysis
E.) Oxidative dealkylation

A

Oxidative deamination

240
Q

This pathway is true for what kind of compounds?

A.) Endogenous radicals
B.) Endogenous amides
C.) Endogenous amino acids
D.) Endogenous amines
E.) None of these

A

Endogenous amines

241
Q

Which of the following is/are true regarding the phase I drug metabolism?

I. Also known as conjugation reaction
II. Includes oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis
III. Generally tends to provide a functional group or “handle” to the molecule

A.) I only
B.) I, II, III
C.) II only
D.) II and III
E.) I and III

A

II and III

242
Q

Biogenic amines are inactivated primarily by

A.) Oxidation
B.) Methylation
C.) GSH conjugation
D.) Sulfate conjugation
E.) Reduction

A

Methylation

243
Q

Which of fhe following is /are true regarding phase II drug metabolism?

I. Allows the attachment of small, polar and ionizable endogenous compounds
II. Allows the termination or attenuated of a biologic activity
III. Serves to protect the body against chemically reactive compounds or metabolites

A.) II and III
B.) I, II, III
C.) I only
D.) I and II
E.) III only

A

I, II, III

244
Q

Which of the following can be used to synthesize methyl orange?

A.) Methyl alcohol
B.) Toluene
C.) Benzyl chloride
D.) Sulfanilic acid
E.) Ammonium nitrite

A

Sulfanilic acid

245
Q

Which of the following compounds is considered as a chromophore?

A.) Nitro
B.) Butyl
C.) R-O-R
D.) R-OH
E.) Cyclohexane

A

Nitro

246
Q

Which of the following catalyst is required for the synthesis of an ester

A.) HBr
B.) CH3Cl
C.) NH4NO3
D.) H2SO4
E.) CCl4

A

H2SO4

247
Q

Which of the following form is the stable?

A.) Tertiary carbocation
B.) Primary carbanion
C.) Primary carbocation
D.) Methyl radical
E.) Secondary carbocation

A

Tertiary carbocation

248
Q

Which of the following reagents can be used to solubilize phenol in water?

A.) HCl
B.) NaOH
C.) CH2Cl2
D.) HBr
E.) NH2CONH2

A

NaOH

249
Q

Ethanol is identified by this reagent in its confirmatory test

A.) Ammonium cyanide
B.) Phosphomolybdic acid
C.) Aluminum chloride
D.) Potassium perchlorate
E.) Sodium nitroprusside

A

Sodium nitroprusside

250
Q

Violet color result with ferric chloride is commonly observed in

A.) Aspirin
B.) Phenol
C.) Propylamide
D.) Benzene
E.) Acetic acid

A

Phenol

251
Q

Benzoic acid can be obtained from toluene by means of what process?

A.) Reduction
B.) Substitution
C.) Oxidation
D.) Elimination
E.) Conjugation

A

Oxidation

252
Q

Which of the following compounds inhibits squalene oxidase?

A.) Tolnaftate
B.) Undecylanic acid
C.) Natamycin
D.) Ketoconazole
E.) Benzoic acid

A

Tolnaftate

253
Q

Inhibition of the production of folic acid is the mechanism of action of

A.) Griseofulvin
B.) Sulfamethoxazole
C.) Norfloxacin
D.) Nystatin
E.) Nalidixic acid

A

Sulfamethoxazole

254
Q

Polyene antifungals bind to ______ to promote ion leakage resulting to fungal death

A.) Microtubules
B.) DNA
C.) Cell wall
D.) Ribosomes
E.) Ergosterol

A

Ergosterol

255
Q

The second synthetic analog of Benzylpenicillin

A.) Phenoxymethylpenicillin
B.) Methicillin
C.) Oxacillin
D.) Ampicillin
E.) Cloxacillin

A

Methicillin

256
Q

The subtype of the CYP 450 enzyme system responsible for genetic polymorphism

A.) CYP 1A2
B) CYP 2A9
C.) CYP 2D6
D.) CYP 1A9
E.)CYP 3A4

A

CYP 2D6

257
Q

The spectrum of activity of penicillin is governed by what functional group?

A.) Beta lactam ring
B.) Carbonyl group
C.) Acyl amine group
D.) Carboxylic acid group
E.) Thiazolidine ring

A

Acyl amine group

258
Q

The functional group attached to the acyl amino group is called a/an

A.) Benzyl
B.) Isoxazoyl
C.) Phenoxymethyl
D.) Phenyl
E.) Methoxyphenyl

A

Isoxazoyl

259
Q

What is the role of chloride atoms in the structure?

A.) Increase the susceptibility to penicillinase
B.) Increase the plasma concentration
C.) Increase in parenteral absorption
D.) Acid resistance property
E.) Increase spectrum of activity

A

Increase the plasma concentration

260
Q

Halogen substituents are best placed in what position?

A.) Ortho
B.) Meta
C.) Para
D.) All of the above
E.) None of the above

A

Ortho

261
Q

Adding more than 1 chloride atom in the structure confers what modification on the pharmacokinetic profile of the drug?

A.) Liberation
B.) Absorption
C.) Excretion
D.) Distribution
E.) Metabolism

A

Distribution

262
Q

This antibiotic is primarily indicated for what type of infection?

A.) Enterobacter
B.) Streptococci
C.) Pseudomonas
D.) Klebaiella
E.) Staphylococci

A

Staphylococci

263
Q

Functional group of the beta - lactam ring

A.) Ether
B.) Ketone
C.) Amide
D.) Amine
E.) Carbonyl

A

Amide

264
Q

This compound is insoluble in what medium?

A.) Water
B.) Alcohol
C.) Ether
D.) Carbon tetrachloride
E.) Benzene

A

Water

265
Q

Refer to the structure of a phenol derivative compound

This compound is active against _______ organism

A.) Gram positive
B.) Acid fast
C.) Aerobic
D.) Facultative anaerobe
E.) Gram negative

A

Gram positive

266
Q

This compound has a greater potency of action due to the presence of what group?

A.) Alkyl
B.) Halogen
C.) Phenolic
D.) Biphenyl
E.) Hydroxyl

A

Phenolic

267
Q

This preparation is to be delivered in what route?

A.) Intramuscular
B.) Intradermal
C.) Topical
D.) Subcutaneous
E.) Intravenous

A

Topical

268
Q

The compound is commonly known as

A.) Hexetidine
B.) Hexachlorophene
C.) Chlorocresol
D.) Chlorhexidine
E.) Chlorophenol

A

Hexachlorophene

269
Q

Second generation cephalosporin that can cross the blood brain barrier

A.) Cefamandole
B.) Cefprozil
C.) Cefuroxime
D.) Cefaclor
E.) Loracarbef

A

Cefuroxime

270
Q

Compounds that will kill or inhibit the growth of, in a living tissue

A.) Disinfectant
B.) Antibiotic
C.) Antiseptic
D.) Preservativs
E.) Sterilant

A

Antiseptic

271
Q

It is the characteristics of a substance that gives its ability to spread into wounds.

A.) High viscosity
B.) Low zeta potential
C.) High partition coefficient
D.) Low surface tension
E.) High pH

A

Low surface tension

272
Q

Tigemonam is primarily administered in what route?

A.) IV
B.) Subq
C.) Topical
D.) IM
E.) PO

A

PO

273
Q

Redman syndrome is seen in

A.) Telavancin
B.) Chloramphenicol
C.) Imipenem
D.) Teicoplanin
E.) Vancomycin

A

Vancomycin

274
Q

Preservative in BCG Vaccine

A.) Nitromersol
B.) Thimerosal
C.) Benzalkonium chloride
D.) Methylparaben
E.) Sodium benzoate

A

Thimerosal

275
Q

Metabolism of alcohol is a series of

A.) Reduction
B.) Methyl transfer
C.) Glycine conjugation
D.) GSH conjugation
E.) Oxidation

A

Oxidation

276
Q

Dye used to treat the inflammation of the bladder

A.) Methylene blue
B.) Malachite green
C.) Gentian violet
D.) Carbolfuchsin
E.) Bromocresol

A

Methylene blue

277
Q

Cephalosporin
Which moiety in the structure binds to the PBP?

A.) Amide group
B.) Carboxy group
C.) Dihydrothiazine group
D.) Carbonyl group
E.) Acyl amino

A

Amide group

278
Q

Cephalosporin
The R3 substituent confers the following properties, except

A.) Salt form
B.) Drug interaction
C.) Protein binding
D.) Chemical stability
E.) Pharmacological property

A

Pharmacological property

279
Q

Cephalosporin
The R7 substituent is importantin _______

A.) Spectrum of activity
B.) Classification of generation
C.) Synthesis of a newer version
D.) All of these
E.) None of these

A

All of these

280
Q

Cephalosporin
Substitution of a bulky group in the X substituent confers

A.) Acid labile property
B.) Increase in metabolism
C.) Decrease in GFR
D.) Increase in gram negative activity
E.) Decrease in protein binding

A

Increase in gram negative activity

281
Q

Aztreonam can elevate this enzyme

A.) Creatinine kinase
B.) Alanine aminotransferase
C.) Beta amylase
D.) Angiotensin I
E.) Pyruvate kinase

A

Alanine aminotransferase

282
Q

This group attached to the naphthalene group of nafcillin confers beta lactamase resistance

A.) Dichlorobenzene
B.) Ethoxy
C.) Benzyl
D.) Isoxazoyl
E.) Phenyl

A

Ethoxy

283
Q

Acylation of the amino group in the second ring of aminoglycosides produces ______

A.) Kanamycin
B.) Streptomycin
C.) Neomycin
D.) Gentamicin
E.) Amikacin

A

Amikacin

284
Q

This is the target site of HIV

A.) CD8
B.) CCR5
C.) CD4
D.) CD32
E.) CD28

A

CD4

285
Q

Antitubercular drug that is in combination with pyridoxine

A.) Isoniazid
B.) Ethambutol
C.) Rifampicin
D.) Pyrazinamide
E.) Streptomycin

A

Isoniazid

286
Q

The chances of methemoglobinemia and haemolytic anemia are higher when administering :

I. Acetaminophen
II. Phenacetin
III. Acetanilide

A.) I only
B.) I and II only
C.) II and III only
D.) I, II and III
E.) III only

A

II and III only

287
Q

This agent is the least active among all fluoroquinolones

A.) Norfloxacin
B.) Levofloxacin
C.) Ofloxacin
D.) Ciprofloxacin
E.) Gatifloxacin

A

Norfloxacin

288
Q

Inhibits the enzyme which is responsible for the assembly of matured viral particles

A.) Didanosine
B.) Zidovudine
C.) Indinavir
D.) Abacavir
E.) Lamivudine

A

Indinavir

289
Q

This antifungal drug is derived from Ricinus communis

A.) Undecylenic acid
B.) Ricinoleic acid
C.) Salicylic acid
D.) Ricin
E.) Propionic acid

A

Undecylenic acid

290
Q

Which of the following is unstable in acidic condition?

A.) Ampicillin
B.) Methicillin
C.) Phenoxymethylpenicillin
D.) Nafcillin
E.) Carbenicillin

A

Carbenicillin

291
Q

Carbamazepine undergoes what metabolic pathway?

A.) Aromatic hydroxylation
B.) Olefinic oxidation
C.) Reductive elimination
D.) Oxidative N-dealkylation
E.) Desulfuration

A

Olefinic oxidation

292
Q

To Prepare beta-lactamase resistant penicillin, one should use

A.) The aromatic ring that is directly attached to the side-chain carbonyl and both ortho positions should be substituted by methoxy groups.
B.) The aromatic ring that is directly attached to the side - chain carbonyl and ortho and para positions should be substituted by methoxy groups.
C.) The aromatic ring that is directly attached to the side - chain carbonyl and meta and para positions should be substituted by methoxy groups.
D.) A methylene between the aromatic ring and carbonyl group of side chain
E.) None of the above

A

The aromatic ring that is directly attached to the side-chain carbonyl and both ortho positions should be substituted by methoxy groups

293
Q

Triethylenephosphoramide is an active metabolite of

A.) Procarbazine
B.) Camustine
C.) Thiotepa
D.) Ifosfamide
E.) None of the above

A

Thiotepa

294
Q

Which of the following preparations contains 2% iodine in sodium iodide?

A.) Iodine solution
B.) Lugol’s solution
C.) Povidone-iodine
D.) Iodine tincture
E.) None of the above

A

Iodine solution

295
Q

Which of the following belongs to the class of echinocandins?

A.) Caspofungin
B.) Griseofulvin
C.) Naftiline
D.) Ampothericin B
E.) Nystatin

A

Caspofungin

296
Q

Concentration of dehydrated alcohol

A.) 95%
B.) 49%
C.) 99%
D.) 70%
E.) 10%

A

99%

297
Q

An acy ureidopenicillin

A.) Piperacillin
B.) Carbenicillin
C.) Methicillin
D.) Ticarcillin
E.) Cloxacillin

A

Piperacillin

298
Q

Chemically known as 5-methyl-3-phenyl-4-isoxazoyl penicillin

A.) Nafcillin
B.) Ticarcillin
C.) Oxacillin
D.) Methicillin
E.) Mezlocillin

A

Oxacillin

299
Q

Synthesis of Orange II Dihydrate is possible via

A.) Freidel-Crafts Acylation
B.) Diazotization
C.) Elimination
D.) Electrophilic aromatic substitution
E.) Nucleophilic addition

A

Diazotization