module 4 (exam 3) - animal diversity Flashcards
1
Q
define the cochlea
A
a coiled, fluid-filled tube where sound energy is transduced to electric signals
2
Q
sound pressure waves travel through the _____ and vibrate the _____
A
auditory canal; tympanic membrane
3
Q
the _____ transmit vibrations of the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the _____
A
ossicles; cochlea
4
Q
vibrations at the _____ create pressure waves in fluid-filled cochlear canals
A
oval window
5
Q
pressure waves in _____ flex adjacent membranes
A
cochlear canals
6
Q
when the _____ is flexed, it bends sterocilia on hair cells in the _____
A
organ of Corti
7
Q
the movements of sterocilia are transduced into action potentials in the _____
A
auditory nerve
8
Q
define the skeletal system
A
what most animals use for a rigid support structure to attach muscles to and move
9
Q
define a hydrostatic skeleton
A
a volume of fluid enclosed inside a body cavity & surrounded by muscle
10
Q
who has hydrostatic skeletons?
A
soft bodied invertebrates (ex. worms)
11
Q
define an exoskeleton
A
an external skeleton - a rigid outer surface to which muscles are attached
12
Q
who has exoskeletons?
A
arthropods & insects
13
Q
define an endoskeleton
A
an internal skeleton covered by other, soft body tissues
14
Q
who has endoskeletons?
A
vertebrates
15
Q
what causes the rigidity of animals with hydrostatic skeletons?
A
high internal fluid pressure
16
Q
in what parts of the body do humans rely on a hydrostatic skeleton?
A
in the discs of vertebral columns and in articular cartilage of joints
17
Q
_____ cause segments of exoskeletal animals to move
A
muscle contractions
18
Q
which animals have simple exoskeletons? which have complex?
A
mollusks have simple
arthropods have complex
19
Q
define a cuticle (skeletal)
A
a type of exoskeleton that covers the outer surface of arthropods
20
Q
exoskeletons are made of what?
A
chitin - a nitrogen containing polysaccharide
21
Q
what are the 3 bone shapes in an endoskeleton?
A
rod, plate, or tube-like
22
Q
in an endoskeleton, bones are attached to each other with what?
A
joints
23
Q
what are the 2 types of connective tissues in an endoskeleton?
A
cartilage and bone connective tissue
24
Q
define cartilage cells
A
a matrix of tough & rubbery mix of polysaccharides & collagen protein
25
what 2 types of places in the body is cartilage found in?
where stiffness & resilience are needed (ex. joints)
stiff & flexible supportive structures (ex. nose & voice box)
26
what is bone made of?
collagen fibers & calcium phosphate
27
what makes bone hard?
calcium phosphate crystals
28
bone is a reservoir for what?
calcium
29
what are the 3 types of living cells of bone?
osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts
30
what is the function of osteoblasts?
put new matrix material on bone surfaces
31
what is the function of osteocytes?
former osteoblasts that are now inside cavities in bone
32
what is the function of osteoclasts?
break down old bone & release calcium from bone into extracellular fluid
33
what are the 2 main types of bone?
membranous bone & cartilage bone
34
what is the function of membranous bone?
give an example of where it is found
forms on a scaffold of connective tissue membrane
found on outer bones of skull
35
what is the function of cartilage bone?
give an examples of where it is found
first forms as a cartilaginous structure that looks like future mature bone, then slowly hardens/ossifies into bone
found in bones of limbs
36
T or F: cartilage bone can grow through the ossification process
true
37
in what direction does ossification proceed?
first in the center of long bone, then outward at ends
38
define epiphyseal plates
places where cartilage that forms between ossification centers
39
what is compact bone?
solid & hard bone that forms the hard white outer region
40
what is cancellous bone like?
it is rigid but has internal cavities & looks spongy
41
define bone marrow
living tissue that stores fat or produces red blood cells in bone cavities
42
define spongy bone
it is honeycombed with many small cavities within compact bone
43
where is spongy bound found within a bone?
more at the ends of long bones
44
define a joint
2 or more bones coming together
45
muscles can work in how many directions?
only 1
46
define tendons
straps of connective tissue that connect muscles to bones
47
define ligaments
attach bone to bone
48
define a fulcrum (lever systems)
a joint between where the load is and where the force is
49
define a load arm (lever systems)
the distance between the load & fulcrum
50
define a force arm (lever systems)
distance between force & fulcrum
51
what is the function of a class 1 lever?
give an example in the human body
the load moves opposite direction as application of force
ex. raising chin puts force on muscles in back of neck
52
where is the fulcrum located relative to the load and force in a class 1 lever?
fulcrum located equally between force & load points
53
what are the relative locations of the fulcrum, load, and force points in a class 2 lever?
load is located between the fulcrum and the points of force application
54
what is the function of a class 2 lever?
give an examples in the human body
makes it possible to move heavy objects a short distance
ex. standing on tip toes (fulcrum) applies force to calf muscle
55
what are the relative locations of the fulcrum, load, and force points in a class 3 lever?
point of force application is between the fulcrum and the load
56
what is the function of a class 3 lever?
give an examples in the human body
makes it possible to move loads over large distances & with speed
ex. throwing a ball - load is in hand, force is in bicep, fulcrum is elbow
57
define incisors (teeth)
teeth at front of the mouth
58
define canines (teeth)
specialized teeth for piercing prey bodies
59
define premolars (teeth)
teeth in back (next to canines) adapted for crushing and shredding tougher foods
60
define molars (teeth)
teeth in way back adapted for crushing and shredding tougher foods
61
what is the temporomandibular joint?
in mammals, a specialized jaw joint
62
how many teeth do adult humans have?
32
63
define adaptive radiation
diversification of one species into many that live in different habitats
64
define pathogens
harmful organisms and viruses that can cause disease
65
an animal's defense system depends on what?
the ability to recognize between the animal's own molecules and the invader's
66
what are the 3 phases of the defense system?
recognition, activation, and effector
67
name 6 human defense systems that are present at all times
defenses in the airway, skin, eyes, ears, nose, and digestive tract
68
name 4 defense systems that animals besides humans may have
barks, leaf cuticle, exoskeleton, egg shells
69
define the innate/nonspecific defense mechanism
a genetically inherited mechanism that provides the first line of defense against pathogens
70
which animals have innate defense mechanisms?
all animals
71
define adaptive defenses
mechanisms aimed at specific pathogens
72
which animals have adaptive defense mechanisms?
only vertebrates
73
adaptive defenses are activated by what?
innate immune system
74
define antibodies
proteins that recognize, bind, and help destroy specific pathogens
75
antibodies can be made by what defense system?
adaptive only
76
define immunity
when an organism has sufficient defenses to avoid biological invasion by a pathogen
77
which protein is critical to immune response?
what does it do?
toll proteins begin a cascade that eventually produces defense molecules
78
what does PAMPs stand for?
pathogen-associated molecular patterns
79
T or F: there is no coordination between innate and adaptive immune responses
false - there is coordination
80
define white blood cells AKA leukocytes
specialized cells for immune system functions
81
define phagocytes
large cells that ingest pathogens by phagocytosis
82
define lymphocytes
adaptive & innate immunity cells including T & B cells
83
what type of cell is a mast cell?
what is the function of mast cells?
phagocyte
releases histamine & other signals that constrict blood flow from a wound and increase blood flow to a wound area
84
what type of cell is a neutrophil?
what is its function?
phagocyte
stimulates inflammation & kills invading cells via phagocytosis
85
what type of cell is a macrophage?
what is its function?
phagocyte
releases cytokines that recruit other cells to a wound site and stimulates activities in wound area, also kills cells by phagocytosis
86
what 4 places in the human body is lymphoid tissue found?
thymus, bone marrow, spleen, & lymph nodes
87
define blood plasma
blood solution with ions, small molecule solutes, and soluble proteins
88
define lymph
a fluid derived from blood and other tissues but has no red blood cells
89
what are 3 things in the first line of innate defense?
skin, mucous membranes, and chemicals
90
what are 5 things in the second line of innate defense
phagocytosis, complement proteins, interferons, inflammation, fever
91
the first line of defense is _____ (physical barrier; cell) derived and the second line of defense is _____ (physical barrier; cell) derived
physical barrier, cell
92
define mucous
a barrier defense against pathogens in innate immunity in animals - secreted by mucous membranes
93
define lysozyme
an enzyme in saliva, tears, and nasal secretions that hydrolyzes bacterial cell walls
94
define defensins
a type of protein made by phagocytes that kills bacteria and enveloped viruses by insertion into their cell membranes
95
pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) do what?
recognize nonself molecules
96
define natural killer cells
a class of lymphocytes - distinguish infected body cells and lyse pathogens
97
define inflammation
tissue response to an injury or infection
includes redness, swelling, and heat
98
define allergic reactions
a harmless, nonself molecule binds to mast cells which cause a release of histamine and inflammation
99
define autoimmune diseases
immune systems can't tell difference between self & nonself molecules & attacks the body
100
define sepsis
inflammation from an invading bacterial infection spreads throughout the body, dilating blood vessels and dropping blood pressure
101
name 5 characteristics of the innate immune system
occurs in all animals
both cell-mediated and secreted components
rapid response
broad response against pathogens
no memory when infections recur
102
name 5 characteristics of the adaptive immune system
occurs only in vertebrates
both cell-mediated and secreted components
slow response
specific response against pathogens
memory & speed when infections recur
103
what experiment led to learning how immunity works?
testing diptheria using guinea pigs & injecting them with blood serum
104
define active immunity
acquired immunity from one's own production of antibodies in response to presence of nonself molecules
105
define passive immunity
the process of acquiring immunity from antibodies received from another individual
106
what are the 2 parts of adaptive immunity?
humoral and cell mediated
107
how does humoral adaptive immunity work?
through body fluids - does not require cell to cell contact
utilizes B cells that make circulating antibodies active against extracellular pathogens
108
what are B cells (lymphocytes) & what is their function?
white blood cells that produce antibodies
109
how does cell mediated (AKA cellular) adaptive immunity work?
requires cells to contact one another to work
uses T cell receptors and T cells directed towards fighting off pathogens
110
what is a T cell receptor and what are its functions?
a protein complex found on the surface of T cells that is responsible for recognizing fragments of antigens
111
what is a T cell (lymphocyte) and what are its functions?
white blood cells responsible for responding to antigens, including allergies & tumors
112
name 4 key features of adaptive immunity that make it successful?
specific production of antibodies and binding of antigens
ability to distinguish self and nonself molecules
ability to respond to many nonself molecules
immunological memory
113
define immunological memory
the immune system's ability to remember antigens on a particular type of pathogen that it had previously come into contact with
114
define antigen
any (foreign) molecule that elicits an immune response
115
define epitopes (AKA antigenic determinants)
sites/regions on the antigen that bind to T cell receptors & antibodies to be recognized by the immune system
116
compare primary vs secondary immune responses
primary: after 1st antigen infection, antibodies & T cells are produced
secondary: after 1st immune response, is faster & more powerful than primary response
117
define herd immunity
idea that an unvaccinated person won't get sick because their probability of contacting an infectious person is low
118
what is the required % of immune people in a population to achieve herd immunity?
90% - different sources say different things
119
define cytotoxic T cells
workhorses of cellular immune system - can kill many strong pathogens including cancer cells
120
what are the 3 phases of immune responses?
recognition, activation, and effector
121
what happens during the recognition phase?
an antigen is inserted into the cell membrane of an antigen-presenting cell with unique antigen binding structures protruding from the cell membrane
122
what happens during the activation phase?
T-helper cells recognize the antigen on a cell & further propagates & releases cytokines that stimulate B & cytotoxic T cells
123
what happens with humoral immunity during the effector phase?
cells of B clones make antibodies, which bind to pathogenic cells - bound antibodies attract phagocytes to ingest & destroy the pathogen
124
what happens with cellular immunity during the effector phase?
clones of cytotoxic T cells bind to cells with antigens exposed & destroy them
125
define T-helper cells
T cells that have receptor proteins for specific antigens
126
antibodies (AKA immunoglobulins) have how many antigen-binding sites?
what is the name classifying this #?
minimum of 2 sites
bivalent = 2
127
antibodies have how many polypeptide chains? how are they classified?
4 chains - 2 long heavy chains and 2 short light chains
128
define agglutination
binding of multiple antigens and multiple antibodies
129
IgG antibodies many up what % of total circulating antibodies?
80%
130
what is the structure of IgG antibodies & where are they found in the body?
monomers
found free-floating in blood plasma
131
define opsonization
a process by which microbes in blood and tissue fluids bind IgG antibodies and thereby are “tagged” for destruction by phagocytes
132
give the process of opsonization by IgG antibodies (2 steps)
1) antibody molecules bind to pathogen AND to receptors on the surface of a macrophage
2) binding of the antibodies to receptors activates phagocytosis
133
define a monoclonal response
immune response against a single epitope - creates a single clone of B cells
134
define a polyclonal response
immune response against multiple epitopes - creates multiple clones of B cells
135
define antigen presentation
fragments on the cell surfaces that function as antigens
136
what are the benefits of antigen presentation?
allows interaction & communication between innate and adaptive immune systems
137
different types of immune cells are all derived from what type of cells (and where are they found)?
stem cells in bone marrow
138
stem cells in bone marrow make a first differentiation into what 2 kinds of stem immune cells?
myeloid stem cells & lymphoid stem cells
139
lymphoid stem cells go on to produce what 2 immune cells?
where are the 2 types found?
B lymphocytes (mature in bone marrow)
T lymphocytes (mature in thymus)
140
what does binding of cytotoxic T cells result in?
causes the death of the cell displaying the antigen
141
what does binding of T-helper cells result in?
activation of the adaptive immune response
142
define the major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
a genetic system that allows large proteins in immune system cells to identify compatible or foreign proteins
143
what 3 cell types are used in cellular immunity effector cells?
cytotoxic T cells, T-helper cells, and MHCs
144
give 4 characteristics of a T cell receptor's structure
has a place for antigens & MHC to bind
is a glycoprotein
has 2 polypeptide chains (alpha and beta)
has both variable and constant regions
145
T cell receptors can only bind to antigens when?
when there is an MHC protein on the surface of the antigen-presenting cell
146
where are MHC I molecules present?
on the surface of every nucleated cells in mammals
147
where are MHC II molecules present?
on the surfaces of macrophages, B cells, and dendritic cells
148
define "tregs"
regulatory T cells - ensure that immune responses don't get out of control, mediate tolerance to self antigens
149
how do tregs function (2 steps)
1) treg cell binds to the MHC complex of a cell presenting a self-antigen
2) if a Tc or TH cell is also bound to the antigen-presenting cell, the treg releases cytokines, which suppress the Tc or TH cell response and cause apoptosis
150
define human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
a retrovirus that attacks the body's immune system
151
define acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)
a disease that results from an HIV infection once it has progressed to a certain point
152
how does HIV/AIDS take over the body?
reduces # of T-helper cells, macrophages, & antigen-presenting dendritic cells, which allows HIV infection to increase and destroys immune response ability
153
define zoonosis
a disease that can be given to humans from animals
154
define a vaccine
either an inactive form of a pathogen or an antigenic compound of the pathogen
155
how does a vaccine promote immunity?
it generates memory cells without making the person sick
156
define endocrine cells
cells that secrete hormones into blood
157
which 2 types of body cells work together to control other cell types in the body?
endocrine and nerve cells
158
define a target cell
a cell that receives a chemical signal from a nerve or endocrine cell
159
what are the 2 main differences between the endocrine and nervous systems?
endocrine: slow and broadcast
nervous: fast and addressed
160
define broadcast
the signal sent affects many other cells on the way to affecting the target cell
161
how does the endocrine system transfer hormones?
through the blood
162
define addressed
the signal sent only affects the target cell
163
how does the nervous system transfer signals?
through chemical signaling
164
the nervous system has finer, more rapid movement of skeletal muscles.
give an example of this
athletic movement
165
the endocrine system has more widespread, prolonged functions.
give 3 examples of this
development, reproductive cycles, long changes in metabolism
166
define paracrines
secreted by one cell and affects the functions of neighboring cells
167
define autocrines
secreted by a cell into surrounding tissue fluids, and can also affect itself
168
paracrines and autocrines allow chemical signaling over a _____ (long/short) distance
short distance
169
define pheromones
chemical signaling molecules that an animal releases into the environment that effects other individuals of their species
170
pheromones allow chemical signaling over a ____ (long/short) distance
long distance
171
define endocrine glands
glands without ducts, have endocrine cells that release hormones into the blood
172
T or F: endocrine glands are only single celled
false, endocrine glands can be single cells scattered throughout tissues or found grouped together to make a tissue/organ
173
give an example of where endocrine glands are found single celled & spread out
the epithelium lining of the midgut
174
give an example of where endocrine glands are found grouped together in a tissue/organ
the thyroid gland
175
give 6 examples of endocrine glands
adrenal cortex, ovaries, pancreas, parathyroid, pituitary, testes, thymus
176
define exocrine glands
glands with ducts - secretions are released from ducts
177
do exocrine glands have a signaling function?
no
178
give 5 examples of exocrine glands
mammary, prostate, salivary, sweat, tear glands
179
define a hormone
a chemical released into the blood by endocrine cells that helps to regulate the function of other cells
180
T or F: hormones are only successful in high concentrations
false - hormones can be successful in low concentrations
181
how do hormones affect target cells?
they noncovalently bind to a target cell's receptor protein molecules
182
give 5 functions of hormones
control growth
development
nutrient homeostasis
reproductive cycles
water balance
183
define neurosecretory (neuroendocrine) cells
endocrine cells that look like neurons - they're excitable cells that propagate action potentials
184
where are neurosecretory cells found?
in the CNS
185
which cells are the "link" between the nervous and endocrine systems?
neurosecretory cells
186
define non-neural endocrine cells
endocrine cells that are no excitable
187
give an example of a type of non-neural endocrine cell
pancreatic beta cells (secrete insulin)
188
what are the 3 kinds of hormones?
peptide, steroid, and amine
189
define peptide hormones
water-soluble chains of amino acids
190
peptide hormones bind to receptor proteins on the external surface of target cells - why?
because peptide hormones are water-soluble and therefore can't pass through the lipid membrane
191
give an example of a peptide hormone
insulin
192
define steroid hormones
non-water-soluble hormones from cholesterols
193
where are the receptor proteins on target cells of steroid hormones?
inside target cells, but sometimes also on the surface
194
give an example of a steroid hormone
sex steroids
195
define amine hormones
small modified amino acids - some are water-soluble and some are not
196
where are the receptor proteins on target cells of amine hormones?
sometimes on the surface of target cell
197
give an example of an amine hormone
adrenal hormone epinephrine (adrenaline)
198
define intracellular receptors
receptor proteins that bind its ligand inside the cell
199
which hormones use intracellular receptors?
steroid hormones and some amine hormones
200
why is gene expression altered when hormones bind to intracellular receptors?
because the activated hormone-receptor complex functions as a transcription factor inside the nucleus
201
the endocrine system uses what kind of feedback system?
negative feedback
202
where is the pituitary gland located?
at the base of the human brain connected to the hypothalamus
203
what are the 2 parts of the pituitary gland that have 2 functional links with the brain?
the anterior and posterior pituitary glands
204
how does the posterior pituitary gland function?
hormones are released into the post pit and are diffused into blood capillaries
the hormones then leave the post pit via blood
205
define the hypothalamus
the part of the brain below the thalamus
helps with learning, memory, spatial orientation, and control of hormones
206
define the anterior pituitary gland
an endocrine gland made of non-neural endocrine cells
207
define tropins/trophic hormones
hormones that control the activity of other endocrine glands
208
which 2 hormones does the posterior pituitary secrete?
ADH and oxytocin
209
what 6 hormones does the anterior pituitary secrete?
ACTH
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
luteinizing hormone (LH)
growth hormone (GH)
prolactin (PRL)
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
210
endocrine cells are organized into what?
control axes
211
define an axis (endocrine system)
a system in which endocrine cells act on each other in a sequence
212
what does HPA axis stand for?
the hypothalamus-pituitary gland-adrenal cortex
213
what is the function of the HPA axis
controlling secretion of adrenal cortex hormones and responses to long-term stress
214
define cortisol
the primary glucocorticoid in mammals
215
define releasing hormone (RH)
a hormone secreted by neuroendocrine cells in the hypothalamus that travels to the anterior pituitary gland
216
give the 6 steps of the endocrine pathway
stimulus --> endocrine cell --> endocrine signal --> blood --> effector cell --> response
217
give the 8 steps of the neuroendocrine pathway
stimulus --> sensor cell --> neural signal --> CNS --> neuroendocrine signal --> blood --> effector cell --> response
218
give the 11 steps of the neuroendocrine-to-endocrine pathway
stimulus --> sensor cell --> neural signal --> CNS --> neuroendocrine signal --> blood --> endocrine cell --> endocrine signal --> blood --> effector cell --> response
219
define goiters
a hormone deficiency disease that causes the enlargement of the thyroid gland - results from insufficient iodine and its production of a negative feedback loop
220
define androgens
hormones that will lead to the formation of a penis and scrotum
221
define testosterone
an androgen steroid & main hormone produced by testes
222
define estrogens
hormones that will lead to the formation of a vagina
223
presence of mullerian ducts in an embryo will result in development of what?
fallopian tubes, a uterus, and vagina
224
presence of wolffian ducts in an embryo will result in development of what?
sperm ducts, prostate, seminal vesicles
225
define the importance of insect molting for development
since insects have a hard exoskeleton, they must shed it and make a new one in order to grow
226
which hormone in insects guides it through development?
juvenile hormone (JH)
227
define sex (action)
a mechanism by which genes of 2 individuals are combined to produce offspring
228
define sexual reproduction
each parent produces specialized reproductive cells (gametes)
229
define gametes
give 2 examples of them
reproductive cells that are a product of meiosis
ex. sperm & eggs
230
define somatic cells
other cells in the body that are not gametes or germ cells
231
each gamete cell has ____ (half/equal/double) the # of chromosomes as somatic cells (1n)
half the # of chromosomes as somatic cells
232
meiosis II produces how many haploid daughter nuclei?
4 haploid daughter nuclei
233
define eggs (AKA ova)
what is their chromosome number in terms of n?
large, nonmotile cells from the ovaries
1n
234
define sperm (AKA spermatozoa)
what is their chromosome number in terms of n?
small, motile cells from the testes
1n
235
an egg & sperm fuse to form a what?
what is the resulting chromosome number in terms of n?
a zygote
2n
236
define offspring
the next generation of an organism
237
define spawning
an external fertilization method: a release of sperm and eggs into the external environment
238
which organisms commonly use the spawning mechanism?
marine animals, specifically bony fish
239
define asexual reproduction
offspring from a single parent, often by mitosis
240
offspring by asexual reproduction are genetically _____ (identical/not identical) to its parent
identical
241
define budding
a form of asexual reproduction in which a more or less complete new organism grows from the body of the parent organism, eventually detaching itself
242
define fission
a parent organism splits in 2+ pieces to make new individuals
243
define parthenogenesis
development of offspring from an unfertilized egg
244
are offspring of parthenogenesis usually haploid or diploid?
haploid
245
define regeneration
which organisms does this occur in?
a complete organism can be made from small fragments of the animal's body
occurs in sponges, echinoderms, & worms
246
which organisms does parthenogenesis occur in?
arthropods, fishes, amphibians, and reptiles
247
most species that reproduce via parthenogenesis also use sexual reproductive behavior - why?
give the whiptail lizard example
because of the hormonal control of sex role
ex. whiptail lizards are all female, but sexual behavior is necessary for ovulation to occur, so the lizards take terms acting the male role in reproductive behavior, depending on when estrogen and progesterone levels are high
248
what is the advantage to asexual reproduction?
it maintains successful genotypes in a stable environment
249
what is the main disadvantage to asexual reproduction?
there is a lack of genetic diversity, which is what natural selection needs to adapt to environmental changes
250
sexual reproduction is more common in _____ (stable/unstable) environments
stable
251
parthenogenesis is most common is _____ (stable/variable) environements
variable environments, such as extreme latitudes
252
what are two benefits of sexual reproduction?
DNA recombination (mixing up genotypes) and helping to get rid of deleterious mutations
253
define primary reproductive (sex) organs
the gonads: ovaries and testes
254
define accessory reproductive (sex) organs
other reproductive organs (non-gonads), like uterus, glands for egg shells, penis, and vas deferens
255
define secondary sexual characteristics
give examples
properties of non-reproductive organs and tissues that are unique in each sex
ex. ability to nurse, menstrual cycle, facial and chest hair, deeper voices
256
define gametogenesis
processes that produce gametes
257
define germ cells
diploid cells that can use meiosis to make gametes - produces sperm
258
define polar bodies
small cells produced by unequal division of cytoplasm in cell division - occurs in female meiosis
259
define sertoli cells
somatic cells that assist sperm production
260
define interstitial cells (AKA Leydig cells)
somatic cells that secrete testosterone
261
what does the head of a sperm cell contain?
the nucleus and acrosome (for DNA and enzymes)
262
what does the neck of a sperm cell contain?
the centriole for spindle formation
263
what does the midpiece of a sperm cell contain?
the mitochondria for ATP
264
what does the tail of a sperm cell contain?
microtubules for movement
265
define the ovarian follicle
a somatic cell that helps develop the ovum & support cells
266
define ovulation
the release of an ovum from an ovary
267
define oviduct
tubes that ova are released into from the ovaries to go to the uterus
268
define fertilization
the fusion of an ovum and sperm
269
define external fertilization
when fertilization happens outside the body of a female in water
ex. spawning
270
define internal fertilization
a male inserts sperm into the reproductive tract of a female
271
define sex determination
the process where the sex of an individual becomes fixed
272
define environmental sex determination
the sex is not determined at fertilization, but by the temperature it experiences during embryonic development
273
define sequential hermaphrodites
which organisms does this occur in?
an animal can be male at one time and female at another
ex. fish
274
define hermaphrodites
animals that can make both sperm and ova
275
why did the abilities of hermaphrodites and sequential hermaphrodites evolve?
to keep up with changing circumstances - this ability gives a greater lifetime reproductive output
276
define progesterone
a steroid sex hormone that maintains pregnancy and is secreted by corpus luteum and the placenta
277
define implantation
the entry of a blastocyst into tissue of the endometrium
278
define a blastocyst
an early embryo
279
define spontaneous ovulation
the timing of ovulation & LH hormone surge is controlled by animal-originating hormonal cycles
280
define induced ovulation
ovulation triggered by copulation (sexual intercourse)
281
which animals experience spontaneous ovulation?
humans & other primates
282
which animals experience induced ovulation?
rabbits, shrews, and some cats
283
define menstruation
the discharge of bloody material from the uterus out of the vagine
284
define menstrual cycles
cycles of the reproductive system: oocytes periodically mature and the reproductive tract prepares for possible pregnancy
285
define estrous cycles
cycles of behavior where an organism experiences a period of sexual receptivity and express a readiness to mate
286
which animals experience estrous cycles?
mammals other than primates
287
positive feedback occurs during which days of the ovarian/uterine cycle?
days 12-14
288
when does negative feedback occur during the ovarian/uterine cycle
throughout most of the cycle
289
give the pathway of hormonal control of the ovarian and uterine cycles
hypothalamus --> GnRH --> anterior pituitary --> LH/FSH --> ovary --> estrogen and progesterone --> uterus
290
ovulation occurs on which day of the ovarian cycle?
day 14
291
which hormonal surge causes ovulation?
LH
292
define placenta
a structure in which large arrays of maternal and embryonic blood vessels are closely put together
293
which type of feedback helps the birth process?
positive feedback
294
where is oxytocin produced & released to?
made in the hypothalamus and released into the posterior pituitary
295
give 2 major functions of the hormone oxytocin
stimulates contraction of uterus during birth
flow of milk from mammary glands
296
define the scrotum
a sac of skin that contains the testes of most mammals
297
define the vas deferens
a tube that leads from the epididymis to the urethra - allows flor of urine and semen out of the penis
298
define semen
the fluid expelled from a penis during ejaculation
composed of sperm and fluids secreted by the accessory reproductive glands
299
which hormone stimulates testosterone secretion by interstitial cells?
LH
300
which type of feedback is present in the hormonal control of male reproduction?
majorly negative feedback
301
which day(s) of the menstrual cycle is body temperature at its lowest?
days 13-14
302
which day(s) of the menstrual cycle is body temperature at its highest?
day 17
303
define embryonic diapause
a programmed state of arrested or profoundly slowed embryonic development
304
define delayed implantation
embryonic diapause in placental mammals
305
define puberty
the process that leads to sexual maturity in humans
306
what is puberty triggered by?
an increase of gonadal hormones - testosterone and estradiol
307
define Rh blood typing
a form of blood typing based on the presence or absence of the Rh protein
Rh+ people have protein
Rh- people don't have protein
308
an organisms body plan is laid out during what?
embryogenesis
309
define embryogenesis
the establishment of polarity, tissue layers, organs, and body plan
310
conclusions about human development are largely derived from what?
information collected on development of other animals
311
define differentiation
the process whereby originally similar cells follow different developmental pathways (become “differentiated”)
312
define determination
the point during development at which a cell acquires a certain fate - leads to differentiation
313
define morphogenesis
the development of form by growth
314
define growth
an irreversible increase in size that requires an increase in cell size and cell number (by mitosis)
315
what determines the position of the blastopore?
the point of sperm entry - blastopore develops on opposite side of egg as where the sperm entered
316
what 4 important things occur because of the ions released in an egg upon sperm entry?
prevention of additional sperm entry
increased metabolism
protein synthesis starts
reorganization of cytoplasm
317
the sperm cytoplasm is discarded except for what part? why?
the centriole because it eventually becomes the centrosome, which is critical for mitosis
318
define polarity
the difference between one end of an organism or structure and the other
319
what is the significance of asymmetric drosophila eggs?
drosophila eggs already have a designated anterior end before development
nurse cells cluster on one side of an oocyte and produce bicoid mRNA
after sperm entry, bicoid mRNA is translated into protein
high levels of bcd protein starts the process of anterior development
320
define the animal pole
the dark side of an amphibian egg that contains more pigments in the cytoplasm
321
define the vegetal pole
the light side of an amphibian egg that contains less pigments in the cytoplasm
322
sperm can only enter an egg through the ______ (animal/vegetal) pole
why?
animal pole because its the only side with sperm binding sites
323
define the gray crescent
a rearrangement and overlap of the vegetal and animal poles after sperm entry
324
define cytoplasmic determinants
materials in the cytoplasm, the spatial distribution of which may determine such things as embryonic axes and cell determination.
325
large animal egg cells begin to divide after ________
fertilization
326
after an animal egg cell begins to divide, there _____ (is/is not) growth between events of mitosis
is not
327
after each animal egg cell division, each cell is ______ (half/double/the same) the size of its mother
half the size
328
define cleavage
early cell divisions of an animal zygote - divides the embryo in half without increasing its mass
329
define the blastula
a hollow sphere of cells in an animal embryo surrounding a central cavity
330
define a blastomere
any of the cells produced by the early divisions of a fertilized animal egg
331
define fate (in terms of development)
at a certain point, blastomeres become restricted in what their daughter cells can form/carry out
332
define a fate map
a diagram of the blastula showing which cells (blastomeres) are “fated” to contribute to specific tissues and organs in the mature body
333
define mosaic development
a pattern of animal embryonic development in which each blastomere contributes a specific part of the adult body
334
mosaic development: tests performed on a snail's 2-celled embryo showed that at the 2-cell stage, each cell is....
fated to produce a specific portion of the animal
335
define regulative development
a pattern of animal embryonic development in which the fates of the first blastomeres are not fixed
336
regulative development: tests performed on sea urchin embryos showed that while each cell has the capacity to make an entire animal, it normally what?
what did this show?
does not when in an intact embryo
showed that cells communicate with each other to develop the embryo into a complete unit
337
the blastula develops into a gastrula by what process?
invagination of cells at the vegetal pole
338
what does the gastrula develop into in the complete animal?
the gut
339
define the archenteron
the early stages of the gut as gastrulation takes place
340
define gastrulation
the process by which blastomeres move relative to one another, and from the exterior to the interior, resulting in the three germ layers of the embryo
341
for frog embryo gastrulation, the ________ marks the location of gastrulation
grey crescent
342
in a frog embryo, the _______ (animal/vegetal) pole contains yolk and has cells larger than the _______ (animal/vegetal) cells
vegetal, animal
343
vegetal pole cells divide ________ (faster/slower) than animal pole cells
slower
344
the mesoderm is the origin of the _______
coelom
345
the _______ is the space that allows muscle contractions in internal organs independent of muscles in the body wall
mesoderm
346
what are the 3 germ layers?
ectoderm, endoderm, mesoderm
347
define what the ectoderm makes up (6)
epidermis (skin), fur, hair, claws, sweat glands, cells that make pigments
348
what is the purpose of the ectoderm
outer barrier of body
349
define what the endoderm makes up (5)
gut, lungs, liver, pancreas, gall bladder
350
what is the purpose of the endoderm
gas exchange for respiration, digestion
351
define what the mesoderm makes up (5)
notochord, bones, muscles (including heart), blood, dermis (layer under epidermis)
352
what is the purpose of the mesoderm?
support & circulation
353
the formation of the germ layers is called _______
organogenesis
354
the dorsal lip at gastrulation is known as the organizer because it produces.....
which.....
B-catenin, which triggers the production of transcription factors important for development
355
define the zone of polarizing activity (ZPA)
tissue near the base of the developing limb bud that determines the anterior–posterior axis of the developing limb
356
the ZPA produces _____, which induces pinky development
Shh
357
define apoptosis
programmed (wanted) cell death
358
why does the development of the digits employ apoptosis?
to separate the digits from each other by killing connecting tissues
359
define totipotency
ability of a cell to give rise to all the different kinds of cells in a species
360
skin and blood etc. cells constantly need replacement cells, which are produced by ______
stem cells
361
define multipotent
ability to give rise to multiple types of cells, but not all types
362
salmon need to maintain ______ (higher/lower) salt levels in their body than in the surrounding environment
lower
363
saltwater fish ______ (lose/gain) water by osmosis and ______ (lose/gain) salt by diffusion
lose, gain
364
define osmosis
movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane, from a hypotonic solution to a hypertonic solution (low --> high osmotic pressure)
365
define isosmotic
equal osmotic pressure of 2 solutions separated by a barrier
366
define hyposmotic
a solution with the lower osmotic pressure
367
define hyperosmotic
a solution with the higher osmotic pressure
368
define diffusion (osmosis)
net movement of molecules/particles resulting in even distribution of particles without barriers
369
define concentration gradient
net movement of ions/solutes occurs along this gradient in diffusion or osmosis
370
define osmotic pressure
total concentration of solutes in the solution
371
freshwater animals are ______ (hyperosmotic/hyposmotic/isosmotic) to their environment
hyperosmotic
372
freshwater fish ____ (do/do not) drink water and salt water fish ____ (do/do not) drink water
do not, do
373
invertebrates in seawater are ______ (hyperosmotic/hyposmotic/isosmotic) to seawater
why?
isosmotic
having the same osmotic pressure takes less energy to maintain
374
bony fish in seawater are (hyperosmotic/hyposmotic/isosmotic) to their environment
hyposmotic
375
define salt glands
parts of an animal that get rid of extra salt when their kidneys can't do all the work
376
what kind of animals have salt glands?
birds, lizards, and turtles
377
define osmotic conformers
who are they?
osmotic pressure of an animal's body fluids varies in tandem with their environment
most invertebrates are conformers
378
define osmotic regulators
animals that maintain a nearly constant internal osmotic pressure despite the range in their environment
379
what do land animals need to excrete? (4)
wastes, CO2, toxins, and nitrogenous waste
380
define malpighian tubules
blind-ended tubes in ants where primary urine is produced - between mid & hind gut & extended out of the gut
381
define kidneys
tubular structures that remove fluids to the body's external environment
382
what is the purpose of kidneys
regulate composition & volume of blood plasma
383
define urine
an aqueous solution from the blood plasma discharged from the kidneys to the external environment
384
define bowman's capsule
the structure in a nephron (main structure in kidneys)
385
what are the 3 main processes of nephrons?
filtration
tubular reabsorption
tubular secretion
386
define diuresis
a high volume of dilute urine that increases urine production
387
define antidiuresis
a low volume of concentrated urine that decreases urine production
388
what is ADH?
a hormone produced by the hypothalamus & secreted by the posterior pituitary gland that uses a negative feedback loop to maintain homeostasis of blood volume and osmolarity
389
define nitrogenous wastes
toxic products of metabolism of proteins & nucleic acids
390
define piloting
an animal's ability to know their way around based on the structure of their environment
391
define migration
movement from one location to another - animals remain for a substantial length of time & return periodically
392
define proximate behavioral cause
the immediate mechanistic causes of an individual's behavior
393
define ultimate behavioral cause
causes that led to evolution of a behavior over evolutionary time
394
define fixed action patterns
actions expressed without prior learning & that are resistant to modification by learning
395
what do fixed action patterns suggest?
behavior is controlled by the nervous system
396
define artificial selection
selective breeding of organisms to increase frequency of a favored trait from one generation to the next
397
behavior is ______ (predictable/unpredictable) in response to external stimuli
predictable
398
define biological determinism
idea that an individual's attributes are determined by their genetic endowment - behavior hardwired by genetics
399
biological determinism may only be true for ____ (simple/complex) animals
simple
400
define epigenetics
the study of changes in expression of a gene or set of genes that occur without change in DNA sequence
401
over evolutionary time, attributes found in a species evolve _______ (individually/together)
together
402
define learning
an ability of an individual animal to modify its behaviors as a consequence of individual experiences earlier in its life
403
define innate behaviors
give 2 examples
behaviors that appear to be genetically programmed
exs. spider web making & egg-rolling response in geese
404
define monogamous mating strategy
each individual only mates with 1 other over at least 1 breeding period
405
define promiscuous mating strategy
each male & female mate with as many as possible
406
define polygyny mating strategy
1 male mates with more than 1 female in a single breeding season
407
define polyandry mating strategy
1 female mates with several males - rare
408
define sexual dimorphism
a pronounced difference in morphologies of 2 sexes within a species
409
define feedforward
a feature of a regulatory system that changes a set point in anticipation - amplifies response
