Module 3: Hospital Pharmacy Flashcards
Which of the following is NOT included in the treatment algorithm for allergic rhinitis?
A. Implement appropriate environmental controls.
B. Consider Cromolyn if with sneezing, itching and rhinorrhea.
C. Administer intranasal steroids if with sneezing, itching, rhinorrhea, and nasal congestion.
D. Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and ocular symptoms.
E. If symptoms still not controlled, consider Montelukast.
Give intranasal anticholinergics if with sneezing and ocular symptoms
Clinical presentation of Acute Renal Failure includes:
A. Edema
B. Orthostatic Hypotension
C. Foamy urine
D. A, B, C
E. A and B
A, B, C
Nail and nail beds are evaluated for which of the following?
A. Clubbing
B. Cyanosis
C. Trauma
D. All of these
E. None of these
All of these
Why is the Rinne Test performed?
A. To assess equilibrium.
B. To hearing acuity of high-frequency sounds.
C. To evaluate hearing in a person who hears better in one ear than in the other.
D. To compare air and bone conduction.
E. All of these
D. To compare air and bone conduction
Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is an example of a:
A. Excoriation
B. Lichenification
C. Millium
D. Nevus
E. Bulla
Bulla
Method of assessing the sinuses:
A. Inspection
B. Percussion
C. Transillumination
D. Expression
E. Auscultation
Transillumination
Which body position allows longer retention times for enemas?
A. Lithotomy
B. Supine
C. Sitting
D. Erect
E. Prone
Supine
Grade for hepatic encephalopathy with experience of drowsiness and grossly impaired calculation ability.
A. Grade 0
B. Grade 1
C. Grade 2
D. Grade 3
E. Grade 4
Grade 2
The following are factors that may exacerbate established chronic renal failure, EXCEPT:
A. Hypotension
B. Prostatic hypertrophy
C. Increased renal blood flow
D. Nephrotoxins
E. Hypertension
Increased renal blood flow
Another term for nearsightedness:
A. astigmatism
B. hyperopia
C. exophthalmos
D. Presbyopia
E. Myopia
Myopia
Which of the following may cause “hairy tongue”?
A. Hypercholesterolemia
B. Antibiotic therapy
C. Measles
D. Liver disease
E. Aging
Antibiotic therapy
Which strategy may be advised to a patient who considers Beta blockers unpleasant to take?
A. Change the dosage regimen.
B. Consider verapamil.
C. Encourage patient to use regularly.
D. A and B
E. All of these
All of these
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Captopril?
A. Taken once daily.
B. First-dose hypotension may occur
C. May worsen renal failure
D. Cough and taste disturbance may occur
E. Hyperkalemia may be expected
Taken once daily
The following drugs may increase anticoagulant effect, EXCEPT:
A. Ketoconazole
B. Estrogen
C. Gemfibrozil
D. Erythromycin
E. Zafirlukast
Estrogen
Drug-induced bronchospasm due to reflex bronchoconstriction:
A. Pilocarpine
B. Aspirin
C. Lactose dry powder
D. Direct percussion
E. Timolol
Lactose dry powder
Physical assessment technique of creating a note by tapping a finger placed on the body:
A. Palpation
B. Auscultation
C. Ballotement
D. Direct percussion
E. Indirect percussion
Indirect percussion
Koilonychia is due to deficiency of ___________?
A. Iron
B. Vitamin B12
C. Calcium
D. Water
E. Vitamin C
Iron
Example of a Scale skin lesion:
A, Hives
B. Dandruff
C. Measles rash
D. Mouth sore
E. Wart
Dandruff
Which benzodiazepine is LEAST to be used among elderly patients?
A. Diazepam
B. Oxazepam
C. Alprazolam
D. Lorazepam
E. Clonazepam
Diazepam
First-line treatment for Myoclonic seizures:
A. Phenobarbital
B. Acetazolamide
C. Phenytoin
D. Valproate
E. Topiramate
Valproate
A patient is diagnosed with parkinsonian syndrome if patient has bradykinesia, plus one or more of the following:
A. Classic rest tremor
B. Muscular rigidity
C. Postural instability
D. B and C
E. A, B, and C
A, B, and C
These are orders for in-patients in hospitals and other institutions written by physicians on forms:
A. Physician’s Order Sheet
B. Prescription
C. Medication Order
D. Recipe
E. Patient’s Chart
Medication Order
The following are types of information under social/ economic database, EXCEPT:
A. Daily activities
B. Ethnic background
C. Living arrangement
D. Sexual history
E. A and D
A and D
“Health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.” This condition is according to which model?
A. Environmental model
B. Wellness model
C. World Health Organization model
D. Medical model
E. All of these
World Health Organization model
Patients of psychiatric conditions usually stay in which type of hospital?
A. Non-governmental
B. General
C. Long-term
D. 400-499 bed-capacity
E. Short-term
Long-term
Which function of the hospital is geared towards the improvement of hospital services and advancement of medical knowledge against disease?
A. Research
B. Wellness
C. Education
D. Patient care
E. Expansion
Research
Type of questioning: “What medication do you take for a headache?”
A. Direct Questioning
B. Indirect Questioning
C. Probing
D. Open-ended
E. Close-ended
Direct Questioning`
“Spell WORLD backwards” is an example of a test for what area of mental state?
A. Orientation
B. Attention
C. Recall
D. Registration
E. Language
Attention
Which information is under the Demographic database?
A. Patient Identification Number
B. Physician and prescribers
C. Occupation
D. Personality type
E. Ethnic background
Occupation
Volunteer service belongs to which department in the hospital?
A. Pharmacy service
B. Medical Library
C. Business office
D. Medical Social Service
E. Administrative
Medical Social Service
When using the standardized outline approach, which of the following is NOT followed when writing Progress Notes?
A. Subjective data
B. Objective data
C. Recommendation
D. Impression
E. None of these
None of these
The question “Are agents available in commercial formulation?” represents which request classification for drug information?
A. Adverse Drug Reaction
B. Availability
C. Compounding/ Formulation
D. Identification
E. Compatibility/ Stability
Compounding/Formulation
When looking for information regarding method of administration, which of the following drug information sources may be the most useful?
A. Drug Facts and Comparisons
B. RPS
C. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics
D. Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
E. USP DI
Drug Facts and Comparisons
If the answer to the question “Do you cough up blood?” is negative, which of the following is to be noted that the patient denied of?
A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
B. Hemoptysis
C. Shortness of breath
D. Exertional SOB
E. Rales
Hemoptysis
This is an important tool for assuring the quality of drug use and controlling its cost in an institution such as the hospital.
A. Essential drug list
B. Formulary system
C. Formulary
D. P&T Committee
E. Core list
Formulary system
A facility where ambulatory patients are seen for appointments and treated by a group of physicians practicing together.
A. Long-term health care facility
B. Clinic
C. Hospital
D. County hospital
E. Resident treatment facility
Clinic
Which of the following belongs to the business management or administrative side of the hospital?
A. Medical Records
B. Medical Library
C. Biomedical Engineering
D. Pharmacy Service
E. Dietary and Nutrition Service
Biomedical Engineering
Which of the following statements regarding questioning strategies for the pharmacist-patient encounter is CORRECT?
A. Probing questions are assertive and aggressive.
B. Precise information may be obtained using the close-ended questions.
C. Open-ended questions are for narrow-focused answers.
D. Direct questions encourages patient to elaborate.
E. All except A
Precise information may be obtained using the close-ended questions.
Which of the following body areas is last in the sequence followed for physical examination?
A. HEENT
B. Genitals
C. Rectum
D. Neurogical System
E. Lower extremities
Neurological System
The USP contains nomograms for estimating body surface area (BSA) for both children and adults. Which of the following measurements must be known in order to use the nomogram?
A. Age and height
B. Age and weight
C. Height and creatinine clearance
D. Height and weight
E. Weight and sex
Height and weight
Which of the following is a comprehensive, unbiased source of current information on drugs often used as hospital nursing stations, and serves as a basis for pharmacists to extend their role as pharmaceutical consultants to the medical profession?
A. Minimum Standard for Pharmacies in Hospitals
B. Mirror to Hospital Pharmacy
C. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts
D. American Journal of Health-System Pharmacy
E. Drug Information
Drug information
Which class of stock system consists of a predetermined list of medications that are usually used in large quantities and are prepackaged in standardized containers?
A. Unit-dose system
B. Charge floor stock
C. Free floor stock
D. Inpatient prescription system
E. Coordinated control system
Free floor stock
Aside from Policy Development, what is the other primary purpose of the P & T committee?
A. Operation
B. Organization
C. Community Health
D. Education
E. Drug Administration
Education
Water for injection is an example of drugs dispensed in which type of stock system?
A. Unit dose system
B. Charge floor stock
C. Free floor stock
D. Inpatient prescription system
E. Coordinated control system
Free floor stock
Which of the following drug information may not be found in Physician’s Desk Reference?
A. Lactation
B. Drug of choice
C. ADR
D. Dosage
E. Product availability
Drug of choice
Which of the following journals cover medical news and original articles?
A. Drug Information Journal
B. Archives of Internal Medicine
C. New England Journal of Medicine
D. Medical Letter
E. Annals of Pharmacotherapy
Medical Letter
Which of the following describes a medium intensity of feeling, which can be used in a medical interview?
A. Marvelous
B. Upset
C. Distraught
D. Blue
E. Gloomy
Gloomy
The following statements regarding arterial blood gases are true, EXCEPT:
A. Alveolar hyperventilation if PaCo2 <4.5 kPaB.
Oxygen saturation is measured by pulse oximetry
C. Alveolar ventilation may regulate PaCO2
D. Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation.
E. Arterial oxygen tension < 12 kPa may indicate hypoxaemia
Low PaCO2 implies alveolar hypoventilation.
Which term refers to a decreased number of cell types is synonymous with aplastic anemia?
A. Microcytic
B. Pancytopenia
C. Aplastic
D. Thrombocytopenia
E. Neutrophilia
Pancytopenia
Which of the following is an invasive test or procedure?
A. Insertion of a central venous catheter
B. Taking of chest x-ray films
C. Collection of spontaneously voided urine
D. Comparative measurements of body parts
E. All except B
Insertion of a central venous catheter
Which one of the following uses high frequency sound waves imperceptible to the human ear to create images of organs?
A. Standard Radiography
B. Echocardiography
C. Echography
D. Echocardiogram
E. Radionuclide studies
Echography
Sexual history is under what patient information type/ section?
A. Demographic
B. Medical
C. Social
D. Behavioral
E. Administrative
Behavioral
Assessment of pancreatic function may be determined by the following, EXCEPT:
A. Glucose
B. Amylase
C. Thyroxine
D. Insulin
E. None of these
Thyroxine
Mini-mental status exam (MMSE) is an example of what data type?
A. Subjective
B. Objective
C. Assessment
D. Plan
E. Either A or B
Objective
Which one of the following is useful in the diagnosis and monitoring of liver disease?
A. Amylase
B. Hematocrit
C. Hemoglobin
D. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
E. Bilirubin
Bilirubin
What color of the stool is generally associated with upper gastrointestinal tract bleeding?
A. Black
B. Gray
C. Light Gray
D. Brown
E. Red
Black
Which one of the following may indicate longer prothrombin time?
A. Hepatic dysfunction
B. Increased Vitamin K
C. Increased production of clotting factors
D. All of these
E. None of these
Hepatic dysfunction
Which of the following is TRUE regarding patient chart preparation?
A. Abbreviations of any kind should not be used.
B. Write in ink, felt, or pencil.
C. Blue ink is conventional.
D. The patient should be identifiable by at least one (1) demographic characteristic.
E. All of the choices except B
Abbreviations of any kind should not be used.
Which one of the following may be an indication of the presence of white blood cells in the stool?
A. Bile duct obstruction
B. Gastrointestinal infection
C. Measles
D. Dehydration
E. Rapid gastrointestinal transit
Gastrointestinal infection
Which dosage form is utilized in barium studies?
A. Troches
B. Enema
C. Implant
D. Ointment
E. Dressing
Enema
Using the Scratch Test, which one of the following is not a criterion for evaluation of the skin indicating the patient’s sensitivity to an allergen?
A. Itchiness
B. Swelling
C. Redness
D. No change/reaction
E. B and C
Itchiness
A bronchoscope is introduced through the following openings, EXCEPT:
A. Nose
B. Endotracheal tube
C. Rectum
D. Mouth
E. None of these
Rectum
Which one of the following is a noninvasive test or procedure?
A. Venipuncture
B. Radionuclide studies
C. Paracentesis
D. Ultrasonography
E. pH stimulation tests
Ultrasonography
Parameter of fecalysis that is used in the diagnosis of intestinal hemorrhage:
A. Consistency
B. Fecal parasites
C. Occult blood
D. Amount
E. pH
Occult blood
Drug that may cause brown-colored urine:
A. Methyldopa
B. Rifampicin
C. Indomethacin
D. Doxorubicin
E. Metronidazole
Metronidazole
Major component of plasma proteins and indicates severity in chronic liver disease
A. Albumin
B. Creatinine
C. Hemoglobin
D. Glucose
E. Bilirubin
Albumin
Test to evaluate the absorption of Vitamin B12:
A. Schilling Test
B. Rinne Test
C. Weber’s Test
D. Romberg Test
E. Schamroth Technique
Schilling Test
Which of the following pairs of clinical findings and laboratory values is TRUE?
A. Proteus mirabilis infection – urine pH 9.0
B. Hypothyroidism – FTI4: 6.4
C. Warfarin therapy – Bleeding time: 2 min
D. Primary hyperparathyroidism – Serum chloride: 128 mEq/L
E. Previous myocardial infarction – CK- MB: 5.7 ng/mL
Proteus mirabilis infection – urine pH 9.0
Which of the following pairs of clinical findings and laboratory values is FALSE?
A. Hepatocellular damage – Female patient: ALT: 50 U/L
B. Folic acid deficiency – Male patient: 76%
C. Lithium carbonate therapy – Serum Potassium: 2.1 mEq/L
D. Hemolytic disease – Total Bilirubin: 0.8 mg/d
E. Diabetes mellitus – GIT: 180 mg/dL at 2 hrs
Hemolytic disease – Total Bilirubin: 0.8 mg/dL
Test used to diagnose myasthenia gravis:A. Edrophonium tensilon test B. Ventilation Scanning C. Scratch and Patch TestD. Romberg TestE. Stress Test
Edrophonium tensilon
Test of choice in patients suspected of having iron deficiency anemia:A. Coomb’s Test B. Serum ferritin C. ZPP fluorescenceD. C-reactive proteinE. Haptoglobulin
Serum ferritin
This refers to the technique of manipulating unconscious or involuntary bodily processes made perceptible to the senses by conscious mental control:A. Naturopathy B. Auscultation C. AcupunctureD. BiofeedbackE. Holistic Health
Biofeedback
BMI category indicating a Possible likelihood of chronic protein-energy under nutrition:A. <10 kg/ m2 B. <18 kg/ m2 C. 18.5-20 kg/ m2D. 20-35 kg/ m2E. >35 kg/ m2
18.5-20 kg/ m2
In parenteral nutrition, which supplies Chloride the most per mL?A. Sodium chloride B. Potassium chloride C. Calcium chlorideD. Iron chlorideE. None of these
Sodium chloride
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT when handling cytotoxic drugs:A. Syringes and IV sets with luer-lock fittings are recommended.B. Syringes should be large enough to accommodate the total dose needed.C. Syringes should not be three-quarters full when containing the total drug dose.D. B and CE. None of these
None of these
Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of the therapeutic relationship between the patient and the pharmacist?A. Equality B. Trust C. EmpathyD. AuthenticityE. Responsiveness
Equality
Example of metabolic complications during parenteral nutrition, EXCEPT:A. ThrombocytopeniaB. Lipid intoleranceC. Thrombophlebitis D. Essential fatty acid deficiencyE. Refeeding syndrome
Thrombophlebitis
An important clinical skill that refers to the continuous process of deliberation and reflection during problem solving:A. Metacognition B. Ethnocentricity C. AdherenceD. GenuinenessE. Manipulation
Metacognition
Which clinical finding is associated to Measles?
A. Hairy tongue
B. Chvostek’s sign
C. Osler’s node
D. Koplik spots
E. Xanthelesma
Koplik spots
A small, circumscribed, elevated solid lesion:A. Papule B. Vesicle C. PatchD. MaculeE. Comedo
Papule
What body organ is associated with fetor hepaticus?A. Kidney B. Uterus C. Oral mucosaD. SkinE. Liver
Liver
Practice sites for Ambulatory Care Setting:A. Nursing homes B. Patient’s residence C. Clinic environmentD. A, B, CE. B and C
Clinic environment
Conditions that can affect vision, EXCEPT:A. Astigmatism B. Muddy sclera C. Conical corneaD. Corneal arcusE. All except B
Muddy sclera
Which of the following describes a macule?
A. Wart
B. Colored lesion
C. Less than 1cm
D. A and C
E. B and C
B and C
Which among the given characteristics is NOT true regarding a Social interaction as to space boundaries with patient?A. Patient is 4-12 feet away.B. Body contact is described as out of reach.C. Eye contact is important.D. Low and frequent vocalizationE. None of these
Low and frequent vocalization
Herpes zoster is an example of ________A. Patch B. Scale C. VesicleD. PapuleE. Macule
Vesicle
Which of the following databases is published by the American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP)?
A. MEDLARS
B. International Pharmaceutical Abstracts
C. Index Medicus
D. Toxline
E. EMBASE
International Pharmaceutical Abstracts
What is deficiency in scurvy?A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin C C. CalciumD. IronE. Phosphorus
Vitamin C
Blistering of the skin due to second-degree burns is an example of a:A. Excoriation B. Lichenification C. MilliumD. VesicleE. Bulla
Bulla
Volume of air inspired or expired with normal breathing:A. Tidal volumeB. Residual volumeC. Peak expiratory flowD. Forced tidal capacityE. A and B
Tidal volume
Comparative measurements of parts of the body are used to assess nutritional status:
A. Manometry
B. Anthropometrics
C. Schilling Test
D. EMG
E. ESR
Anthropometrics
Which of the following is NOT a primary literature for drug information?A. Morbidity and Mortality Weekly ReportB. Annals of Internal MedicineC. Clin-AlertD. LancetE. Pharmacotherapy
Clin-Alert
Electrolyte level is increased due to spironolactone use: A. Potassium B. Magnesium C. SodiumD. CalciumE. Chloride
Potassium
Drugs that may cause dyspepsiaA. Corticosteroids B. Iron C. AntibioticsD. Either A or BE. A, B, C
A, B, C
The following are precipitating factors of hepatic encephalopathy, EXCEPT:A. Constipation B. High-protein diet C. HyperkalemiaD. Bacterial peritonitisE. Benzodiazepines
Hyperkalemia
Contraindications to thrombolysis as an intervention to acute coronary syndrome:A. One week postpartum B. CNS Neoplasm C. Oral anticoagulant therapyD. A, B, CE. A and C
A, B, C
When organizing a patient’s Problem-Oriented Medical Record (POMR), which of the following may be found on the last pages/ sections?A. Graphic charts B. Laboratory data C. Progress notesD. Medication ListE. Physicians Orders
Medication List
Which of the following is NOT a clinical manifestation of heart failure?A. Bradycardia B. Pallor C. FatigueD. ConfusionE. Hepatomegaly
Bradycardia
What is the interaction of Tetracycline and milk?A. Potentiation B. Drug displacement C. Complexation D. Enzyme inhibitionE. Addition
Complexation
In what section of the medical chart can one find the patient’s Past Medical History (PMH)? A. Flow sheet B. Admit summary C. Admission formD. Progress notesE. Patient interview
Admit summary
Which of the following decreases theophylline clearance?A. Cigarette smoking B. Viral pneumoniaC. PhenytoinD. Age (1-12 years old)E. High-protein, low carbohydrate diet
Viral pneumonia
Who among the following is under the Chief Pharmacist but above the other positions based on the organizational chart of a hospital?A. Staff PharmacistB. Chief Administrative OfficerC. Senior PharmacistD. Supervising PharmacistE. Associate Pharmacist
Supervising Pharmacist
Which of the following is a qualification for a Senior Pharmacist in a hospital?A. With at least 3 years work experienceB. With at least 1 year pharmacy practice C. Have passed sub professional Career Service Eligibility examinationD. MS in Pharmacy or its equivalentE. With at least 18 units of post-graduate studies
With at least 3 years work experience
Which of the following is a qualification for a Supervising Pharmacist in a hospital?A. With at least 1 year pharmacy practice B. With at least 18 units of post-graduate studiesC. MS in Pharmacy or its equivalentD. With at least 3 years work experienceE. Have passed sub professional Career Service Eligibility examination
With at least 18 units of post-graduate studies
Who among the following personnel prepares reports of monthly consumption and balance of stocks?A. Senior Pharmacist B. Staff Pharmacist C. Administrative AideD. Chief PharmacistE. Laboratory Pharmacy Aide
Administrative Aide
Which of the following drugs is deemed inappropriate for use in elderly patients?
A. Secobarbital
B. Meprobamate
C. Gluthetimide
D. Only A
E. A, B, C
A, B, C
In the pharmacy functional chart, Poison Control is part of which service?A. Dispensing B. Clinical C. CompoundingD. ResearchE. Administrative
Clinical
Investigational Drug Study is part of which service among the hospital pharmacy services?A. Dispensing B. Clinical C. CompoundingD. ResearchE. Administrative
Research
Physical Examination results may be found in which section of the medical chart?A. Admit summary B. Progress Notes C. Flow sheetD. A, B, CE. B and C
A, B, C
Who is considered as the head of the Nutrition Support Team?
A. Pharmacist
B. Physician
C. Nurse
D. Dietitian
E. All of these
Physician
Carcinogenesis is an example of what type of ADR?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E
Type D
Syndromes that are typical of drug-induced pulmonary disease, EXCEPT:A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edemaB. AsthmaC. Plural effusionsD. Interstitial fibrosisE. Pulmonary vascular disease
Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
Ethambutol- optic neuropathy is an example of what type of ADR?A. Ending of use B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. Failure of efficacyE. Augmented
Continuous
Deteriorated or outdated medication is a cause of what type of medication error?A. Prescribing error B. Dispensing error C. Administration errorD. B and CE. A, B, C
Administration error
Which among the categories of medication error has the presence of error but poses no harm?A. Type A B. Type C C. Type FD. Type GE. Type I
Type C
Prescriptions for Phenobarbital tablet is filed for how long?A.6 months B. 1 year C. 2 yearsD. 3 yearsE. 5 years
2 years
Drugs that are implicated in disorders of mood:A. Oral contraceptives B. Analgesics C. SteroidsD. B and CE. A, B, C
A, B, C
The following are found on the Flow Sheet section of the medical chart, EXCEPT:
A. Physical Examination
B. Pulmonary Function Test
C. Chief Complaint
D. Laboratory tests
E. None of these
Pulmonary Function Test
What does a Category I Medication Error mean?A. No error B. Error, No Harm C. Error, With HarmD. Error, DeathE. No error, With Harm
Error, Death
The green color coding for the medication cards is for drugs administered:A. O.D B. B.I.D C. T.I.DD. Q.I.DE. H.S
Q.I.D
To which government agency should the hospital submit the report on empty vials and ampoules crushed and used as specimen container?A. DOH B. PDEA C. FDAD. DTIE. A and B
FDA
Prescriptions for Phenobarbital ampule should be filed for how long?A. 6 months B. 1 year B. 2 yearsD. 5 yearsE. It is not filed
1 year
Effects more pronounced in Haloperidol than in Benperidol as antipsychotic agent:A. SedationB. Reduce sexual driveC. Tardive dyskinesia with long-term useD. Hormonal effectsE. All except B
All except B
Which of the following may cause Extrapyramidal Symptoms as its adverse effect?A. Atropine B. Codeine C. PhenothiazineD. StreptomycinE. Nitroglycerin
Phenothiazine
Which of the following age groups is considered as High-risk factor for atrial fibrillation?A. 20 to 35 years old B. Below 65 years old C. 65 to 75 years oldD. Above 75 years oldE. No risk seen or proven
Above 75 years old
Benzodiazepine- caused rebound insomnia is an example of what category of Adverse Drug Reaction?A. Augmented B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. DelayedE. Ending of use
Ending of use
Which of the following is NOT considered as Class A bioterrorism agent? A. Anthrax B. Boil C. TularemiaD. Viral hemorrhagic feverE. Botulinum toxin
Boil
Which antiepileptic drug has the smallest starting dose (in mg)?A. Carbamazepine B. Clonazepam C. ValproateD. GabapentinE. Phenytoin
Clonazepam
This reflects the expansion of the role of the hospital as to care programs and facilities:A. Organized health-care B. Heath-system C. Institutional careD. Patient care E. Pharmaceutical care
Institutional care
Headache as an adverse effect of nitroglycerin belongs to what category of ADR?A. Augmented B. Bizarre C. ContinuousD. DelayedE. End of use
Augmented
Which is an add-on therapy to the standard pharmacotherapy to hypertension with diabetes mellitus?A. DiureticB. ACE-inhibitorC. Calcium Channel BlockerD. Angiotensin II Receptor BlockerE. Aldosterone Antagonist
Diuretic
Blood Coagulation factor XII is also known as _____________
A. Proaccelerin
B. Christmas factor
C. Hageman factor
D. Stuart-Power factor
E. Von Willebrand factor
Hageman factor
The following are indications for TPN because enteral intake is inadvisable, EXCEPT: A. Short gut syndrome B. Renal failure C. Acute hepatitisD. Acute pancreatitisE. Severe cachexia
Short gut syndrome
Possible solution when pain and immobility oocurs during the night in a Parkinson’s disease patient:A. Reduce antiparkinsonian therapyB. Use of slow-release levodopaC. Consider therapyD. Drug holiday for 1 weekE. More frequent doses of levodopa
Use of slow-release levodopa
A positive finding for which test may indicate antibody-mediated hemolysis?A. Indirect Coomb’s TestB. Direct Coomb’s TestC. Schilling TestD. Serum ferritinE. Total Reticulocyte Count
Direct Coomb’s Test
Which of the following is recommended for severe refractory atopic dermatitis condition?A. Emollient B. Topical calcineurin inhibitor C. Topical corticosteroidD. Tacrolimus BIDE. Phototherapy
Phototherapy
Which is NOT to be followed when given a prescription of “Gentamicin 80 mg IV PB q 8 hr”?
A. Gentamicin is added to amni-bottle containing 100 mL 5% Dextrose Inj.
B. Dose is given every 8 hours
C. Drug administration is by piggyback technique.
D. Flow rate required is at least 30 minutes.
E. None of these
None of these
Which of the following symptoms is specifically controlled with intranasal anticholinergics?A. Nasal congestion B. Sneezing C. ItchingD. RhinorrheaE. Ocular symptoms
Rhinorrhea
This is the most common associated symptom for Osteoarthritis.A. Joint stiffness B. Crepitus C. PainD. Joint deformityE. Joint enlargement
Pain
Which of the following is LEAST considered as a risk factor for Osteoporosis?A. Low calcium intakeB. Male sexC. Current cigarette smoking D. Minimal sun exposureE. Estrogen deficiency before age 45
Male sex
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Drug Usage Evaluation?A. It is the same as the Drug Utilization Review.B. It is the same as drug therapy monitoring.C. It can be a research tool.D. It is a justification of both distributive and clinical functions.E. It considers patterns of drug usage.
It is the same as drug therapy monitoring
Which of the following drugs/ agents will cause skin reactions the most?A. Penicillin G B. Amoxicillin C. BloodD. ErythtomycinE. Ampicillin
Amoxicillin
Which among the following chemotherapeutic drugs would LEAST induce emesis?A. Fluorouracil B. Cisplatin C. CarboplatinD. PaclitaxelE. Bleomycin
Bleomycin
When the medication card is color coded violet, the administration of the drug is:A. Per orem B. B.I.D C. H.SD. StatE. Round the clock
Round the clock
Which among the following is NOT a required utensil/ apparatus/ equipment in a 25-bed capacity hospital? A. Filing cabinet B. Funnel C. Hot plateD. Tablet counterE. Analytical balance
Analytical balance
This refers to the direct, responsible provision of medication-related care for the purpose of achieving definite outcomes that improve a patient’s quality of life:A. Clinical Pharmacy B. Pharmaceutical CareC. Patient CareD. Pharmaceutical ServiceE. Pharmacy
Pharmaceutical Care
The following drugs/ agents may increase blood glucose level, EXCEPT:A. Oral contraceptives B. Phenytoin C. SalicylatesD. Nicotinic acidE. Diuretics
Salicylates
For chronic illnesses, what is the maximum number of months to be supplied in a single dispensing of medicines?A. 1 B. 3 C. 6D. 12E. Nothing specified
3
Which of the following parenteral antibiotics used for pyelonephritis may cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?A. Co-amoxiclav B. Cefuroxime C. GentamicinD. CiprofloxacinE. Meropenem
Gentamicin
What procedure provides information about the circulatory system at the back of the eye not attainable with a routine examination?A. Fundus photographsB. Ocular UltrasoundC. Fluorescein AngiographyD. Optic Clearance TomographyE. Indocyamine Green Angiography
Fluorescein Angiography
What is the standard time to be followed for “q12”?A. 6 am – 6 pm B. 7 am – 7 pm C. 8 am – 8 pmD. 9 am - 9 pmE. 12 nn - 12 mn
8 am - 8 pm
Which among the following utensils/ equipment/ apparatus is found in a 100-bed capacity, but not in a 10- or 15-bed capacity hospital?
A. Mixer 2-L capacity
B. Calculating machine
C. Rough balance
D. Ring stand
E. Ribbed funnel
Mixer 2-L capacity
Which may be considered as an alternative drug for social anxiety disorder?A. Buspirone B. Fluvoxamine C. SertralineD. ParoxetineE. Clonazepam
Buspirone
Which is NOT a category under the Laboratory Data of the Patient Medical Chart?
A. Microbiology
B. Urinalysis
C. Arterial Blood Gases
D. Consults
E. Type and Screens
Consults
This refers to a radiograph examination of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra with the use of contrast media:A. Barium EnemaB. Barium SwallowC. CholangiogramD. Intravenous PyelographyE. Retrograde Pyelography
Retrograde Pyelography
Drugs used in the treatment of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) infection in HIV patient, EXCEPT:A. Azithromycin B. Flucytosine C. DapsoneD. PrimaquineE. Co-trimoxazole
Flucytosine
Which of the following is NOT a dietary restriction for patients using monoamine oxidase inhibitors?A. Ripe avocado B. Soy sauce C. SnailsD. CeleryE. Beer
Celery
Which of the following characteristics is FALSE regarding Tourette’s Disorder?A. Echolalia B. Facial twitching C. Age of onset after 60 yearsD. Shoulder shruggingE. Throat clearing
Age of onset after 60 years
This procedure is used to evaluate the size, shape, and motion of the valves, septum and walls and changes in chamber size during the cardiac cycle.A. Echo CardiographyB. Electrocardiogram C. Coronary AngiographyD. Fluorescein AngiographyE. Indocyamine Green angiography
Echo Cardiography
What is the best definition for the abbreviation AUC?
A. Area under the time curve
B. Area under the curve
C. Area under the serum- or blood- concentration- versus- time curve
D. Area under blood concentration curve
E. Area under serum- or blood- concentration curve
Area under the serum- or blood- concentration- versus- time curve
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus?A. Predominantly secretory defectB. Beta cell destructionC. AutoimmuneD. IdiopathicE. Absolute insulin deficiency
Predominantly secretory defect
A platelet count of 1200 x 103 /mm3 may indicate which condition?
A. Vit B12 deficiency
B. Leukemia
C. Hemorrhage
D. Aplastic bone marrow
E. Immune disorder
Hemorrhage
Which among the following is a SIGN of cardio pulmonary arrest?A. Anxiety B. Cyanosis C. DiaphoresisD. Nausea and vomitingE. Dyspnea
Cyanosis
Which of the following is NOT an indication of a WBC Count of 25 x 103/mm3?A. Bone marrow suppression B. Tissue necrosis C. RubellaD. Typhoid feverE. Influenza
Tissue necrosis
Characteristic of a Stage 1 Hypertension:A. DPB 80-89 B. SBP >160 C. DBP 90-99D. DBP >100E. SBP 120-139
DBP 90-99
The following are required books in a hospital pharmacy, EXCEPT:A. RPSB. PNDFC. Goodman and Gilman’s Pharmacological Basis of TherapeuticsD. USP-NFE. Martindale’s Extra Pharmacopeia
Martindale’s Extra Pharmacopeia
Example of macrovascular complication in Type 2 Diabetes?A. Nephropathy B. Ischemic skin changes C. RetinopathyD. Abnormal ECGE. Erectile dysfunction
Abnormal ECG
Recommended drug therapy for Stage 2 Hypertension:
A. Thiazide diuretic
B. ACE inhibitor + ARB agent
C. ACE inhibitor or ARB agent
D. ACE inhibitor or ARB + CCB
E. Thiazide diuretic + ACE inhibitor or ARB or CCB
Thiazide diuretic + ACE inhibitor or ARB or CCB
Clinical circumstance where hospitalization should be considered and not just recommended for patient presenting with acute decompensated heart failure?A. Dyspnea at restB. Acute coronary syndromesC. HypotensionD. Altered mentationE. Major electrolyte disturbance
Major electrolyte disturbance
Risk factors for major bleeding while on anticoagulant factor, EXCEPT:
A. Renal failure
B. Age <60 years
C. Heavy alcohol use
D. Malignancy
E. Recent history of surgery
Age <60 years
The following are just suggested references for pharmacists in the hospital pharmacy, EXCEPT:
A. Cross Reference Index
B. Clinical Laboratory Medicine
C. Medical Dictionary
D. Hospital formulary
E. None of these
Hospital formulary
A female patient presents a 55% Hct value. What does this mean?
A. Polycythemia
B. Hemoconcentration
C. Anemia
D. Hemodilution
E. A and/or B
A and/or B
Which of the following required record books is DOH hospital pharmacies exempted of?A. Dangerous Drug Book B. Prescription BookC. Poison BookD. Red BookE. Exempt Dangerous Drugs Book
Prescription Book
What is elevated in a stage IV Hyperlipoproteinemia?
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. HDL
D. VLDL
E. IDL
VLDL
Which oral hypoglycaemic agent will be administered the MOST frequent?A. Gliquidone B. Pioglitazone C. GlimeprideD. ChlorpropamideE. Rosiglitazone
Gliquidone
This term is defined as “the extent to which a person’s behavior-taking medication…corresponds with agreed recommendations from a health care provider.”A. Patient complianceB. Medication adherenceC. Medication consumptionD. Drug complianceE. Medication counselling
Medication adherence
Which patient classification makes the patient pay only 50% of the charges of medicines given and ancillary services rendered?A. Class C-1 B. Class C-2 C. Class C-3D. Class DE. Class E
Class C-2
The following are monitored when patient is under erythropoietis stimulant therapy, EXCEPT:A. Blood pressure B. Iron level C. Complete blood countD. Blood sugar levelsE. Ferritin level
Blood sugar levels
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of heart failure?A. Hemoptysis B. S2 gallop C. NocturiaD. BloatingE. Exercise intolerance
S2 gallop
What form of economic analyses estimates the ratio between the cost of health-related intervention and the benefit it produces in terms of number oy years lived in full health by the beneficiaries?A. Cost Minimization AnalysisB. Cost Utility AnalysisC. Cost Benefit AnalysisD. Cost Interventional AnalysisE. Cost Effectiveness Analysis
Cost Utility Analysis
Which among the following is NOT part of the Administrative Service of the hospital pharmacy?A. Internship ProgramB. Financial ManagementC. Compliance to regulatory requirementsD. Drug supply managementE. Records and reports
Internship Program
Which is NOT a contraindication for cardiopulmonary exercise testing?A. Uncontrolled hypertensionB. Congestive heart failureC. Severe aortic stenosisD. Acute pericarditisE. Dyspnea upon exertion
Dyspnea upon exertion
ThiazolidinedioneA. TZLD B. TLD C. TZDD. TLD4E. TADD
TZD
Forced expiratory volume in 1 secondA. FEV1S B. FEV C. FexpV1secD. FEV1E. FExV1
FEV1
Which of the following is NOT true regarding the gastrointesitinal adverse effects of sulfonylureas?A. Most commonly nausea and vomitingB. Dose-relatedC. Usually occurs in the first 2-6 weeks of therapyD. Affects approximately 2% of usersE. May be avoided when taken with food
Usually occurs in the first 2-6 weeks of therapy
At what stage of stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder is a short acting bronchodilator added in the therapy?A. 0 B. I C. IID. IIIE. IV
I
AAT stands for __________A. Amino Acid TreatmentB. Alpha Acid ToleranceC. Alpha1- antitrypsinD. Active Aortic TachycardiaE. Alveolar Activity Test
Alpha1- antitrypsin
What form of economic analysis compares the relative expenditure and outcomes of two or more courses of action?A. Cost Benefit Analysis B. Cost Utility AnalysisC. Cost Effectiveness AnalysisD. Cost Interventional AnalysisE. Cost Minimization Analysis
Cost Effectiveness Analysis
Pharmaceutical care requires a direct relationship between ___________.A. Medical doctor and pharmacistB. Pharmacist and patientC. Pharmacist and colleaguesD. Patient and Heath care teamE. Patient, Doctor, and Pharmacist
Pharmacist and patient
Anemia may be possible condition for the following values, EXCEPT:
A. Male patient 30% Hct
B. Platelet count 70 x 109L
C. Female patient 6g/dL Hb
D. Male patient 2.2 mill/mm3 RBC
E. Hb 80 g/L
Platelet count 70 x 109L
Laboratory investigations as part of annual review for diabetes, EXCEPT:A. Fasting lipid profile B. HbA1C C. Liver function testsD. CreatinineE. Amylase test
Amylase test
Which of the following drugs may NOT cause gastrointestinal mucosa injury?A. Estrogen B. Ethanol C. AspirinD. ReserpineE. Warfarin
Estrogen
What is fundamental to the pharmacy profession’s purpose of helping people make the best use of medication?A. Clinical PharmacyB. Medication therapy managementC. Pharmaceutical careD. CommitmentE. Professional responsibility
Pharmaceutical care
Endoscopy-negative reflux diseaseA. ENRD B. E (-) C. E-RDD. (-) ERDE. ERD-Neg.
ENRD
An increase in Sodium values may mean the following conditions, EXCEPT:A. Adrenal insufficiency B. Diabetes insipidusC. AldosteronismD. Impaired renal functionE. None of these
Adrenal insufficiency
Which of the following proton pump inhibitors is NOT commercially available as a tablet?
A. Omeprazole
B. Pantoprazole
C. Lansoprazole
D. Esomeprazole
E. None of the given choices
Pantoprazole
This compares the cost of therapies that achieve the same outcome: A. Cost Minimization AnalysisB. Cost Operational AnalysisC. Cost Effectiveness AnalysisD. Cost Benefit AnalysisE. Cost Utility Analysis
Cost Minimization Analysis
Which of the following antiemetic preparations may NOT be given OTC?A. Cimetidine B. Dimenhydrinate C. FamotidineD. DiphenhydramineE. Cyclizine
Diphenhydramine
Which of the following drugs may cause diarrhea?A. Tetracycline B. Methyldopa C. NeostigmineD. A and BE. A, B, and C
A, B, and C
The following are Ex-Officio members of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee, EXCEPT:A. Chief PharmacistB. Chief NurseC. Chief Administrative OfficerD. PHIC RepresentativeE. None of the choices
Chief Pharmacist
Which is NOT a clinical manifestation of liver cirrhosis?A. Pruritus B. Increased libido C. Weight lossD. HyperpigmentationE. Spider angioma
Increased libido
The patient has a medication indication but is taking the wrong medication. What category of medication-related problem is indicated?A. Failure to receive medicationB. Medication use without indication C. Subtherapeutic dosageD. Improper drug selectionE. Untreated indications
Improper drug selection
Which is NOT included in the treatment approach for ascites?A. Diuretics B. Diet C. ParacentesisD. Antibiotic therapyE. Intrahepatic shunt
Antibiotic therapy
The following are possible medical conditions related to a triglyceride value of 185 mg/dL, EXCEPT:A. DiabetesB. Overconsumption of alcoholC. Nephritic syndromeD. Biliary obstructionE. Pancreatitis
Biliary obstruction
Which of the following drugs has a definite association with acute pancreatitis?A. Furosemide B. Propofol C. RifampinD. PaclitaxelE. Ciprofloxacin
Furosemide
Cushing’s syndrome may be a possible condition as indicated by an increased value of which diagnostic test?A. FBS B. HDL C. Triglyceride D. CalciumE. Potassium
FBS
Somatic diagnostic criteria for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS), EXCEPT:A. Headache B. DepressionC. Abdominal bloatingD. Swelling of extremitiesE. Breast tenderness
Depression
Para-amino hippuric acidA.pHa B. p-aha C. PAHD. PAHAE. pAHA
PAH
Which of the following is NOT included in a hospital formulary?A. Table of sodium content of antacidsB. Metric conversion scales or tablesC. Table of drug interactionsD. Poison antidote chartsE. None of these
None of these
The most appropriate initial therapy for the management of dyslipidemia of patients with chronic kidney disease?A. Maximum-dose statinB. NiacinC. FibrateD. Low-dose statinE. Therapeutic lifestyle changes
Therapeutic lifestyle changes
The most common manifestation of drug-induced kidney disease:A. Decrease in serum creatinine B. Decline in GFRC. Increased BUND. B and CE. A, B, and C
B and C
Which of the following is a Nephritic sign?A. Weight gain B. Edema C. FatigueD. HematuriaE. All except D
Hematuria
Of the following steps of drug procurement cycle, which comes first?A. Locate and select suppliersB. Reconcile needs and fundsC. Choose procurement methodD. Review drug selectionE. Collect consumption information
Review drug selection
Which of the following has the highest Potassium content?A. Avocado B. Molasses C. Banana D. CarrotsE, Ground beef
Molasses
Gout may be possible for a male patient with a Uric Acid Value of?A. 0.13 mg/dL B. 1 mg/dL C. 3 mg/dLD. 8 mg/dLE. 11 mg/dL
11 mg/dL
Drugs with negligible risk when breastfeeding full-term healthy babies:A. Paracetamol B. Digoxin C. CodeineD. InsulinE. All of these
All of these
The patient has a medical problem that requires medication therapy but is not receiving a medication for that indication. What category of medication-related problem is involved?A. Failure to receive medicationB. Improper drug selectionC. Untreated indicationsD. Medication use without indicationE. Subtherapeutic dosage
Untreated indications
For fast moving drugs, the preparation of request is at ______ stock level.
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
E. Any
75%
Which of the following is NOT associated with a high Total Cholesterol value?
A. Obstructive jaundice
B. Pancreatitis
C. CAD
D. Hyperthyroidism
E. Hepatitis
Hyperthyroidism
Pharmaceutical care is applicable and achievable by pharmacists in which practice setting?A. Community setting B. Marketing C. ResearchD. A onlyE. A, B, C
A, B, C
In the procurement of drugs in the hospital, who approves the purchase request?A. Chief PharmacistB. Chief Administrative OfficerC. Chief Medical Professional StaffD. Chief of HospitalE. Supply Officer
Chief of Hospital
Which is NOT an example of Microcytic Anemia?
A. Thalassemia
B. IDA
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Anemia of chronic disease
E. A and C
Thalassemia
Which of the following indicates a favorable prognosis for multiple sclerosis?A. <40 years oldB. Male genderC. Cerebellar initial symptomsD. Progressive course of diseaseE. High attack frequency
<40 years old
In the procurement of drugs in the hospital, who prepares the Purchase Order?A. Chief of HospitalB. Chief PharmacistC. Staff PharmacistD. Supply OfficerE. Pharmacy Administrative Aide
Supply Officer
Which of the following is NOT a type of generalized seizure?A. Absence B. Atonic C. Status epilepticusD. Infantile spasmsE. Myoclonic
Status epilepticus
Basis of Glassgow Coma Scale in defining level of consciousness:A. Motor response B. Verbal response C. Eye opening D. A and BE. A, B, C
A, B, C
Which of the following is a CORRECT measure followed regarding proper storage in the hospital pharmacy?A. Heavier items should be placed in smaller pile.B. Varnish wood.C. Bind sharp corners with tape.D. A and CE. A, B, C
A, B, C
The following drugs may cause secondary parkinsonism, EXCEPT:A. Haloperidol B. Olanzapine C. CinnarizineD. α-methyldopaE. Carbidopa
Carbidopa
Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain?A. InsomniaB. DepressionC. Organic causeD. Dependence to medicationE. Functionality treatment goal
Organic cause
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about classic migraine? A. Migraine with auraB. Basilar-type auraC. At least two attacksD. Not attributed to another disorderE. Headache attacks lasts to 72 hours
Headache attacks lasts to 72 hours
What drug classification usually serves as a starting point for Drug Usage Evaluation in a hospital?A. Anticoagulants B. Antibiotics C. CNS drugsD. Cardiac drugsE. Insulin therapy
Antibiotics
Who is responsible for arranging dangerous drugs systematically in a secured cabinet?A. Laboratory Aide B. Pharmacy technician C. Staff PharmacistD. Senior PharmacistE. Pharmacy Aide
Senior Pharmacist
Features of megaloblastic anemia, EXCEPT:A. Sterility B. Anorexia C. Severe jaundiceD. Angular stomatitisE. Diarrhea
Severe jaundice
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Rivastigmine as drug for Alzheimer’s Disease?A. Available as tablet B. Take with food C. 1.5 hours half-lifeD. 40% protein bindingE. Available as Patch
Available as tablet
Which of the following pharmacologic agents is NOT used in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal?A. Clonidine B. Fibrate C. LabetalolD. MultivitaminsE. Alcohol IV
Fibrate
Drug NOT associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia:A. Cyclosporine B. Quinine C. LevodopaD. ClarithromycinE. Mefenamic acid
Clarithromycin
Pharmaceutical care outcomes include:A. Cure of patient’s diseaseB. Reduction of patient’s symptomatologyC. Prevention of the diseaseD. A and CE. A, B, C
A, B, C
In a hospital setting, who among the following is responsible for the detection of TPN complications?A. Gastroenterologist B. Primary care physician C. PharmacistD. NurseE. Dietitian
Nurse
Which of the following is considered as a positive symptom of schizophrenia?A. Hallucinations B. Affective flattening C. AvolitionD. AlogiaE. Anhedonia
Hallucinations
Which of the following is NOT included among the contents of Cytotoxic Spill Kit?A. Overshoes B. Absorbent material C. DetergentD. Head coveringE. None of these
None of these
A dopamine agonist used to treat extrapyramidal side effects:A. Benztropine B. Biperiden C. LorazepamD. AmantadineE. Trihexyphenidyl
Amantadine
Which of the following vaccines is ideally stored in a -15 degree celcius to -25 degree celcius?A.DTP B. Oral Polio C. BCGD. Hepatitis BE. Tetanus Toxoid
Oral Polio
Which among the following therapies may pose more toxicity?A. Methotrexate + sulfasalazineB. Cyclosporine + hydroxychloroquineC. PenicillamineD. Cyclosporine + methotrexateE. Methotrexate + sulfasalazine + hydroxychloroquine
Penicillamine
Which is NOT TRUE regarding Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus?A. B-cell destructionB. IdiopathicC. Relative insulin deficiencyD. Immune-mediatedE. Absolute insulin deficiency
Relative insulin deficiency
Which of the following is the most sensitive to heat?A. Tetanus toxoid B. DTP C. BCGD. Hepatitis BE. A and C
DTP
What model defines Health as “the absence of disease or disability”?A. Medical modelB. World Health Organization modelC. Wellness modelD. Environmental modelE. All except D
Medical model
Which type of ADR may be prevented by adjustment of dosage regimen?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E
Type A
Which of the following is TRUE regarding Adrenal Carcinoma Cushing’s syndrome?A. Slow courseB. Dominant among childrenC. Atypical symptomsD. Mild to moderate symptomsE. Dominant among males
Dominant among children
“I hear you saying it bothers you that your headaches don’t respond to aspirin,” is an example of what type of questioning strategy?A. Open-ended B. Close-ended C. DirectD. IndirectE. Probe
Indirect
Which of the following is NOT considered as a pharmacotherapeutic option in patients with urinary incontinence due to stress?A. Alpha adrenergic agonistB. Tricyclic antidepressantC. EstrogenD. ImipramineE. Duloxetine
Tricyclic antidepressant
Which method is used for the computation of dose for infants up to 2 years old?
A. Clark’s Rule
B. Fried’s Rule
C. Young’s Rule
D. All of these
E. A and C
Fried’s Rule
An ADR that has little or no relation to usual pharmacological effects of the drug is of what type?A. Type A B. Type B C. Type CD. Type DE. Type E
Type B
Which of the following is a clinical presentation of systemic sclerosis?A. Dyspepsia B. Constipation C. SteatorrheaD. DiarrheaE. All of these
All of these
Type II Allergic Drug Reaction:A. Cytotoxic B. Immune complex C. Cell-mediatedD. AnaphylacticE. Tuberculin reaction
Cytotoxic
Which of the following may decrease Cyclosporine levels when given concomitantly?A. Verapamil B. Ketoconazole C. PhenytoinD. ErythromycinE. Nicardipine
Phenytoin
Constipation is an ADR of which drug?A. Tetracycline B. Propanolol C. CodeineD. CaptoprilE. Streptomycin
Codeine
The following are clinical presentation of acute acetaminophen poisoning, EXCEPT:A. JaundiceB. OliguriaC. Abdominal discomfortD. Left upper abdominal quadrant tendernessE. Nausea and vomiting
Left upper abdominal quadrant tenderness
Which is NOT a test for cardiac electrical rhythm?A. AngioscopyB. Holter monitoringC. Nuclear imagingD. Electrophysiologic studiesE. ECG
Nuclear imaging
Which of the following is NOT included in the clinical presentation of cardiopulmonary arrest?A. Hypertension B. Dyspnea C. DiaphoresisD. CyanosisE. Anxiety
Hypertension
The following medicines are maintained stocks in the emergency room, EXCEPT:A. Naloxone B. Furosemide C. AmilorideD. Regular InsulinE. Calcium gluconate
Amiloride
Which of the following is an add-on pharmacotherapy to hypertension with post-myocardial infarction condition?A. DiureticB. Aldosterone antagonistC. Calcium channel blockerD. Angiotensin II receptor blockerE. Beta blocker
Aldosterone antagonist
This alternative antihypertensive agent is to be used only once weekly:A. Doxazosin B. Minoxidil C. MethyldopaD. ClonidineE. Aliskiren
Clonidine
Which of the following information is classified under the Medical Section?A. Past medical history B. Medication regimen C. Health planD. Home remediesE. Medication allergies
Past medical history
Which antihypertensive agent is administered in most hypertensive emergencies except in acute heart failure?A. Labetalol HClB. Sodium nitroprussideC. Fenoldopam mesylateD. Hydralazine HClE. Esmolol HCl
Labetalol HCl
An error occurred that resulted in permanent patient harm; this belongs to which category of medication error?A. Category A B. Category D C. Category ED. Category GE. Category I
Category G
Which of the following can cause negative inotropic effect and may precipitate heart failure?A. Ethanol B. Cocaine C. TerbinafineD. RosiglitazoneE. Glucocorticoids
Terbinafine
The maximum number of vials of Demerol that may be prescribed in a single applicable prescription by a licensed physician:A. 3 B. 10 C. 14D. 20E. 30
14
Which is NOT a good source of protein?A. Cheese B. Peas C. EggD. FishE. Potatoes
Peas
Which of the following Amiodarone side effects may NOT be managed by discontinuation of the drug?A. Hypothyroidism B. Pulmonary fibrosis C. BradycardiaD. TremorsE. Optic neuropathy
Hypothyroidism
Hospital reports on Adverse Drug Reactions are submitted to which government agency?A. PDEA B. DOH C. FDAD. B and CE. A, B, C
B and C
What is considered as the gold standard for the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?A. Computed tomography B. Complete Blood CountC. Chest X-RayD. Pulmonary angiographyE. Ventilation-perfusion
Pulmonary angiography
Which is NOT found on the flow sheets and graphic chart section of the medical record?A. Blood pressureB. Respiratory rateC. Fluid intake and outputD. Heart rateE. Arterial blood gas analysis
Arterial blood gas analysis
Which of the following is an example of an objective data?A. Decreased swelling of feetB. Decreased edema on CXRC. Increased SOBD. Increase exercise toleranceE. Sleeps with fewer pillows
Decreased edema on CXR
For medication cards, what is the color coding for “at bedtime” drugs?
A. White
B. Yellow
C. Orange
D. Pink
E. Red
White
Which body language implies receptiveness?
A. Leaning toward the speaker
B. Rising the hand
C. Shifting body position
D. Frequent throat clearing
E. Steepling the hands
Leaning toward the speaker
Who among the following is an allied health care professional?A. Athletic trainer B. Medical illustrator C. Exercise scientistD. A and BE. A, B, C
A, B, C
What kind of questions should be asked early during a patient interview?A. Questions that can be answered by Yes or NoB. Multiple questionsC. Long, complex questionsD. Leading questionsE. Open-ended questions
Open-ended questions
What is the alcohol use category of a male patient who drinks three drinks on average each week?
A. Binge
B. Moderate
C. Light
D. Infrequent
E. Current
Light
A patient states that he has smoked 3 packs of cigarettes a day for the past 20 years. What is the patient’s pack-year smoking history?A. 3 pk-yr B. 6 pk-yr C. 10 pk-yrD. 20 pk-yrE. 60 pk-yr
60 pk-yr
A patient is troubled by shortness of breath when hurrying on a level surface. What does he have?A. No dyspneaB. Slight dyspneaC. Moderate dyspneaD. Severe dyspneaE. Very Severe Dyspnea
Slight dyspnea
Which of the following drugs will most likely induce apnea?
A. Anesthetics
B. Ketamine
C. Barbiturates
D. Antihistamines
E. Digitalis
Barbiturates
Which of the following drugs would least likely induce bronchospasm?A. Cimetidine B. Penicillin C. CephalosphorinD. PapainE. Bisulfite
Cimetidine
Which of the following would LEAST worsen GERD symptoms?A. Dopamine B. Onions C. TetracyclineD. MilkE. Peppermint
Milk
For intermittent, mild heartburn, which of the following approaches is NOT appropriate?A. Ranitidine twice dailyB. Gaviscon 2 tabs before mealsC. Maalox 30 mL as neededD. Omeprazole once dailyE. Calcium carbonate 2 tabs as needed
Gaviscon 2 tabs before meals
Thiopurine S-methyltransferaseA. TS-M B. TPSMT C. TPMTD. TMTE. TSMT
TPMT
Which of the following is a cause of Ascites?A. Hyperdynamic circulationB. Sodium and water retentionC. Renal vasoconstrictionD. GravityE. A, B and C
A, B and C
Which of the following drug information does not belong to the group?A. Current symptomsB. Compliance with therapyC. Laboratory informationD. Weight and heightE. Past medical history
Compliance with therapy
Which of the following is present in a severe acute pancreatitis?A. Pseudocyst B. Necrosis C. Abscess D. B and CE. A, B, and C
A, B, and C
Which is NOT true regarding steatorrhea?A. It is mostly seen among chronic pancreatitis patients.B. It is the loss of excess proteins in feces.C. It is associated with diarrhea.D. Bloating is associated with such.E. It is the loss of excess fat in the feces.
It is the loss of excess proteins in feces
Hepatitis C Virus genotype 6 is mostly distributed in which region?A. Africa B. India C. WorldwideD. Middle EastE. Southeast Asia
Southeast Asia
Which of the following physical examination findings in person with acute renal failure may indicate endocarditis?A. Splinter hemorrhages B. New heart murmur E. A, B, and CC. Roth spotsD. RalesE. A, B, and C
A, B, and C
Which of the following may NOT indicate a chronic kidney disease?A. Weight gain B. Edema C. GERDD. GoutE. Hyperkalemia
Weight gain
Which of the following is characteristic of hyponatremia?A. Increased skin turgorB. Dry mucous membranesC. BradycardiaD. Increased JVPE. Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
Dry mucous membranes
Which of the following statements regarding hypokalemia is FALSE?A. Mild hypokalemia is often asymptomatic.B. Moderate hypokalemia is associated with malaise.C. In severe hypokalemia, ECG often changes.D. Digitalis-induced arrhythmia may be caused by severe hypokalemia.E. Hypermagnesemia is also present.
Hypermagnesemia is also present
In which domain of the neurologic examination is myasthenia gravis tested?A. Gait B. Reflexes C. Cranial nervesD. Mental statusE. Sensory function
Cranial nerves
Which of the following pairs of patient information and category is CORRECT?
A. Consent Forms – Administrative
B. Vital Signs – Demographic
C. Living arrangement – Lifestyle
D. Medication regimen – Medical
E. Occupation – Economic
Consent Forms - Administrative
Type of Question: “Does your headache respond to aspirin?”A. Open-ended question B. Close-ended question C. Direct questionD. Indirect questionE. Probe
Close-ended question
Which interview questions may be used to assess mania?A. Do you cry without any reason?B. Do you have a lot of extra energy?C. Do you have any guilty feelings?D. Has your weight changed recently?E. Do you still enjoy the same hobbies that you once did?
Do you have a lot of extra energy?
When a patient has difficulty remembering recent events, what stage of Alzheimer’s disease does he exhibit?
A. Mild
B. Moderate
C. Severe
D. Very Severe
E. Relapsing
Mild
Color coding for medication card for STAT drugs:A. White B. Red C. YellowD. PinkE. Orange
Red
