Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

diversity of form and function > module 4 (exam 3) - animal diversity > Flashcards

module 4 (exam 3) - animal diversity Flashcards

1
Q

define the cochlea

A

a coiled, fluid-filled tube where sound energy is transduced to electric signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

sound pressure waves travel through the _____ and vibrate the _____

A

auditory canal; tympanic membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

the _____ transmit vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the _____

A

ossicles; cochlea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

vibrations at the _____ create pressure waves in fluid-filled cochlear canals

A

oval window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

pressure waves in _____ flex adjacent membranes

A

cochlear canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when the _____ is flexed, it bends sterocilia on hair cells in the _____

A

organ of Corti

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the movements of sterocilia are transduced into action potentials in the _____

A

auditory nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define the skeletal system

A

what most animals use for a rigid support structure to attach muscles to and move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define a hydrostatic skeleton

A

a volume of fluid enclosed inside a body cavity & surrounded by muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

who has hydrostatic skeletons?

A

soft bodied invertebrates (ex. worms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define an exoskeleton

A

an external skeleton - a rigid outer surface to which muscles are attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

who has exoskeletons?

A

arthropods & insects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define an endoskeleton

A

an internal skeleton covered by other, soft body tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

who has endoskeletons?

A

vertebrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what causes the rigidity of animals with hydrostatic skeletons?

A

high internal fluid pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

in what parts of the body do humans rely on a hydrostatic skeleton?

A

in the discs of vertebral columns and in articular cartilage of joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

_____ cause segments of exoskeletal animals to move

A

muscle contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which animals have simple exoskeletons? which have complex?

A

mollusks have simple
arthropods have complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

define a cuticle (skeletal)

A

a type of exoskeleton that covers the outer surface of arthropods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

exoskeletons are made of what?

A

chitin - a nitrogen containing polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the 3 bone shapes in an endoskeleton?

A

rod, plate, or tube-like

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

in an endoskeleton, bones are attached to each other with what?

A

joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the 2 types of connective tissues in an endoskeleton?

A

cartilage and bone connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define cartilage cells

A

a matrix of tough & rubbery mix of polysaccharides & collagen protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what 2 types of places in the body is cartilage found in?

A

where stiffness & resilience are needed (ex. joints)
stiff & flexible supportive structures (ex. nose & voice box)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is bone made of?

A

collagen fibers & calcium phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what makes bone hard?

A

calcium phosphate crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bone is a reservoir for what?

A

calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are the 3 types of living cells of bone?

A

osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the function of osteoblasts?

A

put new matrix material on bone surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the function of osteocytes?

A

former osteoblasts that are now inside cavities in bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the function of osteoclasts?

A

break down old bone & release calcium from bone into extracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the 2 main types of bone?

A

membranous bone & cartilage bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the function of membranous bone?
give an example of where it is found

A

forms on a scaffold of connective tissue membrane
found on outer bones of skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the function of cartilage bone?
give an examples of where it is found

A

first forms as a cartilaginous structure that looks like future mature bone, then slowly hardens/ossifies into bone
found in bones of limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

T or F: cartilage bone can grow through the ossification process

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

in what direction does ossification proceed?

A

first in the center of long bone, then outward at ends

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

define epiphyseal plates

A

places where cartilage that forms between ossification centers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is compact bone?

A

solid & hard bone that forms the hard white outer region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is cancellous bone like?

A

it is rigid but has internal cavities & looks spongy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

define bone marrow

A

living tissue that stores fat or produces red blood cells in bone cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

define spongy bone

A

it is honeycombed with many small cavities within compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

where is spongy bound found within a bone?

A

more at the ends of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

define a joint

A

2 or more bones coming together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

muscles can work in how many directions?

A

only 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

define tendons

A

straps of connective tissue that connect muscles to bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

define ligaments

A

attach bone to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

define a fulcrum (lever systems)

A

a joint between where the load is and where the force is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

define a load arm (lever systems)

A

the distance between the load & fulcrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

define a force arm (lever systems)

A

distance between force & fulcrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the function of a class 1 lever?
give an example in the human body

A

the load moves opposite direction as application of force
ex. raising chin puts force on muscles in back of neck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

where is the fulcrum located relative to the load and force in a class 1 lever?

A

fulcrum located equally between force & load points

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the relative locations of the fulcrum, load, and force points in a class 2 lever?

A

load is located between the fulcrum and the points of force application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is the function of a class 2 lever?
give an examples in the human body

A

makes it possible to move heavy objects a short distance
ex. standing on tip toes (fulcrum) applies force to calf muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the relative locations of the fulcrum, load, and force points in a class 3 lever?

A

point of force application is between the fulcrum and the load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the function of a class 3 lever?
give an examples in the human body

A

makes it possible to move loads over large distances & with speed
ex. throwing a ball - load is in hand, force is in bicep, fulcrum is elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

define incisors (teeth)

A

teeth at front of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

define canines (teeth)

A

specialized teeth for piercing prey bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

define premolars (teeth)

A

teeth in back (next to canines) adapted for crushing and shredding tougher foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

define molars (teeth)

A

teeth in way back adapted for crushing and shredding tougher foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the temporomandibular joint?

A

in mammals, a specialized jaw joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how many teeth do adult humans have?

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

define adaptive radiation

A

diversification of one species into many that live in different habitats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

define pathogens

A

harmful organisms and viruses that can cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

an animal’s defense system depends on what?

A

the ability to recognize between the animal’s own molecules and the invader’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what are the 3 phases of the defense system?

A

recognition, activation, and effector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

name 6 human defense systems that are present at all times

A

defenses in the airway, skin, eyes, ears, nose, and digestive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

name 4 defense systems that animals besides humans may have

A

barks, leaf cuticle, exoskeleton, egg shells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

define the innate/nonspecific defense mechanism

A

a genetically inherited mechanism that provides the first line of defense against pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

which animals have innate defense mechanisms?

A

all animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

define adaptive defenses

A

mechanisms aimed at specific pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

which animals have adaptive defense mechanisms?

A

only vertebrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

adaptive defenses are activated by what?

A

innate immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

define antibodies

A

proteins that recognize, bind, and help destroy specific pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

antibodies can be made by what defense system?

A

adaptive only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

define immunity

A

when an organism has sufficient defenses to avoid biological invasion by a pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

which protein is critical to immune response?
what does it do?

A

toll proteins begin a cascade that eventually produces defense molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what does PAMPs stand for?

A

pathogen-associated molecular patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

T or F: there is no coordination between innate and adaptive immune responses

A

false - there is coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

define white blood cells AKA leukocytes

A

specialized cells for immune system functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

define phagocytes

A

large cells that ingest pathogens by phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

define lymphocytes

A

adaptive & innate immunity cells including T & B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what type of cell is a mast cell?
what is the function of mast cells?

A

phagocyte
releases histamine & other signals that constrict blood flow from a wound and increase blood flow to a wound area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what type of cell is a neutrophil?
what is its function?

A

phagocyte
stimulates inflammation & kills invading cells via phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what type of cell is a macrophage?
what is its function?

A

phagocyte
releases cytokines that recruit other cells to a wound site and stimulates activities in wound area, also kills cells by phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what 4 places in the human body is lymphoid tissue found?

A

thymus, bone marrow, spleen, & lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

define blood plasma

A

blood solution with ions, small molecule solutes, and soluble proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

define lymph

A

a fluid derived from blood and other tissues but has no red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what are 3 things in the first line of innate defense?

A

skin, mucous membranes, and chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what are 5 things in the second line of innate defense

A

phagocytosis, complement proteins, interferons, inflammation, fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

the first line of defense is _____ (physical barrier; cell) derived and the second line of defense is _____ (physical barrier; cell) derived

A

physical barrier, cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

define mucous

A

a barrier defense against pathogens in innate immunity in animals - secreted by mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

define lysozyme

A

an enzyme in saliva, tears, and nasal secretions that hydrolyzes bacterial cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

define defensins

A

a type of protein made by phagocytes that kills bacteria and enveloped viruses by insertion into their cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) do what?

A

recognize nonself molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

define natural killer cells

A

a class of lymphocytes - distinguish infected body cells and lyse pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

define inflammation

A

tissue response to an injury or infection
includes redness, swelling, and heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

define allergic reactions

A

a harmless, nonself molecule binds to mast cells which cause a release of histamine and inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

define autoimmune diseases

A

immune systems can’t tell difference between self & nonself molecules & attacks the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

define sepsis

A

inflammation from an invading bacterial infection spreads throughout the body, dilating blood vessels and dropping blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

name 5 characteristics of the innate immune system

A

occurs in all animals
both cell-mediated and secreted components
rapid response
broad response against pathogens
no memory when infections recur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

name 5 characteristics of the adaptive immune system

A

occurs only in vertebrates
both cell-mediated and secreted components
slow response
specific response against pathogens
memory & speed when infections recur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what experiment led to learning how immunity works?

A

testing diptheria using guinea pigs & injecting them with blood serum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

define active immunity

A

acquired immunity from one’s own production of antibodies in response to presence of nonself molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

define passive immunity

A

the process of acquiring immunity from antibodies received from another individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what are the 2 parts of adaptive immunity?

A

humoral and cell mediated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

how does humoral adaptive immunity work?

A

through body fluids - does not require cell to cell contact
utilizes B cells that make circulating antibodies active against extracellular pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what are B cells (lymphocytes) & what is their function?

A

white blood cells that produce antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

how does cell mediated (AKA cellular) adaptive immunity work?

A

requires cells to contact one another to work
uses T cell receptors and T cells directed towards fighting off pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is a T cell receptor and what are its functions?

A

a protein complex found on the surface of T cells that is responsible for recognizing fragments of antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is a T cell (lymphocyte) and what are its functions?

A

white blood cells responsible for responding to antigens, including allergies & tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

name 4 key features of adaptive immunity that make it successful?

A

specific production of antibodies and binding of antigens
ability to distinguish self and nonself molecules
ability to respond to many nonself molecules
immunological memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

define immunological memory

A

the immune system’s ability to remember antigens on a particular type of pathogen that it had previously come into contact with

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

define antigen

A

any (foreign) molecule that elicits an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

define epitopes (AKA antigenic determinants)

A

sites/regions on the antigen that bind to T cell receptors & antibodies to be recognized by the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

compare primary vs secondary immune responses

A

primary: after 1st antigen infection, antibodies & T cells are produced

secondary: after 1st immune response, is faster & more powerful than primary response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

define herd immunity

A

idea that an unvaccinated person won’t get sick because their probability of contacting an infectious person is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what is the required % of immune people in a population to achieve herd immunity?

A

90% - different sources say different things

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

define cytotoxic T cells

A

workhorses of cellular immune system - can kill many strong pathogens including cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what are the 3 phases of immune responses?

A

recognition, activation, and effector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what happens during the recognition phase?

A

an antigen is inserted into the cell membrane of an antigen-presenting cell with unique antigen binding structures protruding from the cell membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what happens during the activation phase?

A

T-helper cells recognize the antigen on a cell & further propagates & releases cytokines that stimulate B & cytotoxic T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what happens with humoral immunity during the effector phase?

A

cells of B clones make antibodies, which bind to pathogenic cells - bound antibodies attract phagocytes to ingest & destroy the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what happens with cellular immunity during the effector phase?

A

clones of cytotoxic T cells bind to cells with antigens exposed & destroy them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

define T-helper cells

A

T cells that have receptor proteins for specific antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

antibodies (AKA immunoglobulins) have how many antigen-binding sites?
what is the name classifying this #?

A

minimum of 2 sites
bivalent = 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

antibodies have how many polypeptide chains? how are they classified?

A

4 chains - 2 long heavy chains and 2 short light chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

define agglutination

A

binding of multiple antigens and multiple antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

IgG antibodies many up what % of total circulating antibodies?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what is the structure of IgG antibodies & where are they found in the body?

A

monomers
found free-floating in blood plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

define opsonization

A

a process by which microbes in blood and tissue fluids bind IgG antibodies and thereby are “tagged” for destruction by phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

give the process of opsonization by IgG antibodies (2 steps)

A

1) antibody molecules bind to pathogen AND to receptors on the surface of a macrophage
2) binding of the antibodies to receptors activates phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

define a monoclonal response

A

immune response against a single epitope - creates a single clone of B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

define a polyclonal response

A

immune response against multiple epitopes - creates multiple clones of B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

define antigen presentation

A

fragments on the cell surfaces that function as antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what are the benefits of antigen presentation?

A

allows interaction & communication between innate and adaptive immune systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

different types of immune cells are all derived from what type of cells (and where are they found)?

A

stem cells in bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

stem cells in bone marrow make a first differentiation into what 2 kinds of stem immune cells?

A

myeloid stem cells & lymphoid stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

lymphoid stem cells go on to produce what 2 immune cells?
where are the 2 types found?

A

B lymphocytes (mature in bone marrow)
T lymphocytes (mature in thymus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

what does binding of cytotoxic T cells result in?

A

causes the death of the cell displaying the antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

what does binding of T-helper cells result in?

A

activation of the adaptive immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

define the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A

a genetic system that allows large proteins in immune system cells to identify compatible or foreign proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

what 3 cell types are used in cellular immunity effector cells?

A

cytotoxic T cells, T-helper cells, and MHCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

give 4 characteristics of a T cell receptor’s structure

A

has a place for antigens & MHC to bind
is a glycoprotein
has 2 polypeptide chains (alpha and beta)
has both variable and constant regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

T cell receptors can only bind to antigens when?

A

when there is an MHC protein on the surface of the antigen-presenting cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

where are MHC I molecules present?

A

on the surface of every nucleated cells in mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

where are MHC II molecules present?

A

on the surfaces of macrophages, B cells, and dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

define “tregs”

A

regulatory T cells - ensure that immune responses don’t get out of control, mediate tolerance to self antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

how do tregs function (2 steps)

A

1) treg cell binds to the MHC complex of a cell presenting a self-antigen
2) if a Tc or TH cell is also bound to the antigen-presenting cell, the treg releases cytokines, which suppress the Tc or TH cell response and cause apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

define human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

A

a retrovirus that attacks the body’s immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

define acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

A

a disease that results from an HIV infection once it has progressed to a certain point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

how does HIV/AIDS take over the body?

A

reduces # of T-helper cells, macrophages, & antigen-presenting dendritic cells, which allows HIV infection to increase and destroys immune response ability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

define zoonosis

A

a disease that can be given to humans from animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

define a vaccine

A

either an inactive form of a pathogen or an antigenic compound of the pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

how does a vaccine promote immunity?

A

it generates memory cells without making the person sick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

define endocrine cells

A

cells that secrete hormones into blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

which 2 types of body cells work together to control other cell types in the body?

A

endocrine and nerve cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

define a target cell

A

a cell that receives a chemical signal from a nerve or endocrine cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

what are the 2 main differences between the endocrine and nervous systems?

A

endocrine: slow and broadcast
nervous: fast and addressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

define broadcast

A

the signal sent affects many other cells on the way to affecting the target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

how does the endocrine system transfer hormones?

A

through the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

define addressed

A

the signal sent only affects the target cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

how does the nervous system transfer signals?

A

through chemical signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

the nervous system has finer, more rapid movement of skeletal muscles.
give an example of this

A

athletic movement

165
Q

the endocrine system has more widespread, prolonged functions.
give 3 examples of this

A

development, reproductive cycles, long changes in metabolism

166
Q

define paracrines

A

secreted by one cell and affects the functions of neighboring cells

167
Q

define autocrines

A

secreted by a cell into surrounding tissue fluids, and can also affect itself

168
Q

paracrines and autocrines allow chemical signaling over a _____ (long/short) distance

A

short distance

169
Q

define pheromones

A

chemical signaling molecules that an animal releases into the environment that effects other individuals of their species

170
Q

pheromones allow chemical signaling over a ____ (long/short) distance

A

long distance

171
Q

define endocrine glands

A

glands without ducts, have endocrine cells that release hormones into the blood

172
Q

T or F: endocrine glands are only single celled

A

false, endocrine glands can be single cells scattered throughout tissues or found grouped together to make a tissue/organ

173
Q

give an example of where endocrine glands are found single celled & spread out

A

the epithelium lining of the midgut

174
Q

give an example of where endocrine glands are found grouped together in a tissue/organ

A

the thyroid gland

175
Q

give 6 examples of endocrine glands

A

adrenal cortex, ovaries, pancreas, parathyroid, pituitary, testes, thymus

176
Q

define exocrine glands

A

glands with ducts - secretions are released from ducts

177
Q

do exocrine glands have a signaling function?

A

no

178
Q

give 5 examples of exocrine glands

A

mammary, prostate, salivary, sweat, tear glands

179
Q

define a hormone

A

a chemical released into the blood by endocrine cells that helps to regulate the function of other cells

180
Q

T or F: hormones are only successful in high concentrations

A

false - hormones can be successful in low concentrations

181
Q

how do hormones affect target cells?

A

they noncovalently bind to a target cell’s receptor protein molecules

182
Q

give 5 functions of hormones

A

control growth
development
nutrient homeostasis
reproductive cycles
water balance

183
Q

define neurosecretory (neuroendocrine) cells

A

endocrine cells that look like neurons - they’re excitable cells that propagate action potentials

184
Q

where are neurosecretory cells found?

A

in the CNS

185
Q

which cells are the “link” between the nervous and endocrine systems?

A

neurosecretory cells

186
Q

define non-neural endocrine cells

A

endocrine cells that are no excitable

187
Q

give an example of a type of non-neural endocrine cell

A

pancreatic beta cells (secrete insulin)

188
Q

what are the 3 kinds of hormones?

A

peptide, steroid, and amine

189
Q

define peptide hormones

A

water-soluble chains of amino acids

190
Q

peptide hormones bind to receptor proteins on the external surface of target cells - why?

A

because peptide hormones are water-soluble and therefore can’t pass through the lipid membrane

191
Q

give an example of a peptide hormone

A

insulin

192
Q

define steroid hormones

A

non-water-soluble hormones from cholesterols

193
Q

where are the receptor proteins on target cells of steroid hormones?

A

inside target cells, but sometimes also on the surface

194
Q

give an example of a steroid hormone

A

sex steroids

195
Q

define amine hormones

A

small modified amino acids - some are water-soluble and some are not

196
Q

where are the receptor proteins on target cells of amine hormones?

A

sometimes on the surface of target cell

197
Q

give an example of an amine hormone

A

adrenal hormone epinephrine (adrenaline)

198
Q

define intracellular receptors

A

receptor proteins that bind its ligand inside the cell

199
Q

which hormones use intracellular receptors?

A

steroid hormones and some amine hormones

200
Q

why is gene expression altered when hormones bind to intracellular receptors?

A

because the activated hormone-receptor complex functions as a transcription factor inside the nucleus

201
Q

the endocrine system uses what kind of feedback system?

A

negative feedback

202
Q

where is the pituitary gland located?

A

at the base of the human brain connected to the hypothalamus

203
Q

what are the 2 parts of the pituitary gland that have 2 functional links with the brain?

A

the anterior and posterior pituitary glands

204
Q

how does the posterior pituitary gland function?

A

hormones are released into the post pit and are diffused into blood capillaries
the hormones then leave the post pit via blood

205
Q

define the hypothalamus

A

the part of the brain below the thalamus
helps with learning, memory, spatial orientation, and control of hormones

206
Q

define the anterior pituitary gland

A

an endocrine gland made of non-neural endocrine cells

207
Q

define tropins/trophic hormones

A

hormones that control the activity of other endocrine glands

208
Q

which 2 hormones does the posterior pituitary secrete?

A

ADH and oxytocin

209
Q

what 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary secrete?

A

ACTH
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
growth hormone (GH)
prolactin (PRL)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

210
Q

endocrine cells are organized into what?

A

control axes

211
Q

define an axis (endocrine system)

A

a system in which endocrine cells act on each other in a sequence

212
Q

what does HPA axis stand for?

A

the hypothalamus-pituitary gland-adrenal cortex

213
Q

what is the function of the HPA axis

A

controlling secretion of adrenal cortex hormones and responses to long-term stress

214
Q

define cortisol

A

the primary glucocorticoid in mammals

215
Q

define releasing hormone (RH)

A

a hormone secreted by neuroendocrine cells in the hypothalamus that travels to the anterior pituitary gland

216
Q

give the 6 steps of the endocrine pathway

A

stimulus –> endocrine cell –> endocrine signal –> blood –> effector cell –> response

217
Q

give the 8 steps of the neuroendocrine pathway

A

stimulus –> sensor cell –> neural signal –> CNS –> neuroendocrine signal –> blood –> effector cell –> response

218
Q

give the 11 steps of the neuroendocrine-to-endocrine pathway

A

stimulus –> sensor cell –> neural signal –> CNS –> neuroendocrine signal –> blood –> endocrine cell –> endocrine signal –> blood –> effector cell –> response

219
Q

define goiters

A

a hormone deficiency disease that causes the enlargement of the thyroid gland - results from insufficient iodine and its production of a negative feedback loop

220
Q

define androgens

A

hormones that will lead to the formation of a penis and scrotum

221
Q

define testosterone

A

an androgen steroid & main hormone produced by testes

222
Q

define estrogens

A

hormones that will lead to the formation of a vagina

223
Q

presence of mullerian ducts in an embryo will result in development of what?

A

fallopian tubes, a uterus, and vagina

224
Q

presence of wolffian ducts in an embryo will result in development of what?

A

sperm ducts, prostate, seminal vesicles

225
Q

define the importance of insect molting for development

A

since insects have a hard exoskeleton, they must shed it and make a new one in order to grow

226
Q

which hormone in insects guides it through development?

A

juvenile hormone (JH)

227
Q

define sex (action)

A

a mechanism by which genes of 2 individuals are combined to produce offspring

228
Q

define sexual reproduction

A

each parent produces specialized reproductive cells (gametes)

229
Q

define gametes
give 2 examples of them

A

reproductive cells that are a product of meiosis
ex. sperm & eggs

230
Q

define somatic cells

A

other cells in the body that are not gametes or germ cells

231
Q

each gamete cell has ____ (half/equal/double) the # of chromosomes as somatic cells (1n)

A

half the # of chromosomes as somatic cells

232
Q

meiosis II produces how many haploid daughter nuclei?

A

4 haploid daughter nuclei

233
Q

define eggs (AKA ova)
what is their chromosome number in terms of n?

A

large, nonmotile cells from the ovaries
1n

234
Q

define sperm (AKA spermatozoa)
what is their chromosome number in terms of n?

A

small, motile cells from the testes
1n

235
Q

an egg & sperm fuse to form a what?
what is the resulting chromosome number in terms of n?

A

a zygote
2n

236
Q

define offspring

A

the next generation of an organism

237
Q

define spawning

A

an external fertilization method: a release of sperm and eggs into the external environment

238
Q

which organisms commonly use the spawning mechanism?

A

marine animals, specifically bony fish

239
Q

define asexual reproduction

A

offspring from a single parent, often by mitosis

240
Q

offspring by asexual reproduction are genetically _____ (identical/not identical) to its parent

A

identical

241
Q

define budding

A

a form of asexual reproduction in which a more or less complete new organism grows from the body of the parent organism, eventually detaching itself

242
Q

define fission

A

a parent organism splits in 2+ pieces to make new individuals

243
Q

define parthenogenesis

A

development of offspring from an unfertilized egg

244
Q

are offspring of parthenogenesis usually haploid or diploid?

A

haploid

245
Q

define regeneration
which organisms does this occur in?

A

a complete organism can be made from small fragments of the animal’s body
occurs in sponges, echinoderms, & worms

246
Q

which organisms does parthenogenesis occur in?

A

arthropods, fishes, amphibians, and reptiles

247
Q

most species that reproduce via parthenogenesis also use sexual reproductive behavior - why?
give the whiptail lizard example

A

because of the hormonal control of sex role
ex. whiptail lizards are all female, but sexual behavior is necessary for ovulation to occur, so the lizards take terms acting the male role in reproductive behavior, depending on when estrogen and progesterone levels are high

248
Q

what is the advantage to asexual reproduction?

A

it maintains successful genotypes in a stable environment

249
Q

what is the main disadvantage to asexual reproduction?

A

there is a lack of genetic diversity, which is what natural selection needs to adapt to environmental changes

250
Q

sexual reproduction is more common in _____ (stable/unstable) environments

A

stable

251
Q

parthenogenesis is most common is _____ (stable/variable) environements

A

variable environments, such as extreme latitudes

252
Q

what are two benefits of sexual reproduction?

A

DNA recombination (mixing up genotypes) and helping to get rid of deleterious mutations

253
Q

define primary reproductive (sex) organs

A

the gonads: ovaries and testes

254
Q

define accessory reproductive (sex) organs

A

other reproductive organs (non-gonads), like uterus, glands for egg shells, penis, and vas deferens

255
Q

define secondary sexual characteristics
give examples

A

properties of non-reproductive organs and tissues that are unique in each sex
ex. ability to nurse, menstrual cycle, facial and chest hair, deeper voices

256
Q

define gametogenesis

A

processes that produce gametes

257
Q

define germ cells

A

diploid cells that can use meiosis to make gametes - produces sperm

258
Q

define polar bodies

A

small cells produced by unequal division of cytoplasm in cell division - occurs in female meiosis

259
Q

define sertoli cells

A

somatic cells that assist sperm production

260
Q

define interstitial cells (AKA Leydig cells)

A

somatic cells that secrete testosterone

261
Q

what does the head of a sperm cell contain?

A

the nucleus and acrosome (for DNA and enzymes)

262
Q

what does the neck of a sperm cell contain?

A

the centriole for spindle formation

263
Q

what does the midpiece of a sperm cell contain?

A

the mitochondria for ATP

264
Q

what does the tail of a sperm cell contain?

A

microtubules for movement

265
Q

define the ovarian follicle

A

a somatic cell that helps develop the ovum & support cells

266
Q

define ovulation

A

the release of an ovum from an ovary

267
Q

define oviduct

A

tubes that ova are released into from the ovaries to go to the uterus

268
Q

define fertilization

A

the fusion of an ovum and sperm

269
Q

define external fertilization

A

when fertilization happens outside the body of a female in water
ex. spawning

270
Q

define internal fertilization

A

a male inserts sperm into the reproductive tract of a female

271
Q

define sex determination

A

the process where the sex of an individual becomes fixed

272
Q

define environmental sex determination

A

the sex is not determined at fertilization, but by the temperature it experiences during embryonic development

273
Q

define sequential hermaphrodites
which organisms does this occur in?

A

an animal can be male at one time and female at another
ex. fish

274
Q

define hermaphrodites

A

animals that can make both sperm and ova

275
Q

why did the abilities of hermaphrodites and sequential hermaphrodites evolve?

A

to keep up with changing circumstances - this ability gives a greater lifetime reproductive output

276
Q

define progesterone

A

a steroid sex hormone that maintains pregnancy and is secreted by corpus luteum and the placenta

277
Q

define implantation

A

the entry of a blastocyst into tissue of the endometrium

278
Q

define a blastocyst

A

an early embryo

279
Q

define spontaneous ovulation

A

the timing of ovulation & LH hormone surge is controlled by animal-originating hormonal cycles

280
Q

define induced ovulation

A

ovulation triggered by copulation (sexual intercourse)

281
Q

which animals experience spontaneous ovulation?

A

humans & other primates

282
Q

which animals experience induced ovulation?

A

rabbits, shrews, and some cats

283
Q

define menstruation

A

the discharge of bloody material from the uterus out of the vagine

284
Q

define menstrual cycles

A

cycles of the reproductive system: oocytes periodically mature and the reproductive tract prepares for possible pregnancy

285
Q

define estrous cycles

A

cycles of behavior where an organism experiences a period of sexual receptivity and express a readiness to mate

286
Q

which animals experience estrous cycles?

A

mammals other than primates

287
Q

positive feedback occurs during which days of the ovarian/uterine cycle?

A

days 12-14

288
Q

when does negative feedback occur during the ovarian/uterine cycle

A

throughout most of the cycle

289
Q

give the pathway of hormonal control of the ovarian and uterine cycles

A

hypothalamus –> GnRH –> anterior pituitary –> LH/FSH –> ovary –> estrogen and progesterone –> uterus

290
Q

ovulation occurs on which day of the ovarian cycle?

A

day 14

291
Q

which hormonal surge causes ovulation?

A

LH

292
Q

define placenta

A

a structure in which large arrays of maternal and embryonic blood vessels are closely put together

293
Q

which type of feedback helps the birth process?

A

positive feedback

294
Q

where is oxytocin produced & released to?

A

made in the hypothalamus and released into the posterior pituitary

295
Q

give 2 major functions of the hormone oxytocin

A

stimulates contraction of uterus during birth
flow of milk from mammary glands

296
Q

define the scrotum

A

a sac of skin that contains the testes of most mammals

297
Q

define the vas deferens

A

a tube that leads from the epididymis to the urethra - allows flor of urine and semen out of the penis

298
Q

define semen

A

the fluid expelled from a penis during ejaculation
composed of sperm and fluids secreted by the accessory reproductive glands

299
Q

which hormone stimulates testosterone secretion by interstitial cells?

A

LH

300
Q

which type of feedback is present in the hormonal control of male reproduction?

A

majorly negative feedback

301
Q

which day(s) of the menstrual cycle is body temperature at its lowest?

A

days 13-14

302
Q

which day(s) of the menstrual cycle is body temperature at its highest?

A

day 17

303
Q

define embryonic diapause

A

a programmed state of arrested or profoundly slowed embryonic development

304
Q

define delayed implantation

A

embryonic diapause in placental mammals

305
Q

define puberty

A

the process that leads to sexual maturity in humans

306
Q

what is puberty triggered by?

A

an increase of gonadal hormones - testosterone and estradiol

307
Q

define Rh blood typing

A

a form of blood typing based on the presence or absence of the Rh protein
Rh+ people have protein
Rh- people don’t have protein

308
Q

an organisms body plan is laid out during what?

A

embryogenesis

309
Q

define embryogenesis

A

the establishment of polarity, tissue layers, organs, and body plan

310
Q

conclusions about human development are largely derived from what?

A

information collected on development of other animals

311
Q

define differentiation

A

the process whereby originally similar cells follow different developmental pathways (become “differentiated”)

312
Q

define determination

A

the point during development at which a cell acquires a certain fate - leads to differentiation

313
Q

define morphogenesis

A

the development of form by growth

314
Q

define growth

A

an irreversible increase in size that requires an increase in cell size and cell number (by mitosis)

315
Q

what determines the position of the blastopore?

A

the point of sperm entry - blastopore develops on opposite side of egg as where the sperm entered

316
Q

what 4 important things occur because of the ions released in an egg upon sperm entry?

A

prevention of additional sperm entry
increased metabolism
protein synthesis starts
reorganization of cytoplasm

317
Q

the sperm cytoplasm is discarded except for what part? why?

A

the centriole because it eventually becomes the centrosome, which is critical for mitosis

318
Q

define polarity

A

the difference between one end of an organism or structure and the other

319
Q

what is the significance of asymmetric drosophila eggs?

A

drosophila eggs already have a designated anterior end before development

nurse cells cluster on one side of an oocyte and produce bicoid mRNA
after sperm entry, bicoid mRNA is translated into protein
high levels of bcd protein starts the process of anterior development

320
Q

define the animal pole

A

the dark side of an amphibian egg that contains more pigments in the cytoplasm

321
Q

define the vegetal pole

A

the light side of an amphibian egg that contains less pigments in the cytoplasm

322
Q

sperm can only enter an egg through the ______ (animal/vegetal) pole
why?

A

animal pole because its the only side with sperm binding sites

323
Q

define the gray crescent

A

a rearrangement and overlap of the vegetal and animal poles after sperm entry

324
Q

define cytoplasmic determinants

A

materials in the cytoplasm, the spatial distribution of which may determine such things as embryonic axes and cell determination.

325
Q

large animal egg cells begin to divide after ________

A

fertilization

326
Q

after an animal egg cell begins to divide, there _____ (is/is not) growth between events of mitosis

A

is not

327
Q

after each animal egg cell division, each cell is ______ (half/double/the same) the size of its mother

A

half the size

328
Q

define cleavage

A

early cell divisions of an animal zygote - divides the embryo in half without increasing its mass

329
Q

define the blastula

A

a hollow sphere of cells in an animal embryo surrounding a central cavity

330
Q

define a blastomere

A

any of the cells produced by the early divisions of a fertilized animal egg

331
Q

define fate (in terms of development)

A

at a certain point, blastomeres become restricted in what their daughter cells can form/carry out

332
Q

define a fate map

A

a diagram of the blastula showing which cells (blastomeres) are “fated” to contribute to specific tissues and organs in the mature body

333
Q

define mosaic development

A

a pattern of animal embryonic development in which each blastomere contributes a specific part of the adult body

334
Q

mosaic development: tests performed on a snail’s 2-celled embryo showed that at the 2-cell stage, each cell is….

A

fated to produce a specific portion of the animal

335
Q

define regulative development

A

a pattern of animal embryonic development in which the fates of the first blastomeres are not fixed

336
Q

regulative development: tests performed on sea urchin embryos showed that while each cell has the capacity to make an entire animal, it normally what?
what did this show?

A

does not when in an intact embryo
showed that cells communicate with each other to develop the embryo into a complete unit

337
Q

the blastula develops into a gastrula by what process?

A

invagination of cells at the vegetal pole

338
Q

what does the gastrula develop into in the complete animal?

A

the gut

339
Q

define the archenteron

A

the early stages of the gut as gastrulation takes place

340
Q

define gastrulation

A

the process by which blastomeres move relative to one another, and from the exterior to the interior, resulting in the three germ layers of the embryo

341
Q

for frog embryo gastrulation, the ________ marks the location of gastrulation

A

grey crescent

342
Q

in a frog embryo, the _______ (animal/vegetal) pole contains yolk and has cells larger than the _______ (animal/vegetal) cells

A

vegetal, animal

343
Q

vegetal pole cells divide ________ (faster/slower) than animal pole cells

A

slower

344
Q

the mesoderm is the origin of the _______

A

coelom

345
Q

the _______ is the space that allows muscle contractions in internal organs independent of muscles in the body wall

A

mesoderm

346
Q

what are the 3 germ layers?

A

ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm

347
Q

define what the ectoderm makes up (6)

A

epidermis (skin), fur, hair, claws, sweat glands, cells that make pigments

348
Q

what is the purpose of the ectoderm

A

outer barrier of body

349
Q

define what the endoderm makes up (5)

A

gut, lungs, liver, pancreas, gall bladder

350
Q

what is the purpose of the endoderm

A

gas exchange for respiration, digestion

351
Q

define what the mesoderm makes up (5)

A

notochord, bones, muscles (including heart), blood, dermis (layer under epidermis)

352
Q

what is the purpose of the mesoderm?

A

support & circulation

353
Q

the formation of the germ layers is called _______

A

organogenesis

354
Q

the dorsal lip at gastrulation is known as the organizer because it produces…..
which…..

A

B-catenin, which triggers the production of transcription factors important for development

355
Q

define the zone of polarizing activity (ZPA)

A

tissue near the base of the developing limb bud that determines the anterior–posterior axis of the developing limb

356
Q

the ZPA produces _____, which induces pinky development

A

Shh

357
Q

define apoptosis

A

programmed (wanted) cell death

358
Q

why does the development of the digits employ apoptosis?

A

to separate the digits from each other by killing connecting tissues

359
Q

define totipotency

A

ability of a cell to give rise to all the different kinds of cells in a species

360
Q

skin and blood etc. cells constantly need replacement cells, which are produced by ______

A

stem cells

361
Q

define multipotent

A

ability to give rise to multiple types of cells, but not all types

362
Q

salmon need to maintain ______ (higher/lower) salt levels in their body than in the surrounding environment

A

lower

363
Q

saltwater fish ______ (lose/gain) water by osmosis and ______ (lose/gain) salt by diffusion

A

lose, gain

364
Q

define osmosis

A

movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane, from a hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution (low –> high osmotic pressure)

365
Q

define isosmotic

A

equal osmotic pressure of 2 solutions separated by a barrier

366
Q

define hyposmotic

A

a solution with the lower osmotic pressure

367
Q

define hyperosmotic

A

a solution with the higher osmotic pressure

368
Q

define diffusion (osmosis)

A

net movement of molecules/particles resulting in even distribution of particles without barriers

369
Q

define concentration gradient

A

net movement of ions/solutes occurs along this gradient in diffusion or osmosis

370
Q

define osmotic pressure

A

total concentration of solutes in the solution

371
Q

freshwater animals are ______ (hyperosmotic/hyposmotic/isosmotic) to their environment

A

hyperosmotic

372
Q

freshwater fish ____ (do/do not) drink water and salt water fish ____ (do/do not) drink water

A

do not, do

373
Q

invertebrates in seawater are ______ (hyperosmotic/hyposmotic/isosmotic) to seawater
why?

A

isosmotic
having the same osmotic pressure takes less energy to maintain

374
Q

bony fish in seawater are (hyperosmotic/hyposmotic/isosmotic) to their environment

A

hyposmotic

375
Q

define salt glands

A

parts of an animal that get rid of extra salt when their kidneys can’t do all the work

376
Q

what kind of animals have salt glands?

A

birds, lizards, and turtles

377
Q

define osmotic conformers
who are they?

A

osmotic pressure of an animal’s body fluids varies in tandem with their environment
most invertebrates are conformers

378
Q

define osmotic regulators

A

animals that maintain a nearly constant internal osmotic pressure despite the range in their environment

379
Q

what do land animals need to excrete? (4)

A

wastes, CO2, toxins, and nitrogenous waste

380
Q

define malpighian tubules

A

blind-ended tubes in ants where primary urine is produced - between mid & hind gut & extended out of the gut

381
Q

define kidneys

A

tubular structures that remove fluids to the body’s external environment

382
Q

what is the purpose of kidneys

A

regulate composition & volume of blood plasma

383
Q

define urine

A

an aqueous solution from the blood plasma discharged from the kidneys to the external environment

384
Q

define bowman’s capsule

A

the structure in a nephron (main structure in kidneys)

385
Q

what are the 3 main processes of nephrons?

A

filtration
tubular reabsorption
tubular secretion

386
Q

define diuresis

A

a high volume of dilute urine that increases urine production

387
Q

define antidiuresis

A

a low volume of concentrated urine that decreases urine production

388
Q

what is ADH?

A

a hormone produced by the hypothalamus & secreted by the posterior pituitary gland that uses a negative feedback loop to maintain homeostasis of blood volume and osmolarity

389
Q

define nitrogenous wastes

A

toxic products of metabolism of proteins & nucleic acids

390
Q

define piloting

A

an animal’s ability to know their way around based on the structure of their environment

391
Q

define migration

A

movement from one location to another - animals remain for a substantial length of time & return periodically

392
Q

define proximate behavioral cause

A

the immediate mechanistic causes of an individual’s behavior

393
Q

define ultimate behavioral cause

A

causes that led to evolution of a behavior over evolutionary time

394
Q

define fixed action patterns

A

actions expressed without prior learning & that are resistant to modification by learning

395
Q

what do fixed action patterns suggest?

A

behavior is controlled by the nervous system

396
Q

define artificial selection

A

selective breeding of organisms to increase frequency of a favored trait from one generation to the next

397
Q

behavior is ______ (predictable/unpredictable) in response to external stimuli

A

predictable

398
Q

define biological determinism

A

idea that an individual’s attributes are determined by their genetic endowment - behavior hardwired by genetics

399
Q

biological determinism may only be true for ____ (simple/complex) animals

A

simple

400
Q

define epigenetics

A

the study of changes in expression of a gene or set of genes that occur without change in DNA sequence

401
Q

over evolutionary time, attributes found in a species evolve _______ (individually/together)

A

together

402
Q

define learning

A

an ability of an individual animal to modify its behaviors as a consequence of individual experiences earlier in its life

403
Q

define innate behaviors
give 2 examples

A

behaviors that appear to be genetically programmed
exs. spider web making & egg-rolling response in geese

404
Q

define monogamous mating strategy

A

each individual only mates with 1 other over at least 1 breeding period

405
Q

define promiscuous mating strategy

A

each male & female mate with as many as possible

406
Q

define polygyny mating strategy

A

1 male mates with more than 1 female in a single breeding season

407
Q

define polyandry mating strategy

A

1 female mates with several males - rare

408
Q

define sexual dimorphism

A

a pronounced difference in morphologies of 2 sexes within a species

409
Q

define feedforward

A

a feature of a regulatory system that changes a set point in anticipation - amplifies response

diversity of form and function (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions