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Advanced Pathophysiology > Module 4 > Flashcards

Module 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A person is diagnosed with an alteration in arousal. Which clinical manifestation is typical of this diagnosis?

A

Vomiting without nausea

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2
Q

An APRN knows the onset of an acute confusion state?

A

Sudden

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3
Q

Seizures are initiated by:

A

hyperexcitability of neurons

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4
Q

An APRN recalls that increased intracranial pressure can occur because of:

A

cerebral edema

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5
Q

The APRN has an areflexic patient and understands this means the person has:

A

no tendon reflexes

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6
Q

An unconscious person is admitted to the hospital after a motorcycle accident. The person experienced a brief loss of consciousness at the scene followed by an awake, lucid period of 1 hour. The APRN suspects this individual has a:

A

extradural hematoma

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7
Q

An APRN knows that spinal shock results in:

A

poor venous circulation

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8
Q

The APRN recalls fusiform aneurysms are due to

A

arteriosclerotic changes

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9
Q

A person arrives at the clinic and reports a unilateral headache for 2 days that worsens with movement and light. No trauma has occurred. The APRN suspects:

A

migraine headaches

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10
Q

An APRN recalls that increased intracranial pressure with hydrocephalus may be the result of:

A

reduced reabsorption of CSF

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11
Q

A child has meningitis. An APRN observes flexion of the knees and hips when the child’s neck is rapidly flexed forward. Which sign did the APRN observe as positive?

A

Brudzinski sign

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12
Q

Which finding will help the APRN determine whether the febrile seizure is a simple febrile seizure?

A

The convulsion is generalized.

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13
Q

The most useful treatment for brain tumors in children is:

A

surgical therapy

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14
Q

Which vaccine may have prevented the boy’s contraction of bacterial meningitis?

A

H. influenza

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15
Q

Upon physical examination, the child shows resistance to knee extension in the supine position with the knees and hips flexed against the body. Which sign is the child displaying?

A

Kernig

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16
Q

Pattern of breathing:

A

apneustic, cluster, and ataxic

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17
Q

Pupillary changes – ischemia/hypoxia

A

dilated

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18
Q

Pupillary changes – opiates

A

pinpoint pupils

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19
Q

Brain death- body cannot maintain

A

internal homeostasis

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20
Q

Brain death is irreversible cessation of the

A

entire brain, including brainstem and cerebellum occurs.

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21
Q

Brain death (EEG characteristics)

A

isoelectric (flat) electroencephalography (EEG) for 6-12 hours

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22
Q

Brain death

A

can no longer maintain the body’s internal homeostasis

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23
Q

Alterations in awareness – pathophysiology - direct

A

direct destruction from direct ischemia and hypoxia

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24
Q

Alterations in awareness – pathophysiology - indirect

A

indirect destruction as a result of compression

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25
Q

Alterations in awareness – pathophysiology

A

effects of toxins and chemicals of metabolic derangement

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26
Q

Agnosia (definition)

A

failure to recognize the form and nature of objects

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27
Q

Agnosia can be

A

can be tactile, visual, or auditory

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28
Q

Aphasia (definition)

A

loss of comprehension or production of language

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29
Q

Dysphasia

A

(impaired speech) – expressive vs receptive

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30
Q

Wernicke’s dysphagia

A

disturbance in understanding all language – verbal and reading comprehension

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31
Q

Conductive dysphagia

A

disruption of temporal lobe fibers with a failure to repeat words but an ability to initiate speech, writing, and reading aloud

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32
Q

Anomic

A

inability to name objects, people, numbers, or qualities

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33
Q

Transcoritcal dysphagia

A

ability to repeat and recite

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34
Q

Broca aphasia

A

xpressive dysphasia of speech and writing but with retention of comprehension

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35
Q

Global aphasia

A

involves anterior and posterior speech areas, with expressive and receptive aphasia

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36
Q

Delirium is 2 states

A

hyperkinetic confusional state
acute state of brain dysfunction

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37
Q

Delirium is associated with the

A

right middle temporal gyrus or disruption of the left temporo-occipital junction

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38
Q

Hyperactive delirium

A

agitated delirium, excited delirium syndrome

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39
Q

Hypoactive delirium

A

hypoactive confusional state, is associated with the disruption of the right-sided, frontal-basal ganglion

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40
Q

Epilepsy-is a recurrence of

A

seizures and a disorder for which no cause can be found

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41
Q

During a seizure, ____ & ____ are depleted and ____ is accumulated.

A

oxygen & glucose. Lactate acid. This is why with progressive seizure activity, there is a potential for progressive brain injury and irreversible damage.

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42
Q

Generalized seizures (neurons)

A

bilaterally

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43
Q

Focal (partial) seizures (neurons)

A

unilaterally

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44
Q

Epilepsy syndromes - what are the cause

A

genetic/developmental cause

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45
Q

Unclassified epileptic seizures. etiology is

A

unknown

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46
Q

what is status epilepticus

A

a medical emergency, continuing/recurring seizures with incomplete recovery, unrelenting seizure activity that lasts 30 minutes or more and the main concern is hypoxia as oxygen decreases when having a seizure

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47
Q

Huntington’s disease
Alterations in what?
Also known as

A

alterations in movement, also known as chorea

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48
Q

Huntington’ disease is rare….

A

autosomal dominant hereditary degenerative disorder, short arm on chromosome 4

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49
Q

Huntington’s disease is severe degeneration of

A

striatum and basal ganglia

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50
Q

Huntington’s disease is abnormal movements that occur

A

without conscious effort, emotional lability, and dementia

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51
Q

Parkinson’s disease – severe degeneration of

A

the basal ganglia (corpus striatum) involving the dopaminergic nigrostriatal pathway

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52
Q

Pyramidal motor syndrome – upper

A

hypertonia/spasticy

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53
Q

Pyramidal motor syndrome - lower

A

hypotonia/flaccidity

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54
Q

ALS – amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

progressive muscle weakness leads to respiratory failure

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55
Q

ALS – lower motor neuron syndrome

A

flaccid paresis consists of a weakness of individual muscles, progressing to paralysis, hypotonia, and primary muscle atrophy (atrophy caused by denervation)

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56
Q

ALS – upper motor neuron syndrome

A

spastic paresis consists of a weakness of movement patterns, progressing to paralysis and atrophy

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57
Q

Moderate cerebral concussion

A

any loss of consciousness lasting more than 30 minutes, accompanied by post traumatic anterograde amnesia lasting 24 hrs or more

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58
Q

Diaphragm function may be impaired because

A

phrenic nerves exit at C3 to C5. Therefore an injury at C4 might impair breathing

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59
Q

Spinal shock - is the complete loss of

A

reflex function in all segments below the level of the lesion

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60
Q

Spinal shock manifestations

A

flaccid paralysis,
sensory deficit,
a disruption in thermal controls (faulty control of sweating),
transient drop in BP,
and loss of bladder and rectal control

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61
Q

Spinal shock may persist for

A

short a time as a few days or as long as 3 months

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62
Q

Neurogenic shock - is caused by the

A

absence of sympathetic activity from loss of supraspinal control and unopposed parasympathetic tone mediated by the intact vagus nerve

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63
Q

Autonomic hyperreflexia (dysreflexia) -

A

sudden massive reflex sympathetic discharge associated with a spinal cord injury at the thoracic level of T6 or above

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64
Q

Herniated intervertebral disk - clinical manifestation

A

pain radiating due to compression (called radiculopathy) along the nerve occurs

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65
Q

two types of cerebrovascular brain abnormalities

A

ischemia with/without infarction and hemorrhage

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66
Q

arteriovenous malformation can be

A

tangled vessels

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67
Q

tension-type headache

A

most common headache, mild-to-moderate bilateral headache with a sensation of a tight band around the head.

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68
Q

tension-type headaches

A

acute and chronic forms

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69
Q

Migraine

A

unilateral, photophobia, phonophobia, can last for days

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70
Q

Tension (location, description)

A

up the back of the head, gradually goes to top, feels like band around the head

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71
Q

Cluster (description, location)

A

very short, several in a day, often pain behind the eye

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72
Q

infection/inflammation of the central nervous system

A

caused by bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites, or mycobacteria

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73
Q

meningitis clinical manifestation

A

bacterial - throbbing headache,
increasing in severity,
increasing photophobia,
nuchal rigidity,
positive Kernig sign,& positive Brudzinski,
projectile vomiting,
neck stiffness

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74
Q

Multiple sclerosis (CNS)

A

progressive, chronic, inflammatory, demyelinating, autoimmune disorder to the CNS - occurs in white and gray matter

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75
Q

Plexus injuries

A

distal to the spinal roots but proximal to the formation of peripheral nerves

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76
Q

Myasthenia Gravis (description)

A

chronic autoimmune disease, defect in nerve impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction

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77
Q

Myasthenia Gravis - clinical manifestations

A

exertional fatigue and weakness that worsens with activity, improves with rest, and recurs with resumption of activity

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78
Q

Clinical manifestations of tumors/meningiomas

A

seizures

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79
Q

brain metastases - clinical manifestations

A

include headache, seizures, and alterations in cognition, mental status, and behavior

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80
Q

in fetuses, nervous system develops

A

middle of the third gestational week

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81
Q

craniosynostosis

A

premature close of one or more of the cranial sutures during the first 18-20 months of life

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82
Q

An APRN recalls the reflex withdrawal of an affected body part from painful stimuli before the pain is perceived is controlled by

A

myelinated A fibers

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83
Q

Which finding would an APRN expect to recognize during the assessment of a person with chronic pain. The person is

A

depressed (they burn up serotonin)

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84
Q

Fever is stimulated by

A

tumor necrosis factor-a

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85
Q

An APRN recalls the majority of the sleep cycle is spent in stage

A

N2

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86
Q

A person is admitted to the hospital after experiencing delusions. The APRN knows that a delusion is:

A

a persistent belief that is contrary to the background of the individual

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87
Q

Which food item would be most appropriate for a person taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?

A

ham

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88
Q

A patient has excessive and persistent worrying for longer than 6 months. Which diagnosis will the APRN observe documented on the chart?

A

generalized anxiety disorder

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89
Q

processing of pain - (4 stages)

A

transduction, transmission, perception, and modulation

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90
Q

neuroanatomy of pain

A

Myelinated A-delta -transmission is fast and causes reflex withdrawal of affected body part from stimulus before pain sensation is perceived

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91
Q

unmyelinated C polymodal fibers

A

transmission is slower and conveys dull, aching, or burning sensations

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92
Q

segmental inhibition

A

inhibitory interneuron

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93
Q

Acute pain is a

A

protective mechanism

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94
Q

Acute pain alerts an individual to a condition or experience that is

A

Immediately harmful to the body

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95
Q

Acute pain lasts

A

less than 3 months

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96
Q

Clinical manifestations of acute pain

A

sympathetic nervous notable,
tachycardia,
hypertension,
diaphoresis,
dilated pupils,
and anxiety

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97
Q

Acute somatic pain

A

arises from joints, muscle, bone, and skin

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98
Q

Acute visceral pain - transmitted by

A

C fibers and pain arises from the internal organs and lining of body cavities

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99
Q

Acute visceral pain - pain is

A

poorly localized as a result of the fewer number of nociceptors

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100
Q

Acute visceral pain- (description)

A

aching, gnawing, throbbing, or intermittent in quality

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101
Q

Chronic pain lasts at

A

least 3 months.
Is poorly understood.
Chronic pain does not respond to usual therapy.

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102
Q

Chronic pain serves

A

no protective purpose

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103
Q

Chronic pain is thought to be caused by

A

dysregulation of nociception and pain modulation processes (peripheral and central sensitization) so not easily controlled

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104
Q

Chronic pain - neuroplasticity

A

maintenance of pain (brain’s ability to form and reorganize synaptic connection in response to learning or experiencing)

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105
Q

Chronic pain may cause

A

behavioral and psychological changes, such as depression and anxiety

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106
Q

Chronic pain - suffering

A

usually increases with time

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107
Q

Temperature regulation: thermoregulation is controlled by the

A

hypothalamus

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108
Q

Heat is distributed by

A

the circulatory system

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109
Q

Heat is produced by

A

chemical reactions of metabolism and skeletal muscle tone and contraction

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110
Q

Vasodilation is a mechanism

A

of heat loss

111
Q

Vasoconstriction is a mechanism

A

of heat conservation

112
Q

Pathogenesis of fever:

A

temporary resetting of the hypothalamic thermostat

113
Q

Benefits of fever

A

aids infectious response,
kills many organisms,
decreases the serum levels of iron, zinc, and copper,
deprives bacteria of food,
promotes lysosomal breakdown and autodestruction of cells
, and increases lymphocytic transformation and phagocyte motility

114
Q

Tissue hypothermia

A

slows chemical reactions, increases blood viscosity and slows blood through the microcirculation; facilitates blood coagulation; stimulates vasoconstriction

115
Q

NREM sleep

A

N1-light sleep-3-8%;
N2-longest stage-45-55%;
N3-slow wave sleep 13-23%

116
Q

REM is (what percentage) of sleep

A

20-25%

117
Q

REM is also known as paradoxical as the

A

EEG pattern is similar to that of a natural awaken pattern where the brain is very active with dreaming

118
Q

Vivid dreaming occurs during

A

REM

119
Q

REM occurs

A

every 90 minutes, beginning after 1-2 hours of sleep

120
Q

Insomnia

A

inability to fall or stay asleep

121
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome & restless leg syndrome

A

sleep disorders

122
Q

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome due to

A

leptin resistance

123
Q

Conductive hearing loss

A

cannot be conducted through the middle ear

124
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss-can be caused by

A

ototoxic drugs, impaired organ of Corti or its central connections

125
Q

Presbycusis is

A

age related hearing loss

126
Q

Mixed hearing loss

A

combination of conductive and sensorineural losses

127
Q

Functional hearing loss

A

no organic cause

128
Q

Schizophrenia is alterations

A

of brain dopamine pathways

129
Q

Schizophrenia - glutamate hypothesis

A

underactivation of glutamate receptors

130
Q

Schizophrenia - type of episodes

A

psychotic episode, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized behavior

131
Q

Schizophrenia clinical manifestations - negative symptoms

A

characterized by disruptions in normal emotional states and expressions

132
Q

Schizophrenia clinical manifestations- cognitive symptoms

A

problems with thought process, inability to perform daily tasks requiring attention and planning

133
Q

Schizophrenia clinical manifestations - negative dimensions

A

flattened affect (near absence of facial expressions or emotions); anhedonia (cannot experience emotions like pleasure or pain and feel detached from environment);
alogia (absence of speech and the ability to answer questions or express themselves);
avolition (not able to complete simple goals or tasks like bathing or dressing)

134
Q

Bipolar 1

A

Depression with mania

135
Q

bipolar 2

A

Depression with hypomania

136
Q

Depression - deficits

A

in norepinephrine, dopamine, and/or serotonin, leading to depression

137
Q

Mania - elevated

A

concentration of monoamines

138
Q

PTSD -

A

persistent dysregulation of fear-based memory system

139
Q

PTSD- DSM5 needs 6 symptoms

A

re-experience, avoidance, negative cognitions, and mood and arousal

140
Q

A person has rhabdomyolysis. Which typical clinical manifestations will the APRN find upon assessment?

A

Dark urine

141
Q

Which information is correct regarding the pathophysiologic process of osteomyelitis?

A

Osteomyelitis produces sequestrum

142
Q

The primary defect in osteoarthritis is:

A

loss of articular cartilage

143
Q

A person has gout. Which typical clinical manifestation may the APRN find upon assessment?

A

tophi

144
Q

An infant has a positive Ortolani sign. Which condition is the infant experiencing?

A

development dysplasia of the hip

145
Q

Structural scoliosis may be caused by:

A

neuromuscular disease

146
Q

A preadolescent arrives at the clinic and reports pain and swelling in the left knee after playing sports. The nurse suspects:

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

147
Q

A child newly diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Because of this diagnosis, the APRN expects:

A

the child will be a boy

148
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common of the muscular dystrophies and occurs only in boys. It is a progressive

A

weakness associated with large calf muscles that are said to be : pseudohypertrophic

149
Q

What is the most likely reason why Foley catheter insertion is needed in DMD:

A

the patient is experiencing incontinence

150
Q

Fracture classifications

A

complete (bone is broken all the way through), incomplete (bone is damaged but still in one piece), incomplete (

151
Q

Fracture- closed or simple (complete or incomplete)

A

skin is intact

152
Q

Fracture - open or compound (complete or incomplete)

A

skin is broken

153
Q

Fracture-comminuted

A

bone breaks into more than 2 fragments

154
Q

Fracture - linear

A

fracture runs parallel to the long axis of the bone

155
Q

Fracture - oblique

A

fracture of the shaft of the bone is slanted

156
Q

Fracture - spiral

A

encircles the bone

157
Q

Fracture-transverse

A

occurs straight across the bone

158
Q

Fracture - greenstick

A

perforates one cortex and splinters the spongy bone

159
Q

Fracture-torus

A

cortex buckles but does not break

160
Q

Fracture-bowing

A

longitudinal force is applied to a bone

161
Q

Fracture-pathologic

A

break occurs at the site of a preexisting abnormality

162
Q

Fracture-stress

A

fatigue and insufficiency, transchondral

163
Q

Bone fractures clinical manifestations

A

impaired function,
unnatural alignment,
swelling,
muscle spasms,
tenderness, pain,
impaired sensation

164
Q

Rhabdomyolysis

A

release of intracellular potassium into circulation creating high K levels which might require dialysis to correct if extensive

165
Q

Rhabdomyolysis-protein

A

pigment myoglobin into extracellular space and bloodstream - causing cola colored urine

166
Q

Classic triad of complications rhabdomyolysis

A

muscle pain, weakness, and dark urine (from myoglobin)

167
Q

rhabdomyolysis - Treatment

A

rapid intravenous hydration

168
Q

Osteomalacia -deficiency of

A

vitamin D lowers the absorption of calcium from the intestines, results in soft bones

169
Q

Osteoarthritis-most common

A

form of joint disease and is a disorder of synovial joints

170
Q

Osteoarthritis- inflammatory

A

(new evidence and cytokines) joint disease. No single patho

171
Q

Osteoarthritis- loss of

A

articular cartilage, sclerosis of underlying bone, and formation of bone spurs (osteophytes)

172
Q

Osteoarthritis - also called

A

degenerative joint disease

173
Q

Osteoarthritis- incidence

A

increases with age

174
Q

Osteoarthritis - leading cause of

A

disability in middle aged and older populations

175
Q

Osteoarthritis - clinical manifestations

A

pain, stiffness, enlargement of the joint, tenderness, limited motion, and deformity

176
Q

Osteoarthritis - clinical manifestations- nodes

A

joint swelling in the fingers - Heberden and Bouchard nodes

177
Q

Heberden nodules

A

very end of the fingers, groups of 2

178
Q

Bouchard nodules

A

in the middle of the fingers

179
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis - clinical manifestations

A

rheumatoid nodules in organs

180
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

chronic inflammatory joint disease in the spine or sacroiliac joints, causing stiffening and fusion of the joints

181
Q

gout - clinical manifestations - pain

A

in the great toe (usually, but not always); worse at night often in the metatarsophalangeal joint

182
Q

gout clinical manifestations - increase

A

in serum urate concentration, hyperuricemia

183
Q

gout clinical manifestations - recurrent

A

attacks of monoarticular arthritis: inflammation of a single joint

184
Q

gout clinical manifestations- deposits

A

of monosodium urate monohydrate (tophi) in and around the joints

185
Q

gout clinical manifestations - renal

A

disease, involving glomerular, tubular, and interstitial tissues and blood vessels

186
Q

gout clinical manifestations - formation

A

of renal stones

187
Q

Polymyositis and Dermatomyositis -

A

inflammation of connective tissue and muscle fibers

188
Q

myopathy -

A

a primary muscle disorder

189
Q

Genu varum (arrogant cowboy)

A

bowlegged

190
Q

genu valgum

A

knock kneed

191
Q

Ricketts causes

A

insufficient vitamin D
insensitivity to vitamin D
renal wasting of vit D
inability to absorb calcium or vit D in the gut

192
Q

Ricketts disorder causing

A

mineralization failure, “soft bones”, and skeletal deformity

193
Q

Osgood-Schlatter disease

A

tendinitis of the anterior patellar tendon and osteochondrosis of the tubercle of the tibia

194
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the

A

most common muscular dystrophy

195
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy definition

A

poorly anchored fibers tear apart under the repeated stress of contraction,

free calcium then enters the muscle cell, causing cell death and fiber necrosis

196
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy clinical manifestations

A

appear by age 3-4 years of age
gait abnormalities
progressive weakness - muscles, respiratory insufficiency, cardiomyopathy, scoliosis

197
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy clinical manifestations

A

waddling gait
gower sign (climbing up the legs when rising)
cognitive dysfunction

198
Q

Dermal appendages that are important in body temperature regulation are

A

eccrine sweat glands

199
Q

Allergic contact dermatitis is associated with

A

delayed hypersensitivity

200
Q

Which information is correct regarding acne rosacea ?

A

is likely an immune-mediated inflammation

201
Q

A person has verrucae. Which microorganism is the causative agent?

A

virus

202
Q

Basal cell carcinoma is associated with

A

depressed center and rolled borders

203
Q

Acne vulgaris is

A

associated with excessive sebum production

204
Q

Which information is correct regarding bacterial skin infections

A

impetigo causes small vesicles with a honey-colored crust

205
Q

A child is seen at the local clinic with an erythematous maculopapular rash, high fever, enlarged lymph nodes, and a barking cough. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

A

rubeola

206
Q

Salmon patches

A

result from distended dermal capillaries that fade over time

207
Q

Which microorganism is the cause of the baby’s rash that is now worse in comparison to the original diaper rash?

A

candida albicans

208
Q

Which type of medication has the healthcare provider most likely prescribed for the baby

A

topical antifungal

209
Q

Pruritis

A

itching & most common symptom of primary skin disorders

210
Q

atopic dermatitis is also called

A

atopic eczema

211
Q

atopic dermatitis is common in

A

childhood and infancy, but can last into adult life

212
Q

What is the presenting symptom of atopic dermatitis

A

pruritis

213
Q

what is a herald patch

A

circular, demarcated, salmon-pink

214
Q

erythema multiforme is associated with

A

allergic or toxic reactions to drugs or microorganisms

215
Q

erythema multiforme is caused by

A

immune complexes formed and deposited around dermal blood vessels, basement membranes, and keratinocytes

216
Q

Bulls eye (target lesion)

A

erythematous regions surrounded by rings of alternating edema and inflammation

217
Q

honey-crusted - impetigo is caused by what organism

A

staphylococcus

218
Q

Tinea corporis definition

A

ringworm of the body

219
Q

Tinea corporis characteristics of lesion

A

round oval or circular, central clearing with raised red borders, borders may have vesicles, papules, or pustules, scaling, itching, burning

220
Q

candiadiasis is caused by

A

candida albicans

221
Q

candiadiasis is normally found

A

on the skin, in the GI tract, and in the vagina

222
Q

C. albicans causes thrush which is

A

local environment of moisture and warmth, systemic administration of antibiotics, pregnancy, diabetes mellitus, Cushing’s disease, debilitated states, age younger than 6 months, immunosuppression, and neoplastic diseases

223
Q

candiadiasis clinical manifestations

A

thin-walled pustule that produces a whitish-yellow curd like substance

224
Q

candiadiasis treatment

A

topical antifungal medication

225
Q

seborrheic keratosis

A

cutaneous basal cells

226
Q

actinic keratosis is

A

premalignant lesion composed of aberrant proliferations of epidermal keratinocytes caused by prolonged exposure to UV radiation

227
Q

acne vulgaris - non-inflammatory acne - blackheads

A

comedones are open

228
Q

acne vulgaris-non-inflammatory acne-whiteheads

A

comedones are closed

229
Q

inflammatory acne is caused by

A

follicular wall rupture in closed comedones

230
Q

pustules are inflammation

A

close to the surface

231
Q

papulas and cystic nodules are inflammation

A

is deeper and may cause scarring

232
Q

inside out-immunologic dysregulation

A

leading to an epidermal barrier abnormality

233
Q

outside-in

A

explanation with primary barrier dysfunction as the cause

234
Q

atopic dermatitis clinical manifestations -

A

frequent exacerbations, severe pruritis (itching is the hallmark sign), and characteristics eczematoid appearance with redness, edema, and scaling

235
Q

atopic dermatitis in infants

A

rash (red scaly lesions) appearing on the face, scalp, trunk, and extensor surfaces of the arms and legs

236
Q

atopic dermatitis in children and adults

A

tendency of rash to appear on the neck, antecubital, and popliteal fossae, hands and feet

237
Q

atopic dermatitis common lab finding

A

eosinophilia

238
Q

Lichenification is the

A

thickening of the epidermis from constant scratching

239
Q

atopic dermatitis is common

A

with adults with chronic eczema

240
Q

irritant contact dermatitis

A

candida infection (diaper rash)

241
Q

skin infection caused by bacteria

A

impetigo

242
Q

impetigo contagiosum is a

A

common condition in children

243
Q

impetigo transmission is by

A

both direct and indirect contacts

244
Q

impetigo is characterized by

A

honey-crusted lesions

245
Q

impetigo is a superficial infection usually caused by

A

staphylococcus aureus or streptococcus pyogenes

246
Q

impetigo incidence is high

A

in hot,humid climates

247
Q

impetigo types

A

nonbullous and bullous

248
Q

bullous impetigo produces

A

staphylococci produce a bacterial toxin called exfoliative toxin (ET)

249
Q

bullous impetigo causes a disruption

A

in desmosomal adhesion molecules with blister formation

250
Q

molluscum contagiosum is

A

pox-like scales, highly contagious

251
Q

rubeola red measles clinical manifestations

A

high fever
malaise
enlarged lymph nodes
runny nose
conjunctivitis
barking cough

252
Q

rubeola red measles skin description

A

erythematous purple to red or brown maculopapular rash, developing over the head and spreading distally over the trunk, extremities, hands and feet

253
Q

rubeola red measles - Koplik spots

A

mouth lesions- pinpoint white spots surrounded by an erythematous ring over the buccal mucosa, lasts 3-5 days

254
Q

what help the prevention of rubeola ?

A

vaccines

255
Q

rubeola red measles treatment

A

same as rubella (vaccine)

256
Q

roseola is

A

erythematous, nonpruritic macular rash that lasts approximately 24-48 hours and develops over trunk, neck, and arms

257
Q

chicken pox/varicella is the same as

A

herpes zoster (shingles)

258
Q

chickenpox both diseases are produced by

A

the same virus

259
Q

varicella-zoster virus (VZV) is a

A

deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) virus

260
Q

chickenpox infection occurs within the

A

keratinocytes

261
Q

chickenpox is highly contagious

A

spread by person to person contact and airborne droplets

262
Q

chickenpox clinical manifestations -

A

itching or the appearance of vesicles, usually on the trunk, scalp or face; later spreading to the extremities

263
Q

chicken pox clinical manifestations lesions

A

in various stages of maturation with macules, papules, and vesicles present in a particular area at the same time

264
Q

children chickenpox clinical manifestations

A

children with chickenpox are at risk for developing shingles as an adult

265
Q

who does hand/foot/mouth disease affect

A

infants and young children

266
Q

hand/foot/mouth disease is caused by

A

coxsackievirus

267
Q

hand/foot/mouth disease clinical manifestations

A

fever
vesicular ulcerous lesions in the mouth
vesicular rashes on hands, feet, buttocks,
meningitis
encephalitis
acute flaccid paralysis
neuro respiratory syndrome

268
Q

hand/foot/mouth disease treatment

A

supportive care

269
Q

Scabies is a contagious disease caused by

A

the itch mite, sarcoptes scabiei

270
Q

Scabies is transmitted by

A

personal contact and infected clothing and linens

271
Q

scabies - female mites

A

tunnels into the stratum corneum and deposits eggs

272
Q

scabies primary lesions -

A

burrows, papules, and vesicular lesions with severe itching (worse at night)

273
Q

scabies treatment

A

scabicide or oral ivermectin (for severe scabies), all clothing/linens must be washed in hot cycles or dry cleaned

Advanced Pathophysiology (5 decks)

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